Nn Flashcards
When can we reduce RVR’s from 300/125/75 (CAT II) and 200/125/75 (CAT IIIA) to 300/75/75 and 200/75/75?
If we have a rollout guidance system for the middle part and the end part is not relevant.
What is alert height?
100ft RA. It’s the characteristics of the airplane and it’s fail operational landing system which we will execute a missed approach above it if we get any failure on the redundant part of the automatic landing system or the ground equipment. Below AH, we will continue even if we get any failures ECXEPT if the LAND red light flashes.
When is the red Autoland armed and when can it be triggered? 4
Armed below 200ft RA,
triggered if: both AP’s trips off, Excessive beam deviation is sensed, LOC or GS transmitter fails and discrepancies between the both RA’s more than 15ft.
What does CAT III DUAL mean on FMA
It’s the airplanes fail operational system which means if one part of the automatic landing system fails below alert height, the other will take over to complete the automatic landing, flare and rollout.
What does CAT III single means in FMA?
It’s the aircraft fail passive system. In case of failure below AH, there is no remaining part that can take over to complete the landing, flare and rollout which means that the pilot needs to complete it manually or perform a go around.
What do we need to see to continue a CAT II approach on the DH?
On CAT III A?
Three consecutive lights of the approach lighting system, the threshold lights, runway centerline lines runway edge lights, touchdown zone light or a combination of these.
Also a lateral element of the ground pattern like approach lighting crossbar, threshold lights (green) or barrette of the TDZ lights.
The DH is to low, so the same except the approach lighting system because we have passed them and also not the lateral element of the ground pattern.
When does LAND, flare/no flare and rollout/no rollout appears on FMA?
Land = earliest 400ft, latest 350ft RA
Flare = earliest 40ft, latest 30ft.
Rollout = as soon as one of the main landing gears touches the ground.
What does LAND arm on the FMA? What happens when we see LAND on FMA?
Arms the flare and rollout mode. The FMGC and FCU freezes and aircraft is in land mode. We can only get out of it by applying TOGA thrust.
How far is it between centerline lights and the edge lights?
Can the towers RVR report be overridden by pilots?
15m between centerline lights and 60m between the edge lights.
Yes? We calculate amount of centerline lights we see. 9x15=135. We need to see at least 9 centerline lights to be able to depart with lowest LVO (125m).
When must LVP procedure be in force?
Depends from airport to airport but it should be when RVR is below 400m.
An LVTO is a take off on a runway where the RVR is? Performed by?
Is use of flex permitted?
What about if RVR is below 150m?
Below 550m = LVTO. (New, before it was 400m)
Performed by CM1.
Yes.
Then we need special approval from the authority.
Pilot incapacitated = what do we do during climb/descend or approach?
Climb = climb to MSA
Descent = monitor MSA = don’t descend below MSA unless everything is finished.
Approach = go-around.
What is the detection capability of the TCAS?
MAXIMUM ALTITUDE RANGE?
30NM either side (laterally) and 30-80NM longitudinally
9900FT above and below.
TCAS RA = collision after?
TCAS TA = collision after?
Real collision threat = 25s.
Potential collision threat = 40s
If we have TA/RA selected, when does it automatically reverts to TA? 4
If we get wind shear warning, stall warning, GPWS alert and aircraft is below 1000ft.
When is AP/FD TCAS inhibited? 2
If we have TA and not TA/RA and below 900ft AGL.
When is TA inhibited during climb and descend?
Below 600ft AGL in climb and below 400ft AGL in descent.
When is RA inhibited during climb and descend?
Below 1100 AGL in climb and 900ft AGL in descent.
Fuel leak procedure: if not confirmed it’s coming from the engine or leak is not located we need to isolate each wing. We maintain the cross feed valve closed and switch off the center pumps to?
If fuel symmetrically decreases in both wing tanks and the fuel quantity in the center tank decreases it means?
Because when we do like this each wing tank feeds it’s associated engine. We monitor the fuel and If fuel decreases faster in one wing = we know that the fuel leak comes from that side.
It means fuel leak comes from the center tank or APU feed line.
What does the cross feed button in the overhead FUEL do?
When we press it (on) = allows both engines to be fed from one side or one engine to be fed from both sides.
When does tailpipe fire occur and Why does tailpipe fire occur?
Only on ground/during engine start/engine shutdown.
Occur because we have excessive fuel in the combustion chamber, turbine or exhaust nozzle.
There is no ECAM alerts of tailpipe fire, which indications can maybe help us?
Procedure in QRH.
The EGT will increase due to fire in the turbines, we can check the EGT in E/WD.
Why do the QRH tell us to shut down the engine and to dry crank the engine in case of tailpipe fire?
To stop the fuel flow to the engine (shut down) and to remove the remaining fuel in the engine. We want to clean the fuel in the engine.
The performance impact of a tire burst is equivalent to?
To a brake released = we put ONE BRK release failure in case of 1 tire and TWO BRK release failure in case of 2 tires in the PERF calculation application.