Notes Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
What is the best way to remove an MVC patient that is stable and primarily seated, but at risk to spinal cord injury?
A) Clothes drag
B) Emergency move
C) Short backboard device
D) Rapid extrication procedure
A
C) Short backboard device
2
Q
An incident that generates large numbers of patients and makes a traditional EMS response ineffective would BEST define which of the following?
A) Triage
B) Disaster
C) Multiple casualty incident
D) Incident command response
A
C) Multiple casualty incident
3
Q
For safety purposes during a two-person lift or carry, it is vital that you:
A) Maintain eye contact with the patient
B) Look ahead for obstructions in your path
C) Communicate with the patient during the lift
D) Communicate with your partner during the lift
A
D) Communicate with your partner during the lift
4
Q
What does the HELP stand for when used in cold water rescue scenes?
A) Helping Everyone Last Potential Hypothermia
B) Heat Environmental Lengthening Position
C) Huddling Everyone Lengthens Potential
D) Heat Escape Lessening Position
A
D) Heat Escape Lessening Position
5
Q
Which of the following confined space rescue situations involve dealing with augers?
A) Electricity
B) Engulfment
C) Structural collapse
D) Machinery entrapment
A
D) Machinery entrapment
6
Q
The standard that determines “fault” of an emergency driver after a crash is known as:
A) Law of Inertia
B) Common law
C) Prudence
D) Due regard
A
D) Due regard
7
Q
You are parking an ambulance a safe distance from the scene of a motor vehicle accident. To avoid carbon monoxide, you must be mindful of how close the vehicle exhaust is to the scene, but you must also consider:
A) Wind direction
B) Number of patients
C) Number of vehicles at the scene
D) How long your engine has been running
A
A) Wind direction
8
Q
Which of the following is a common determining factor as to whether you will institute quick gross decontamination or the eight-step decontamination process?
A) Injured rescuer
B) Size of the threat
C) Severity of the threat
D) Self-rescued patients
A
D) Self-rescued patients
9
Q
You begin to approach the scene to help your partner with triage, but she advises you to return to a safe distance. The daily work uniform affords the paramedic what level of protection?
A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D
A
D) Level D
10
Q
Which of the following involves the greatest risk when performing an IV on a contaminated patient?
A) Causing an anaphylactic reaction
B) Secondary contamination of the rescuer
C) Contamination of the medical equipment
D) Introducing the substance into the bloodstream
A
D) Introducing the substance into the bloodstream
11
Q
Which of the following are the most dangerous forms of radiation?
A) Beta and gamma
B) Alpha and gamma
C) Alpha and beta
D) Gamma and x-ray
A
D) Gamma and x-ray
12
Q
A hazardous substance is transferred from a contaminated person to a non-contaminated person. The non-contaminated person is said to have received a:
A) Primary contamination
B) Secondary contamination
C) Fast-break contamination
D) Long-term contamination
A
B) Secondary contamination
13
Q
What effect would a rainstorm have on a deployed chemical weapon scene?
A) Create an incendiary hazard
B) Disperse the chemical over a larger area
C) Render chemical protection suits useless
D) Dilute the chemical rendering it harmless
A
B) Disperse the chemical over a larger area
14
Q
Which one of these is the most correct regarding an emergency landing zone?
A) 50’ by 50’ is needed for night landing zones
B) Use flashlights to signal the pilot at the landing zone
C) Rotary wing aircraft can usually land on sloping terrain
D) Always wait for a signal from the pilot to approach the aircraft
A
D) Always wait for a signal from the pilot to approach the aircraft
15
Q
Which of the following is responsible for obtaining the necessary equipment and supplies to handle a disaster?
A) Finance
B) Logistics
C) Command
D) Operations
A
B) Logistics
16
Q
Which of the following is MOST likely to involve a rescue versus a body recovery?
A) A 12-year-old who fell through the ice 15 minutes ago
B) A 40-year-old who was found unresponsive in a swimming pool 1 hour later
C) A 6-year-old discovered unresponsive and submerged in a bathtub 30 minutes ago
D) A 20-year-old who was last seen struggling with a riptide 1 hour ago
A
A) A 12-year-old who fell through the ice 15 minutes ago
17
Q
Which emitted radiation particles pose the least amount of hazard to you?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) X-ray
A
A) Alpha
18
Q
Which of the following devices would be used to cut a vehicle’s B-post?
A) Hydraulic rams
B) Hydraulic shears
C) Hydraulic spreaders
D) Hydraulic strikers
A
B) Hydraulic shears
19
Q
Which of the following is the BEST organizational benefit of having standard operating guidelines for using the incident command system?
A) It minimizes the effects of a disaster
B) It provides for additional federal and state funding
C) It prevents initial confusion at a mass casualty incident
D) It allows all involved agencies with a standardized system
A
D) It allows all involved agencies with a standardized system
20
Q
During a response to a suspected hazardous material spill, EMS must do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Establish a treatment sector for the injured
B) Use the placard system to identify the chemical
C) Identify the potential for a hazardous materials event
D) Contain the spill and prevent further damage to life and property
A
D) Contain the spill and prevent further damage to life and property
21
Q
Nerve agents are used in which commercial products?
A) Pesticide
B) Paint thinner
C) Industrial fuel
D) Mining explosive
A
A) Pesticide
22
Q
You have arrived first at the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving an unknown chemical. Which of the following would be your BEST local resource for initially addressing the situation?
A) CHEMTREC
B) Fire department
C) Police department
D) Poison control center
A
B) Fire department
23
Q
Identify which statute will MOST likely seem vague to EMS vehicle drivers while in emergency mode.
A) Speed limits
B) Warning light usage
C) Siren requirements
D) The right of way privilege
A
A) Speed limits
24
Q
Which two chemical agents can cause pulmonary edema?
A) Soman
B) Sarin
C) Chlorine
D) VX
A
C) Chlorine
25
As an emergency responder trained to the HAZMAT operations level, you would be qualified to enter which of the following zones at a HAZMAT incident?
A) Hot zone
B) Warm zone
C) Cool zone
D) Cold zone
B) Warm zone
26
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate to include in a radio report to the hospital when you are involved with a mass casualty incident?
A) No communication should occur
B) Priority, destination hospital transport unit, ETA, disaster 10-code
C) Priority, destination hospital, ETA, transport unit, principle injury
D) Vital signs, ETA, destination, hospital, transport unit, principle injury, history
C) Priority, destination hospital, ETA, transport unit, principle injury
26
You are called to the scene of a car bombing along a parade route during a 4th of July parade. Your first priority is life safety. What is your next priority and what two items are included in that priority?
A) Incident command: perform scene overview and ensure life safety
B) Incident stabilization: establishing triage and identifying staging area
C) Incident stabilization: establishing command and notifying authorities
D) Incident command: establishing command post and establishing priorities of work
C) Incident stabilization: establishing command and notifying authorities
27
Considering the entire management of a hazardous materials incident, when you have a patient who is unstable and a chemical tank continuing to leak, which of the following is your primary concern?
A) Safely treating the patient
B) Preventing secondary contamination
C) Stopping the leak from the chemical tank
D) Preventing any run-offs from damaging the environment
A) Safely treating the patient
28
Under the standard METTAG triage system, a patient with a delayed status would receive which of the following colored tags and numbered priority?
A) Green, priority 2
B) Green, priority 3
C) Yellow, priority 2
D) Yellow, priority 3
C) Yellow, priority 2
29
Which of the following is the EMS definition of rescue?
A) Treating patients who are trapped
B) Removing patients who are trapped
C) Operations provided by fire service personnel
D) The act of delivering from danger or imprisonment
D) The act of delivering from danger or imprisonment
30
Which of the following is the best reason to select air transport over ground transport for a trauma patient?
A) More patients can be taken in a helicopter than in a ground ambulance
B) The helicopter may be able to get the patient to the hospital faster
C) The use of air medical transport will decrease scene time
D) More care can be provided in the helicopter
B) The helicopter may be able to get the patient to the hospital faster
31
You are called to care for a patient that has been exposed to a pesticide. What is the appropriate pharmacological intervention for this patient?
A) Atropine
B) Amyl Nitrite
C) Sodium Nitrite
D) Sodium Thiosulfate
A) Atropine
32
Which of the following would BEST protect you in the patient compartment if your vehicle was involved in a motor vehicle collision?
A) Sitting in the jump seat
B) Sitting on the bench seat
C) Holding on to the hand rail
D) Using your safety restraint
D) Using your safety restraint
33
During a full-scale extrication involving the Jaws of Life, an EMS rescuer should wear what specific personal protective equipment during the rescue?
A) Hearing protection
B) Non-latex gloves
C) Spark and flame resistant clothing
D) Full turnout gear, including a helmet
D) Full turnout gear, including a helmet
34
Which of the following typically works the easiest and should be used first for opening a door on a damaged vehicle to gain access to a patient?
A) A pry bar
B) Your hand
C) A window punch
D) A hydraulic spreader
B) Your hand
35
Which of the following would be classified as a multiple casualty incident?
A) Ten injured people and only 3 ambulances available
B) Any time 3 or more people are injured at any given scene
C) Any time 5 or more people are injured at any given scene
D) Twenty injured people with at least 20 ambulance available
A) Ten injured people and only 3 ambulances available
36
A tracking log will typically contain all of the following information EXCEPT:
A) Patient vital signs
B) Triage tag number
C) Transportation unit
D) Hospital destination
A) Patient vital signs
37
You are at the scene of an automobile crash where the vehicle is in imminent danger of catching fire. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to extricate the unresponsive driver?
A) Use a short board device
B) Place a c-collar and remove the patient
C) Remove as quickly as possible with attention to c-spine
D) Use a c-collar and rotate the patient onto a longboard
C) Remove as quickly as possible with attention to c-spine
38
You are first on the scene of a multiple casualty incident. After ensuring your own personal safety what is the next step you would perform?
A) Establish command and control
B) Establish treatment and transport areas
C) Establish staging areas for incoming crews
D) Determine how many other units you will need
A) Establish command and control
39
Where, when and under what conditions do most accidents involving ambulances occur?
A) Head-on, at night and with good road conditions
B) Head-on, during the day and with bad road conditions
C) At intersections, at night and with bad road conditions
D) At intersections, during the day and with good road conditions
D) At intersections, during the day and with good road conditions
40
Which of the following would MOST likely be fond at a different site other than the actual MCI location?
A) Safety officer
B) Liaison officer
C) Finance officer
D) Rehabilitation officer
C) Finance officer
41
Which is true regarding the administration of atropine in a nerve agent exposure?
A) Atropine removes the nerve agent from the enzyme
B) Atropine is effective even in small doses in nerve agent exposure
C) Atropine should only be given to patients experiencing moderate to severe symptoms
D) Atropine blocks the patient from experiencing fasciculation, weakness and respiratory arrest
C) Atropine should only be given to patients experiencing moderate to severe symptoms
42
Which of the following individuals has the greatest likelihood of creating a disaster scene at the hospital if he fails to do his job properly?
A) Triage officer
B) Treatment officer
C) Safety officer
D) Transportation officer
D) Transportation officer
43
Which of the following is responsible for communication with the press within the incident command system?
A) Liaison officer
B) Logistics officer
C) Communication officer
D) Public information officer
D) Public information officer
44
In the EMS service, what are the risks associated with scheduling personnel for 24 hour shifts?
A) Many personnel cannot stay awake that long
B) EMS people need to have time for their other job
C) Fatigue can interfere with performance and safety
D) EMS personnel are required by law to have "sleep time"
C) Fatigue can interfere with performance and safety
45
The frontal plane divides the body into the ___ and ___ portions.
A) Lateral, Dorsal
B) Superior, Inferior
C) Anterior, Posterior
D) None of the above
C) Anterior, Posterior
46
Bleeding that occurs between the outer layer of the dura mater and the inner layer of the dura mater, and has signs and symptoms that come on relatively slowly, is called:
A) Epidural hematoma
B) Cerebral contusion
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Intracerebral hemorrhage
C) Subdural hematoma
47
What happens to maternal systems during pregnancy?
A) Maternal blood volume decreases due to fetal blood supply demands
B) Respiratory volume decreases due to increased abdominal pressure
C) Glomerular filtration rate decreases due to increased urine output
D) None of the above
D) None of the above
48
The liver and skeletal muscles store glucose as:
A) Glucagon
B) Pyruvic acid
C) Glycogen
D) Carbonic acid
C) Glycogen
49
The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where?
A) Thymus
B) Appendix
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
C) Spleen
50
What do the NAS-NRC and NHTSA federal standards pertain to?
A) Ambulance stationing
B) Uniforms and safety
C) Traffic law violations for emergency responders
D) The uniformity in design for ambulances
D) The uniformity in design for ambulances
51
Generally, an aeromedical helicopter requires a landing zone with which minimum dimensions?
A) 50 feet x 50 feet
B) 60 feet x 60 feet
C) 100 feet x 100 feet
D) 200 feet x 200 feet
C) 100 feet x 100 feet
52
You are responding to a call for a person "slumped at the wheel" in a high crime area in a residential neighborhood. What steps can you take to maximize your safety?
A) Move to the car from behind the passenger side
B) Swing the ambulance around so your headlights shine into the front of the car
C) Approach the car in the light of the ambulance headlights
D) Have your partner approach from one side of the car as you go to the other
A) Move to the car from behind the passenger side
53
You respond to the home of a 35-year-old woman who has severe facial lacerations around her left eye and her lips. The woman also has several yellow bruises that are visible on her neck. She won't look directly at you when you ask her a questions, and her husband answers the questions for her. Your best action in this situation is to:
A) Ask the woman if she is being abused
B) Insist that the husband leave the room so that you can examine the patient
C) Treat the injuries in a nonjudgmental manner and report your suspicions
D) Leave the scene immediately
C) Treat the injuries in a nonjudgmental manner and report your suspicions
54
A patient is considered a "cold water immersion" and will be unable to maintain body heat if submerged in water below ____.
A) 98.6
B) 92.0
C) 80.0
D) 74.0
B) 92.0
55
What is the recommended water-rescue model?
A) To float alongside the victim and coach him or her to safety
B) Reach-Throw-Row-Go
C) A boat-based effort to load the victim safely
D) Never to allow the victim to grab hold of the rescuer
B) Reach-Throw-Row-Go
56
What is the mechanism of action of botulism?
A) Septicemia followed by ARDS
B) Overwhelming destruction of alveoli
C) Hemorrhage from microvasculature, leading to hypotension
D) Paralytic illness caused by nerve toxin
D) Paralytic illness caused by nerve toxin
57
Your crew is called to a home where a 22-year-old woman was found lethargic in bed. According to the dispatch information, the caller stated that the woman has a history of being sleepy and nauseous for the past several days. As you approach the scene, you see what appears to be a clandestine drug laboratory in the garage of the dispatch address. There are burners, beakers, and barrels of hazardous chemicals. You should:
A) Investigate the scene
B) Leave the area immediately
C) Asks for the SDS sheets on the chemicals
D) Ignore your suspicions until you have evaluated the patient
B) Leave the area immediately
58
Which of the following sets the requirements for federal, state, and local governments and industry regarding emergency planning and the reporting of hazardous materials related incidents?
A) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Reports on Hazardous Material Shipping
B) The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA)
C) The Federal Hazardous Materials Authority Writ
D) The Department of Transportation, Hazardous Materials Management Act (DOT-HMMA)
B) The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA)
59
The highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection is afforded by what level of protective clothing?
A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D
A) Level A
60
Which of the following is true regarding the characteristics of the injuries associated with acids and alkalis?
A) Acids and alkalis create the same type of burn
B) Alkalis may liquefy tissues as they penetrate them and therefore may burn more deeply and extensively
C) Acids produce a considerable amount of heat as they burn tissue and typically produce burns that are deeper and more severe than those produced by alkalis
D) Acids may be neutralized by copious amounts of water, but alkali burns should be treated with a neutralizer
B) Alkalis may liquefy tissues as they penetrate them and therefore may burn more deeply and extensively
61
What is the acronym CBRNE used for?
A) Remember safety steps at a potential bioterrorism event
B) Differentiate biological from chemical agents
C) Determine which decontamination protocol is appropriate after a bioterrorism event
D) Identify categories of weapons of mass destruction
D) Identify categories of weapons of mass destruction
62
The greatest concern for contamination by biological agents is via which route?
A) Inhalation
B) Ingestion
C) Injection
D) Absorption
A) Inhalation
63
What effects should paramedics anticipate in a patient poisoned with ricin?
A) Temporary blindness
B) Severe itching
C) Lesions spreading across the body
D) Seizures
D) Seizures
64
According to ACLS, most stroke patients who may be candidates for fibrinolytic therapy should receive definitive treatment within how many hours of onset?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
A) 3
65
Which of the following would BEST describe why we provide oxygen to a patient having a myocardial infarction?
A) To reduce myocardial oxygen demand
B) To vasodilate cardiac blood vessels
C) To provide additional oxygen to the brain
D) To oxygenate the collateral cardiac circulation
D) To oxygenate the collateral cardiac circulation
66
Which of the following represents the appropriate maintenance regimen for amiodarone in a post-resuscitative phase?
A) 0.5 mg/min
B) 150.0 mg/min
C) 1.0 to 4.0 mg/min
D) 2.0 to 10.0 mg/min
A) 0.5 mg/min
67
You are called to treat a diabetic patient with warm, dry skin, hypotension, tachycardia and normal respirations who is responsive only to painful stimulation. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication. Which of the following would BEST apply to this situation?
A) DKA, administer fluids
B) HHNS, administer fluids
C) Hypoglycemia, administer dextrose
D) Diabetes insipidus, administer fluids
B) HHNS, administer fluids
68
Which of the following would prevent an administered medication from having the desired effect by altering the binding site?
A) An antagonist
B) An agonist-antagonist
C) A competitive-antagonist
D) A noncompetitive-antagonist
D) A noncompetitive-antagonist
69
Regarding the victim of a chemical exposure, which of the following would be the easiest body area to decontaminate?
A) Chest
B) Scalp
C) Genitalia
D) Between the toes
A) Chest
70
Which of the following BEST describes the purposes of having an incident command system during times of a mass casualty incident?
A) To minimize the impact on the receiving hospitals
B) To allow for the cooperation of all responding agencies
C) To qualify for federal and state funding for terrorism response
D) To control, direct, and coordinate emergency response resources
D) To control, direct, and coordinate emergency response resources
71
Which of the following would be an excellent indication that you may be entering a scene involving terrorism and/or weapons of mass destruction?
A) Response to a brawl
B) A call to a place of worship
C) Evidence of a crystal meth lab
D) Confirmation of a secondary device
D) Confirmation of a secondary device
72
When lewisite comes into contact with the skin, how will the patient respond?
A) Begin to seize within 1-2 minutes
B) Reports immediate pain and irritation
C) Slowly begins to develop a macropapular rash
D) Generally reports no symptoms until the onset of difficulty breathing
B) Reports immediate pain and irritation
73
Which of the following chemicals commonly found in a confined space situation would provide the LEAST concern for the potential of an explosion if found in exceptionally high levels of concentration?
A) Oxygen
B) Methane
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Carbon dioxide
74
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate and common decontamination method used initially for a hazardous materials incident in a pre-hospital setting?
A) Dilution
B) Irradiation
C) Absorption
D) Neutralization
A) Dilution
75
Which of the following BEST reflects the primary reason low head dams are considered dangerous?
A) Debris
B) Strainers
C) Speed of the water
D) Recirculating currents
D) Recirculating currents
76
Immediately after birth, which of the following now receives a full supply of blood where that was not the case when in utero?
A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Lungs
D) Lungs
77
Which of the following is true regarding the glass on a vehicle?
A) Tempered glass is found in the side windows and is most easily broken with a window punch
B) Safety glass is found in the side windows and is most easily broken with a window punch
C) Tempered glass is found in the front windshield and requires an ax or similar instrument to break
D) Safety glass is found in the rear window and is most easily broken with a window punch
A) Tempered glass is found in the side windows and is most easily broken with a window punch
78
Each of these is a necessary issue when you are preparing to have a patient transported EXCEPT:
A) Sedating the patient
B) Providing the patient's weight
C) Identifying the landing zone location
D) Indicating the radio frequency of the ground contact person
A) Sedating the patient
79
Which of the following radioactive particles will travel about 6 to 10 feet and penetrate a few millimeters of skin?
A) Alpha particles
B) Beta particles
C) Delta particles
D) Gamma particles
B) Beta particles
80
Factors to consider in protecting people from radiation include time, distance, and what other element?
A) Shielding
B) Vaccination
C) Prophylactic treatment
D) Early care
A) Shielding
81
What is mustard an example of?
A) Nerve agent
B) Biological agent
C) Poisonous gas
D) Vesicants
D) Vesicants
82
When preparing an LZ for a nighttime helicopter landing, how should the paramedic mark the LZ?
A) Fire apparatus with lights activated in the middle of the LZ near the desired landing spot
B) White spotlights directed straight up to mark the corners of the landing zone
C) Road flares at the corners of the unobstructed landing area
D) Traffic cones with reflectors to enhance visibility
D) Traffic cones with reflectors to enhance visibility
83
When should an ambulance equipment and supply checklist be completed?
A) After each call is completed
B) At the beginning of each shift
C) On completion of the weekly vehicle safety check
D) As required by state statute
B) At the beginning of each shift
84
Your vehicle is the first to arrive at an accident scene where fluid appears to be leaking from one of the automobiles. Where should you park your vehicle when law enforcement and fire service personnel have secured the scene?
A) 50 feet past the wreckage
B) 100 feet past the wreckage
C) 50 feet in front of the wreckage
D) 100 feet in front of the wreckage
C) 50 feet in front of the wreckage
85
The amount of damage caused by a crush injury is related to which aspect?
A) Type of material involved
B) Length of time pressure is applied
C) Position in which the patient is trapped
D) Environmental temperature
B) Length of time pressure is applied
86
What type of breathing apparatus is recommended for confined-space rescue?
A) SCBA
B) SABA
C) HEPA filtration mask
D) Specialty filtration mask
B) SABA
87
One method of hazardous materials identification is the NFPA 704 system. What are the three properties the NFPA 704 system rate?
A) Health, fire, and reactivity
B) Corrosives, poisons, and flammables
C) Carcinogens, asphyxiants, and corrosives
D) Acids, bases (alkaloids), and organic compounds
A) Health, fire, and reactivity
88
How are hazardous materials in the North American Emergency Response Guidebook listed?
A) By chemical classification
B) Alphabetically by manufacturer
C) By both substance name and identification number
D) With the most commonly transported chemicals at the beginning and the most obscure at the end
C) By both substance name and identification number
89
As the paramedic retreats to a safe distance, the paramedic's eyes are starting to burn slightly. What type of chemicals is likely involved?
A) Irritants
B) Anesthetics
C) Asphyxiants
D) Hepatotoxins
A) Irritants
90
For an ambulance to have privileged immunity to certain traffic laws, what technique must the unit use?
A) All audible and visual emergency warning equipment activated
B) Red lights activated and be visible for a minimum of 500 feet
C) All visual warning equipment activated
D) Sirens alternating between two or more types of alert
A) All audible and visual emergency warning equipment activated
91
What do effective radio communications during a major incident require?
A) Succinct, "plain English" transmission
B) Inclusion of vivid detail to "paint" an accurate picture
C) The strict use of codes to decrease the volume of radio traffic
D) The use of multiple frequencies within section assignments
A) Succinct, "plain English" transmission
92
Paramedics are dispatched to a major incident on a local highway. The initial report indicates that up to 30 vehicles are involved in a pileup. Before arrival, an incident command system has been initiated and is in place. On arriving at the scene, paramedics confirm arrival via radio. How should the paramedics then proceed?
A) Stay with their vehicle until given an assignment
B) Go directly to the most seriously injured patient
C) Report directly to the treatment section chief
D) Begin treating patients geographically (treating the patient closest to their access point)
A) Stay with their vehicle until given an assignment
93
According to the START guidelines, what statement is most accurate?
A) Immediately categorized as "salvageable" or "unsalvageable"
B) Evaluated in 60 seconds and classified as minor, delayed, dead, or immediate
C) Rapidly transported in the order in which they are removed from the hazard area
D) Immediately tagged with an appropriate triage tag and transported to an appropriate facility
B) Evaluated in 60 seconds and classified as minor, delayed, dead, or immediate
94
By international color coding and priority standards, a patient identified as having immediate needs is tagged as what color?
A) Red
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) Black
A) Red
95
This occurs when alveolar ventilation is increased, resulting in excess elimination of CO2.
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
A) Respiratory alkalosis
96
Your crew is called to the scene for a "man down, unknown medical problem". Local law enforcement has not yet been dispatched because there is no additional information that would suggest the need. When you arrive, you find a 19-year-old male face down in the street with multiple gun shot wounds to the chest and head. Suddenly, you hear gunfire in your immediate area and you and your partner dive behind a bush. This maneuver is an example of:
A) Cover
B) Avoidance
C) Concealment
D) Tactical retreat
C) Concealment
97
While retreating from a violent scene, you are being pursued by a suspected felon. To slow him from following you, you drop your first-aid bag in the stairway. This is called:
A) Cover
B) Avoidance
C) Tactical retreat
D) Distraction
D) Distraction
98
In a high-voltage (HV) hybrid vehicle, what color are the HV electrical cables?
A) Black
B) Orange
C) Red
D) Yellow
B) Orange
99
What is the primary benefit of using triage tags at a mass casualty incident?
A) They are cheaper than triage tape
B) They provide complete documentation abilities
C) They allow you to easily count patients in each category
D) They prevent the patient from identifying the seriousness of the injuries
C) They allow you to easily count patients in each category
100
Which of the following basic ambulance designs looks like a standard van?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
B) Type II
101
Which of the following terms would BEST describe whether a substance settles to the lowest point on the ground or rises when released into the air?
A) Vapor density
B) Vapor pressure
C) Specific gravity
D) Water solubility
A) Vapor density
102
Which of the following would be of LEAST concern regarding the assessment of the safety of a confined space prior to entering?
A) Explosive limits
B) Adequate lighting
C) Oxygen concentration
D) Explosive atmosphere
B) Adequate lighting
103
You are working for a large EMS company that was dispatched to a 2 car incident with 6 patients. There are no other significant issues such as the threat of fire or traffic issues. Which of the following command systems would be MOST appropriate?
A) START command
B) Unified command
C) Singular command
D) Disaster management
C) Singular command
104
You are approaching a hazardous material scene and observe victims lying motionless on the ground. What is the appropriate action to Take to rescue them?
A) Wait in a safe area until the HAZMAT team has secured the scene
B) Approach the patients from upwind and move them quickly to safety
C) Don your N95 and Tyvek suit in order to approach the patients in a safe manner
D) Put the medevac helicopter on standby and prepare an LZ adjacent to the hot zone
A) Wait in a safe area until the HAZMAT team has secured the scene
105
Which of the following would be considered a hypotonic solution?
A) D5W
B) Albumin
C) Normal saline
D) Lactated Ringers
A) D5W
106
Your patient has atrial fibrillation, a rapid ventricular response, and a history of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. Your partner suggests the administration of 6mg of adenosine and you suggest this is incorrect. Which of the following BEST explains why?
A) The dosage of adenosine in this case should be 12mg versus 6mg because of the WPW
B) The adenosine will not have any impact on this patient because of the WPW
C) The adenosine will only temporarily slow the atrial fibrillation but will not stop the fast response
D) The adenosine will block the AV node, allowing the patient to go into ventricular fibrillation
D) The adenosine will block the AV node, allowing the patient to go into ventricular fibrillation
107
What is true about physiologic dead space?
A) Created by the upper respiratory tract and non-respiratory bronchioles
B) Composed solely of the nonfunctional alveoli
C) Increased in patients with respiratory diseases such as emphysema
D) Normally 10 times the volume of anatomic dead space
C) Increased in patients with respiratory diseases such as emphysema
108
You have 300 mg in 30 mL of HyperStat, you are ordered to administer 60 mg. How much volume do you provide the patient?
A) 0.6 mL
B) 5.0 mL
C) 6.0 mL
D) 60 mL
B) 5.0 mL
109
Which of the following represents the correct fluid formula for calculating a drip rate?
A) (Volume to be administered) x (Time in minutes) / (Drip factor)
B) (Volume to be administered) x (Drip factor) / (Time in minutes)
C) (Time in minutes) x (Drip factor) / (Volume to be administered)
D) (Drip factor) x (Time in minutes) / (Volume to be administered)
B) (Volume to be administered) x (Drip factor) / (Time in minutes)
110
Which term refers to the process by which an authority grants permission to engage in an activity that would otherwise be unlawful?
A) Licensure
B) Certification
C) Registration
D) Professionalism
A) Licensure
111
What law/act protects a person rendering aid to a crash victim in good faith and without expectation of compensation?
A) Protection for Suit Law
B) First Responder Act
C) Duty to Respond Act
D) Good Samaritan Law
D) Good Samaritan Law
112
Which of the following BEST explains why a patient having a hypertensive emergency would develop pulmonary edema?
A) The high systemic pressure increases pulmonic pressure
B) The high systemic pressure causes a left ventricular failure
C) The high systemic pressure forces fluids out of the lungs parenchymal tissue
D) The high systemic pressure forces blood out of the pulmonary capillaries
B) The high systemic pressure causes a left ventricular failure
113
What is the name of the time period represented in a normal Lead II EKG for depolarization to travel through the atria and AV node?
A) P wave
B) PR interval
C) R wave
D) ST segment
B) PR interval
114
Inotropy is defined as which of the following?
A) Speed of electrical conduction
B) Heart rate
C) Force of cardiac contraction
D) Heart muscle size
C) Force of cardiac contraction
115
Why should the administration of CPAP be considered in patients with pulmonary edema?
A) CPAP can deliver very high concentrations of oxygen
B) CPAP can keep the lungs inflated and the upper airway open
C) CPAP pressure helps bring the left and right heart into homeostasis
D) CPAP provides ventilation pressure within the alveoli that may reduce fluid entering the alveoli
D) CPAP provides ventilation pressure within the alveoli that may reduce fluid entering the alveoli
116
Which of the following cells are destroyed by the human immunodeficiency virus?
A) T-cells leukocytes
B) B-cells leukocytes
C) T-cells lymphocytes
D) B-cells lymphocytes
C) T-cells lymphocytes
117
The intrinsic rate for a ventricular pacemaker is ___ beats per minute.
A) 20 to 40
B) 40 to 60
C) 60 to 100
D) 100 to 150
A) 20 to 40
118
You respond to the scene of a 60-year-old female that is experiencing substernal chest pressure. She has a history of a past MI two years ago and is prescribed Nitro tablets. She has taken two Nitro with no relief. Her vital signs are: R - 24 and labored, lungs - slight crackles, pulse matches monitor, BP 78/54, and O2 is 92% on RA. You place her on the monitor and obtain a 12-lead, which is as follows:
You interpret this rhythm as:
A) Lateral MI
B) Inferior MI
C) Posterior MI
D) Anterior septal MI
Due to the area of infarction, you would anticipate and prepare for the possibility of the development of:
A) Emphysema
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Esophageal varices
D) Anterior septal MI
C) Cardiogenic shock
