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O & P Mock Exams COPY > *Not Finished* Sixth Orthotics Mock Exam > Flashcards

*Not Finished* Sixth Orthotics Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The medial upright of a KAFO for an adult should terminate proximally…

a. at the transverse plane of the ischial tuberosity
b. 1.25 cm (1/2 in) distal to the greater trochanter
c. 3.8cm (1 1/2in) distal to the perineum
d. 7.6cm (3in) distal to the proximal border of the lateral upright.

A

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2
Q

You are laying out a tracing for a KAFO and genu varum is evident. The mid-saggital line should extend from the perineum through a point…

a. 3.2 cm (1 1/4in) medial to the medial malleolus
b. 1.6cm (5/8in) medial to the medial malleolus
c. 3.2cm (1 1/4in) medial to the knee
d. 1.6 cm (5/8in) medial to the knee

A

Answer coming soon

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3
Q

If the mechanical knee joint is placed too distal to the anatomic knee joint, what problem will result?

a. anterior pressure is increased on the thigh with the knee flexed
b. posterior pressure is increased on the thigh with the knee flexed
c. the patient lacks ability to flex the knee fully
d. the patient lacks ability to extend the knee fully

A

Answer coming soon

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4
Q

The hip joint is most stable during stance when the weight line is…

a. anterior to the joint
b. posterior to the joint
c. medial to the joint
d. lateral to the joint

A

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5
Q

The normal hip reaches maximum extension during….

a. push-off
b. midswing
c. heel-strike
d. mid-stance

A

Answer coming soon

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6
Q

Which of the following is a purely sensory nerve?

a. obturator
b. tibial
c. femoral
d. saphenous
e. popliteal

A

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7
Q

The pelvic band on an HKAFO should be located…

a. superior to the anterior superior iliac spine.
b. across the greater trochanter anterior to the symphysis pubis
c. between the anterior superior iliac spine and the crest of the ilium
d. midway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter of the femur

A

Answer coming soon

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8
Q

A metal single axis (free motion) orthotic hip joint will control all of the following motions at the hip except…

a. abduction
b. adduction
c. external rotation
d. internal rotation
e. extension

A

Answer coming soon

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9
Q

An infant with bilateral dislocated hips is usually fitted with an orthosis that will hold the hips in…

a. extension and internal rotation
b. extension and abduction
c. flexion and internal rotation
d. flexion and abduction

A

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10
Q

The major flexor muscle of the hip joint is the…

a. tensor fascia lata
b. sartorius
c. iliopsoas
d. rectus femoris
e. gracilis

A

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11
Q

Which of the following does not cause hip hiking?

a. poor quadriceps strength
b. KAFO with knee locked in extension
c. contralateral limb shortened
d. knee ankylosis

A

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12
Q

Where is the anatomical hip joint located in relation to the greater trochanter?

a. distal and anterior
b. distal and posterior
c. proximal and anterior
d. proximal and posterior

A

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13
Q

What anatomical structure prevents excessive hip hyperextension?

a. rectus femoris muscle
b. iliopsoas muscle
c. sacro-spinous ligament
d. iliofemoral ligament

A

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14
Q

To promote healing in a case of Legg-perthes’ disease, an orthosis should hold the hip joint in…

a. internal rotation and abduction
b. internal rotation and adduction
c. external rotation and abduction
d. external rotation and adduction

A

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15
Q

KAFO’s are seldom prescribed for paraplegic patients with lesions above…

a. T12
b. L2
c. L3
d. L5

A

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16
Q

The deformity caused by unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid is known as…

a. Klippel-Feil syndrome
b. spondylolisthesis
c. torticollis
d. sprengel’s deformity

A

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17
Q

A soft cervical collar is most effective in…

a. controlling rotation
b. unweighting the occiput
c. restricting head motion
d. minimizing forward flexion

A

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18
Q

Which of the following muscles remain functional in a quadriplegic patient with a complete lesion below the C6 root?

a. abductor pollicis longus
b. extensor carpi radialis brevis
c. flexor carpi ulnaris
d. first dorsal interosseous

A

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19
Q

The superior articulating surfaces of the atlas articulate with the…

a. occipital condyles
b. inion
c. axis
d. odontoid process
e. parietal bones

A

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20
Q

The orthotic treatment indicated for a fracture of T3 is…

a. CTLSO (Milwaukee)
b. CTLSO (combination Taylor-cervical orthosis)
c. CTO (SOMI)
d. TLSO (Boston

A

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21
Q

Which of the following offers the greatest immobilization for a fracture of the odontoid?

a. four poster orthosis attached to a body jacket
b. SOMI with head band
c. halo jacket
d. Milwaukee CTLSO

A

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22
Q

When casting for the milwaukee CTLSO, the patient’s pelvis should be in what position?

a. oblique
b. flexed
c. neutral
d. extended

A

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23
Q

The theory of the CTLSO with throat mold and occipultal pads (Milwaukee brace) when treating scoliosis is that the latera pressure must be coupled with…

a. firm mandibular pressure
b. active distraction
c. passive extension
d. decreased abdominal pressure

A

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24
Q

In which of the following conditions is a Milwaukee CTLSO not recommended?

a. skeletal immaturity
b. idiopathic scoliosis
c. thoracolumbar curves
d. curve greater than 60 degrees

A

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25
Q

The measurements for a TLSO (anterior hyperextension orthosis) should be taken with the patient in what position?

a. standing erect
b. sitting erect
c. lying prone
d. lying supine

A

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26
Q

Anterior displacement of one vertebra on the next inferior vertebra is called…

a. spondylolysis
b. spondylosis
c. spondylitis
d. spondylolisthesis

A

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27
Q

The primary purpose of the axillary straps on a TLSO (Taylor orthosis) is to resist…

a. inferior displacement of the orthosis
b. scapular adduction
c. shoulder girdle and thoracic motion
d. thoracic extension
e. glenohumeral motion

A

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28
Q

During which phase of locomotion is antero-rotary instability of the knee most evident?

a. heel-strike
b. mid-stance
c. heel-off
d. push-off

A

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29
Q

For an adult of average height, the knee joint in a KAFO should be located…

a. 1.9 cm (3/4”) proximal to the medial tibial plateau
b. 1.9 cm (3/4”) proximal to the apex of the head of the fibula
c. 3.8 cm (1 1/2”) proximal to the medial tibial plateau
d. 3.8 (1 1/2”) proximal to the head of the fibula

A

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30
Q

A patient wearing a metal KAFO demonstrates excessive knee flexion when standing. To correct this problem, the orthotist should deepen the…

a. proximal thigh band
c. distal thigh band
c. calf band

A

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31
Q

When reducing a knee flexion contracture with an orthosis, the major problem to watch for is…

a. posterior subluxation of the tibia on the femur
b. anterior subluxation of the tibia on the femur
c. lateral displacement of the patella
d. medial displacement of the patella

A

Answer coming soon

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32
Q

The orthosis of choice for a patient with good hip control but fair minus quadriceps is…

a. KAFO with free knee and locked ankle
b. KAFO with free knee and free ankle
c. AFO with dorsiflexion assist
d. AFO with dorsiflexion stop

A

Answer coming soon

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33
Q

Which nerve innervates the sartorius muscle of the thigh?

a. femoral
b. obturator
c. sciatic
d. gluteal
e. peroneal

A

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34
Q

The obturator nerve innervates what muscle?

a. semitendinosus
b. adductor longus
c. illiopsoas
d. tensor fasciae latae
e. gluteus maximus

A

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35
Q

What is the major function of a parapodium?

a. corrects spinal curvatures
b. improves sitting balance
c. prevents hip deformity
d. stabilizes the lower limbs and spine

A

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36
Q

Which of the following KAFO modifications does not help control genu recurvatum?

a. moving distal thigh and calf bands closer to knee center
b. lowering proximal thigh band
c. reducing depth of distal thigh band
d. adding posterior plastic thigh and calf shells.

A

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37
Q

Anterioposterior instability of the knee is caused by a tear of which of the following ligaments?

a. collateral
b. iliofemoral
c. cruciate
d. tibiofibular

A

c. cruciate

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38
Q

Fracture bracing is not indicated for…

a. fractures of the proximal third of the tibia
b. tibial plateau fractures
c. intertrochanteric fractures
d. fractures of the mid shaft of the femur

A

Answer coming soon

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39
Q

What function should the knee component provide in a cast brace following repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament?

a. slight varus stress
b. slight valgus stress
c. prevent full flexion
d. prevent full extension

A

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40
Q

Which of the following would be the best orthosis for a patient with a complete neurologic lesion just below T12?

a. KAFO with double stop ankle joint
b. KAFO with anterior stop at ankle
c. AFO with double stop ankle joint
d. AFO with anterior stop at ankle

A

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41
Q

A complete lesion of the femoral nerve at the level of the inguinal ligament would affect…

a. knee flexion
b. knee extension
c. hip flexion
d. hip extension

A

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42
Q

All of the following are functions of the UCBL foot orthosis except…

a. correct hallux valgus
b. corrects pes planus
c. holds the calcaneus in a neutral position
d. adducts the forefoot

A

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43
Q

Compared to the Balmoral style, the major advantage of the Blucher style shoe is…

a. easier doning
b. reduced piston action
c. greater ML support
d. increased base of support

A

Answer coming soon

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44
Q

Pes cavus is a condition in which the foot has a…

a. high longitudinal arch
b. flat longitudinal arch
c. hindfoot varus
d. hindfoot valgus

A

Answer coming soon

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45
Q

The subtalar joint is an articulation between the talus and the…

a. navicular
b. tibia
c. cuboid
d. calcaneus
e. second cuneiform

A

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46
Q

Reverse last or “outflare” shoes are generally prescribed to control…

a. forefoot abduction
b. forefoot adduction
c. hindfoot varus
d. hindfoot valgus

A

Answer coming soon

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47
Q

All the following are objectives in the treatment of pes cavus except…

a. distribute weght over entire foot
b. resist tendency of foot to pronate
c. balance hindfoot-forefoot pressures
d. reduce load on metatarsal heads

A

Answer coming soon

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48
Q

Where should a metatarsal pad be located?

a. proximal to the metatarsal heads
b. distal to the metatarsal heads
c. lateral to the metatarsal heads
d. medial to the metatarsal heads.

A

a. proximal to the metatarsal heads

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49
Q

Which of the following shoe modifications is designed to simulate dorsiflexion?

a. SACH heel
b. metatarsal bar
c. rocker bar
d. reverse thomas heel

A

Answer coming soon

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50
Q

The wire coil spring AFO is generally contraindicated for patients with moderate gastrocnemius spasticity because of…

a. restricted ML motion in ankle
b. reduced eversion during swing phase of gait
c. increased extension moment at the knee
d. inducted reflex contraction of the muscle

A

Answer coming soon

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51
Q

All of the following muscles pass directly posterior to the medial malleolus except the…

a. peroneus longus
b. flexor halucis longus
c. tibialis posterior
d. flexor digitorum longus

A

Answer coming soon

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52
Q

Which of the following adjustments to a metal AFO would best accommodate 1 1/2” of tibial torsion?

a. rotation of the shoe on stirrup
b. deflexion of stirrup extensions
c. wedging between stirrup and sole of shoe
d. increased clearance at stirrup and lateral malleolus

A

Answer coming soon

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53
Q

corrugations are incorporated in plastic orthotic designs to…

a. add rigidity
b. permit air circulation
c. establish trim lines
d. facilitate vacuum forming

A

Answer coming soon

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54
Q

The major weight bearing areas of a PTB orthosis are the patellar tendon and the…

a. distal border of patella
b. popliteal fossa
c. pretibial compartment
d. medial tibial flare

A

Answer coming soon

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55
Q

The major problem with using torsion shafts (twisters) to correct for excess rotation of the leg is…

a. discomfort in sitting
b. difficulty with localizing rotary forces
c. obtaining adequate reaction points
d. difficulty with donning and doffing

A

Answer coming soon

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56
Q

Inversion and eversion of the hind foot occur at which of the following joints…

a. ankle
b. subtalar
c. mid-tarsal
d. tarsal metatarsal

A

Answer coming soon

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57
Q

When selecting an AFO for a patient who demonstrates both knee instability at heel strike and genu recurvatum at mid stance, the most effective ankle joint to use would be:

a. dorsiflexion stop
b. plantar flexion stop
c. solid ankle
d. free ankle

A

Answer coming soon

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58
Q

When a 120 pound man is standing normally, how much weight is borne on his left first metatarsal head?

a. 10 pounds
b. 20 pounds
c. 40 pounds
d. 60 pounds
e. 120 pounds

A

Answer coming soon

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59
Q

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the PTB orthosis?

a. control ankle varus
b. reduce weight bearing through the tibia
c. prevent genu recurvatum
d. provide ML stability at the knee

A

Answer coming soon

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60
Q

Loss of power in the gastrocnemius soleus group indicates injury to which of the following nerves?

a. deep peroneal
b. superficial peroneal
c. sural
d. tibial

A

Answer coming soon

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61
Q

The gastrocnemius muscle produces which of the following knee and anklemotions?

a. knee flexion, ankle plantar flexion
b. knee flexion, ankle dorsiflexion
c. knee extension, ankle plantar flexion
d. knee extension, ankle dorsiflexion

A

Answer coming soon

62
Q

Which of the following muscles is not part of the pretibial group?

a. extensor hallucis longus
b. tibialis anterior
c. extensor digitorum longus
d. peroneus longus

A

Answer coming soon

63
Q

In a metal AFO with a locked ankle joint, which of the following help diminish a knee flexion moment at heel strike?

a. adding a SACH heel wedge.
b. reducing depth of calf band
c. moving stirrup more distal on shoe
d. lengthening sole plate

A

Answer coming soon

64
Q

In constructing a metal AFO, fixed varus at the subtalar joint may be accommodated by:

a. including lateral T-strap
b. Lengthening lateral stirrup extension
c. off-setting stirrup on shoe medially
d. using lateral sole and heel wedges

A

Answer coming soon

65
Q

The recommended orthosis for an adult hemiplegic with spastic gastrocnemius and soleus is:

a. flexible plastic AFO
b. AFO with spring dorsiflexion assist
c. AFO with free ankle
d. AFO with plastar flexion stop

A

Answer coming soon

66
Q

If the patient has more internal tibial torsion than a KAFO allows, the foot will be forced to do what?

a. invert
b. evert
c. plantar flex
d. dorsiflex

A

Answer coming soon

67
Q

The primary purpose of a plastic AFO with trim lines posterior to the malleoli is to provide:

a. knee stability
b. ML stability at the ankle
c. toe lever arm
d. dorsiflexion assist

A

Answer coming soon

68
Q

The peroneus longus muscle causes what motions at the foot and ankle?

a. Foot inversion, ankle plantar flexion
b. Foot inversion, ankle Dorsiflexion
c. Foot eversion, ankle plantar flexion
d. Foot eversion, ankle dorsiflexion

A

Answer coming soon

69
Q

Inflammation about the spinal cord and brain is known as:

a. hansen’s disease
b. cerebral palsy
c. meningitis
d. perthes’ disease

A

c. meningitis

70
Q

High-heeled shoes tend to increase:

a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. arthrosis

A

Answer coming soon

71
Q

Volar surface is the same as the:

a. palmar surface
b. dorsal surface
c. plantar surface
d. lateral surface

A

Answer coming soon

72
Q

Which of the following muscles exerts its primary action on the proximal interphalangeal joint?

a. flexor carpi ulnaris
b. pronator quadratus
c. flexor digitorum superficialis
d. palmaris longus

A

Answer coming soon

73
Q

Which of the following muscles does not abduct the thumb?

a. extensor pollicis brevis
b. opponens pollicis
c. extensor pollicis longus
d. fflexor pollicis brevis

A

Answer coming soon

74
Q

The actions of the first dorsal interosseous muscle on the index metacarpophalangeal joint are to:

a. extend and abduct
b. extend and adduct
c. flex and abduct
d. flex and adduct

A

Answer coming soon

75
Q

In the HO (opponens orthosis), which component holds the thumb in abduction?

a. c-bar
b. thumb IP extension assist
c. thumb extension stop
d. first dorsal interosseous assist
e. lumbrical bar

A

Answer coming soon

76
Q

The natural opposition of the thumb and fingers that occurs when the wrist is in extension is known as:

a. myodesis
b. myoplasty
c. tenodesis
d. tenoplasty

A

Answer coming soon

77
Q

The most appropriate device for a patient with a median and ulnar nerve laceration at the wrist is:
a. HO (short opponens with thumb post)
b. HO (short opponens with MP stop)
c. WHO (long opponens)
d. WHO (spring wire wrist dorsiflexion assist)
WHFO (finger hinge)

A

Answer coming soon

78
Q

Adduction and abduction of the fingers occur at which of the following joints?

a. interphalangeal
b. metacarpophalangeal
c. carpal metacarpal
d. intercarpal

A

Answer coming soon

79
Q

With what sort of hand problems are Winniger or Bunnell splints useful?

a. athetoid
b. spastic
c. quadriplegic
d. hemiplegic
e. traumatic

A

Answer coming soon

80
Q

A properly fitted C-bar terminates on the thumb just:

a. proximal to the MP joint
b. distal to the MP joint
c. proximal to the IP joint
d. distal to the IP joint

A

Answer coming soon

81
Q

The intrinsic muscles of the hand function to produce which of the following actions at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints?

a. Metacarpal phalangeal joint flexion, Interphalangeal joint flexion
b. Metacarpal phalangeal joint flexion, Interphalangeal joint extension
c. Metacarpal phalangeal joint extension, Interphalangeal joint flexion
d. Metacarpal phalangeal joint extension, Interphalangeal joint extension

A

Answer coming soon

82
Q

An MP stop should stabilize the metacarpophalangeal joint in what degree of flexion?

a. 0
b. 15
c. 45
d. 90

A

Answer coming soon

83
Q

The deltoid muscle will not initiate abduction unless it is assisted by the:

a. triceps
b. latissimus dorsi
c. sternal head of the pectoralis major
d. supraspinatus
e. long head of the biceps

A

Answer coming soon

84
Q

The most prominent and highest point on the shoulder girdle is the:

a. coracoid process
b. spine of the scapula
c. acromion process
d. greater tuberosity

A

Answer coming soon

85
Q

Articulation between the sternum and clavicle occurs at the:

a. acromion process
b. coracoid process
c. manubrium
d. xiphoid process

A

Answer coming soon

86
Q

A complete brachial plexus injury results in:

a. hemiparesis
b. paraparesis
c. spastic paralysis
d. flaccid paralysis

A

Answer coming soon

87
Q

How many pairs of nerve roots arise from the cervical area of the spinal cord?

a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
e. 10

A

Answer coming soon

88
Q

Which of the following is a function of the serratus anterior muscle?

a. abduction of the glenohumeral joint
b. elevation of the shoulder
c. internal rotation of the humerus
d. rotation of the scapula

A

Answer coming soon

89
Q

Which of the following is a birth injury to the brachial plexus?

a. cerebral palsy
b. Bell’s palsy
c. Klumpke’s palsy
d. peroneal palsy

A

Answer coming soon

90
Q

A muculocutaneous nerve lesion will cause loss of function of which of the following muscles?

a. subscapularis
b. biceps
c. deltoid
d. serratus anterior
e. triceps

A

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91
Q

Erb’s palsy refers to paralysis from injury to the:

a. upper trunk of the brachial plexus
b. lower trunk of the brachial plexus

A

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92
Q

A landmark located at the distal end of the humerus is the:

a. olecranon process
b. deltoid tuberosity
c. styloid process
d. coronoid process
e. epicondyle

A

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93
Q

The medial epicondyle of the humerus serves as the origin for which of the following muscle groups?

a. wrist extensors
b. elbow extensors
c. finger extensors
d. supinators
e. finger flexors

A

Answer coming soon

94
Q

The primary action of the brachioradialis muscle is to:

a. pronate the forearm
b. supinate the forearm
c. extend the elbow
d. flex the elbow

A

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95
Q

A local physician asks your opinion on fitting a complete brachial plexus injury with a functional orthosis. Which of the following problems can be anticipated?

a. the hand will be hypersensitive
b. muscle spasticity will interfere with fitting
c. shoulder subluxation is difficult to control
d. no locking joints are available for the elbow

A

Answer coming soon

96
Q

Which of the following muscles in the forearm does not cross the wrist joint?

a. flexor carpi radialis
b. extensor pollicis longus
c. abductor pollicis longus
d. brachioradialis
e. extensor indicis proprius

A

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97
Q

An orthosis to immobilize a fracture of the carpal navicular must include the:

a. MP joint of the thumb
b. IP joint of the thumb
c. MP joint of the fingers
d. Ip joint of the fingers

A

Answer coming soon

98
Q

Which of the following muscles extends the distal phalanx of the thumb?

a. extensor pollicis longus
b. extensor pollicis brevis
c. extensor pollicis proprius
d. extensor digitorum longus

A

Answer coming soon

99
Q

Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the median nerve?

a. palmaris longus
b. flexor pollicis longus
c. flexor carpi upnaris
d. pronator teres
e. flexor digitorum superficialis

A

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100
Q

When a patient wearing a WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis) dorsiflexes his wrist, it will cause what finger motion?

a. abduction
b. adduction
c. extension
d. flexion

A

Answer coming soon

101
Q

All of the following structures pass through the carpal tunnel except:

a. median nerve
b. flexor digitorum profundus tendon
c. flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
d. flexor carpi radialis tendon

A

Answer coming soon

102
Q

All of the following are wrist tenodesis orthoses except:

a. WHFO (Engen-TIRR)
b. WHFO (Rancho)
c. WHFO (RIC)
d. WHFO (Oppenheimer)

A

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103
Q

Which of the following comonents is most effective for a hand lacking thumb abductor strength?

a. c-bar
b. thumb extension stop
c. thumb IP extension assist
d. first dorsal interosseous assist

A

Answer coming soon

104
Q

Metacarpophalaneal hyperextension and interphalangeal semi-flexion of the ring and little finger characterizes a lesion of which nerve at the wrist?

a. ulnar
b. median
c. radial
d. musculocutaneous

A

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105
Q

Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints is accomplished by which muscle?

a. lumbrical
b. flexor digitorum profundus
c. flexor digitorum superficialis
d. interosseous

A

Answer coming soon

106
Q

Which orthotic device is indicated in order to restore prehension to a quadriplegic patient whose functional neurological level spares C6 nerve root?

a. HO (short opponens)
b. WHO (long opponens)
c. WHFO (wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis)
d. WHFO (externally powered finger prehension orthosis)

A

Answer coming soon

107
Q

The orthosis indicated for a median nerve palsy at the wrist is:

a. HO (Basic opponens orthosis)
b. WHO (oppenheimer splint)
c. WHO (long opponens)
d. WHFO (Wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis)

A

Answer coming soon

108
Q

Patients who have good extensor digitorum communis function but loss of intrinsics would require a hand orthosis with what component?

a. a c-bar
b. a thumb post
c. an MP stop
d. an IP extension assist
e. an MP extension assist

A

Answer coming soon

109
Q 
A patient with a well fitted orthosis for a wrist level median nerve injury does not use his hand functionally. 
This is most likely due to:
a. limited range of motion
b. difficulty in donning orthosis
c. lack of cosmesis
d. sensory deficit
e. lack of motivation
A

Answer coming soon

110
Q

Sensation is transmitted through which of the following structures?

a. dorsal branch of the nerve roots
b. ventral branch of the nerve roots
c. pia mater
d. dura mater

A

Answer coming soon

111
Q

Which of the following describes an aponeurosis?

a. a gangion
b. a nerve plexus
c. a thin flattened tendon
d. an opposition muscle
e. a ligament

A

c. a thin flattened tendon

112
Q

During normal human locomotion, how much does the center of gravity shift from side to side?

a. 1 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches

A

Answer coming soon

113
Q

Spasticity does not result from which of the following conditions?

a. cerebral palsy
b. multiple sclerosis
c. myelodysplasia
d. cauda equina injury
e. spinal cord injury

A

Answer coming soon

114
Q

The primary tissue involved in rheumatoid arthritis is:

a. ligament
b. cartilage
c. synovial membrane
d. myelin sheath
e. tendon

A

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115
Q

A charcot joint results from:

a. paralysis of muscles acting on the joint
b. primary inflammation of the lining of the joint
c. disruption of the sensory pathways to the joint
d. avascular necrosis

A

Answer coming soon

116
Q

The most effective way to obtain maximum support ith a metal spinal orthosis is to wear it with:

a. an apron
b. a corset
c. an elastic front with a zipper
d. a ptosis pad
e. perineal straps

A

Answer coming soon

117
Q

A patient returns to you complaining that her LSO corset is sliding up. Your initial recommendation should be to:

a. obtain a new garment
b. attach quarters and wear hose
c. add perineal straps
d. tighten the straps distally to proximally

A

Answer coming soon

118
Q

A guide in measuring the distance between posterior uprights on a lumbosacral orthosis is the:

a. vertebral borders of scapulae
b. paraspinal muscles
c. gluteus maximus bulges
d. posterior superior iliac spines

A

Answer coming soon

119
Q

Lateral bend of the spine always includes what additional motion?

a. extension
b. hyperextension
c. circumduction
d. flexion
e. rotation

A

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120
Q

Hydrocephalus may accompany:

a. muscular dystrophy
b. marfan’s syndrome
c. multiple sclerosis
d. myelodysplasia

A

Answer coming soon

121
Q

Which of the following does not result in an upper motor neuron lesion?

a. cerebral vascular accident
b. multiple sclerosis
c. diabetic neuropathy
d. spinal cord transection

A

Answer coming soon

122
Q

A hernia support or truss should be fitted while the patient is:

a. standing
b. sitting
c. supine
d. prone
e. coughing

A

Answer coming soon

123
Q

Wearing a spinal orthosis may have what effect on the trunk muscles?

a. produces hypertrophy
b. results in disuse atrophy
c. increases strength due to improved alignment
d. causes atrophy due to denervation

A

Answer coming soon

124
Q

A good purchase on the pelvis is required in spinal orthotics to:

a. increase intra-abdominal pressure
b. limit hip flexion
c. prevent increased motion at the lumbosacral junction
d. provide increased comfort
e. allow full use of respiratory capacity

A

Answer coming soon

125
Q

The purpose of the anterior hyperextension orthosis is to reduce pressure on the:

a. vertebral facets
b. nucleus pulposis
c. anterior vertebral body
d. paraspinal musculature
e. abdominal musculature

A

Answer coming soon

126
Q

Lordosis can result from:

a. tight abdominal muscles
b. flexion contracture of knees
c. collapse of lumbar vertebral bodies
d. adductor spasticity

A

Answer coming soon

127
Q

The term Cauda Equina refers to the:

a. nerve roots below the level of the spinal cord
b. deformity resulting from spina bifida
c. lowest four vertebrae
d. small muscles of the erector spinae group
e. fascial lings of the lumbar spine

A

Answer coming soon

128
Q

Increasing intra-abdominal pressure by using spinal orthoses has the effect of:

a. exercising the abdominal muscles
b. increasing lumbar lordosis
c. limiting diaphragmatic respiration
d. favoring blood flow to the heart

A

Answer coming soon

129
Q

Which of the following orthoses would best treat spondylolisthesis:

a. LSO (corset)
b. LSO (chair back)
c. LSO (Knight)
d. LSO (Williams)

A

Answer coming soon

130
Q

For maximum leverage with an LSO, it should extend from the:

a. sacrococcygeal area to 1” below the inferior angle of the scapula
b. first lumbar vertebra to the first thoracic vertebra
c. posterior superior iliac spine to 1” below to the inferior angle of the scapula
d. apex of the gluteus maximus to the inferior angle of the scapula

A

Answer coming soon

131
Q

Lateral stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of what muscle?

a. iliopsoas
b. gluteus medius
c. gluteus maximus
d. adductor longus
e. vastus lateralis

A

Answer coming soon

132
Q

Extension of the vertebral column is a function of which of the following muscles?

a. rectus abdominis
b. erector spinae
c. psoas major
d. gluteus maximus

A

Answer coming soon

133
Q

When measuring and fabricating a TLSO (Taylor orthosis), the superior end of the posterior uprights should terminate at the:

a. 7th cervical vertebra
b. medial border of the scapular spines
c. mid-scapula
d. inferior angle of the scapula
e. 4th thoracic vertebra

A

Answer coming soon

134
Q

Which of the following orthoses is most effective for scoliotic curves with apex above T7

a. CTLSO (halo vest)
b. CTLSO (milwaukee)
c. TLSO (boston)
d. TLSO (body jacket)

A

Answer coming soon

135
Q

The most commonly prescribed external support for low back pain is the:

a. LSO (Corset)
b. LSO (williams)
c. LSO (chair back)
d. LSO (corset with dorsolumbar extension)
e. TLSO (anterior hyperextension)

A

Answer coming soon

136
Q

Which of the following orthoses will most effectively treat juvenile epiphysitis of the spine (Scheuermann’’s Disease)?

a. LSO (chair back orthosis)
b. LSo (williams orthosis)
c. TLSO (corset)
d. TLSO (taylor orthosis)
e. CTLSO (Milwaukee brace)

A

Answer coming soon

137
Q

Which of the following nerves divides into the common peroneal and tibial nerves in the distal thigh?

a. femoral
b. obturator
c. gluteal
d. saphenous
e. sciatic

A

Answer coming soon

138
Q

Which comonent would not be appropriate in a KAFO designed to unweight the limb?

a. free ankle joint
b. ischial ring
c. quadrilateral brim
d. patten bottom

A

Answer coming soon

139
Q

A patient with weak quadricpes wearing a floor reaction orthosis will usually walk with a:

a. heel-toe gait
b. toe-heel gait
c. flat-foot gait
d. flexed knee gait

A

Answer coming soon

140
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the round caliper shoe attachment?

a. cannot control foot rotation
b. inability to change shoes easily
c. greater weight than standard stirrup
d. mechanical joint axis distal to anatomical axis

A

Answer coming soon

141
Q

Which metal ankle joint is the functional equivalent of a plastic AFO trimmed anterior to the malleoli?

a. limited motion
b. posterior stop only
c. double stop
d. dosiflexion assist

A

Answer coming soon

142
Q

The correct location of the mechanical ankle joint is at the:

a. proximal border of the lateral malleolus
b. proximal border of the medial malleolus
c. distal border of the lateral malleolus
d. distal border of the medial malleolus

A

Answer coming soon

143
Q

A patient with soleus contracture is likely to exhibit what characteristics during weight bearing?

a. flexion at the hip
b. flexion at the knee
c. genu valgum
d. genu recurvatum

A

Answer coming soon

144
Q

It is important to place a calf band distal to the fibular head to avoid impingement of which nerve?

a. tibial
b. femoral
c. peroneal
d. saphenous`

A

Answer coming soon

145
Q

The dorsiflexion stop performs some of the functions of which muscle?

a. anterior tibial
b. gastroc-soleus
c. hamstrings
d. peroneals

A

Answer coming soon

146
Q

The measured ML at the ankle is 8.3cm (3 1/4”). What is the inside diamteter of the mechanical ankle joint when laying out an AFO?

a. 8.7cm (3 7/16”)
b. 9.2cm (3 5/8”)
c. 9.4cm (3 11/16”)
d. 10cm (3 15/16”)

A

Answer coming soon

147
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ankle valgus correction strap?

a. attaches to lateral side of shoe
b. buckles around the medial upright
c. reduces foot eversion
d. limits forefoot supination

A

Answer coming soon

148
Q

What are the major function of the tibialis anterior muscle?

a. dorsiflexion and inversion
b. dorsiflexion and eversion
c. plantar flexion and inversion
d. plantar flexion and eversion

A

Answer coming soon

149
Q

In the absence of a functional tibialis anterior, the muscle anatomically best suited to assume its role is the:

a. extensor hallucis brevis
b. extensor hallucis longus
c. extensor digitorum brevis
d. peroneus longus

A

Answer coming soon

150
Q

Foot drop may be caused by a lesion of which of the following nerves?

a. sural
b. saphenous
c. popliteal
d. tibial
e. peroneal

A

Answer coming soon

O & P Mock Exams COPY (17 decks)

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