NP 1 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. The nurse should
have a background on the theories and foundation of
nursing as it influenced what is nursing today.
1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and
optimization of health and abilities, prevention
of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering
through the diagnosis and treatment of human
response and advocacy in the care of the
individuals, families, communities and the
population. This is the most accepted definition
of nursing as defined by the:
a. PNA
b. ANA
c. Nightingale
d. Henderson
A
B. ANA
2
Q
- Advancement in Nursing leads to the
development of the Expanded Career Roles.
Which of the following is NOT an expanded
career role for nurses?
a. Nurse practitioner
b. Nurse Researcher
c. Clinical nurse specialist
d. Nurse anaesthesiologist
A
D. Nurse anaesthesiologis
3
Q
The Board of Nursing regulated the Nursing
profession in the Philippines and is responsible
for the maintenance of the quality of nursing in
the country. Powers and duties of the board of
nursing are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Issue, suspend, revoke certificates of
registration
b. Issue subpoena duces tecum, ad
testificandum
c. Open and close colleges of nursing
d. Supervise and regulate the practice of
nursing
A
c. Open and close colleges of nursing
4
Q
A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who
has not yet experienced enough real situations
to make judgments about them is in what stage
of Nursing Expertise?
a. Novice
b. Newbie
c. Advanced Beginner
d. Competent
A
b. Newbie
5
Q
Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different
from the other levels in nursing expertise in the
context of having:
a. the ability to organize and plan activities
b. having attained an advanced level of
education
c. a holistic understanding and perception
of the client
d. intuitive and analytic ability in new
situations
A
c. a holistic understanding and perception
of the client
6
Q
SITUATION: The nurse has been asked to administer an
injection via Z TRACK technique. Questions 6 to 10 refer
to this.
6. The nurse prepares an IM injection for an adult
client using the Z track technique. 4 ml of
medication is to be administered to the client.
Which of the following site will you choose?
a. Deltoid
b. Rectus femoris
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
A
c. Ventrogluteal
7
Q
- In infants 1 year old and below, which of the
following is the site of choice for intramuscular
Injection?
a. Deltoid
b. Rectus femoris
c. Ventrogluteal
d. Vastus lateralis
A
d. Vastus lateralis
8
Q
In order to decrease discomfort in Z track
administration, which of the following is
applicable?
a. Pierce the skin quickly and smoothly at
a 90 degree angle
b. Inject the medication steadily at around
10 minutes per millilitre
c. Pull back the plunger and aspirate for 1
minute to make sure that the needle did
not hit a blood vessel
d. Pierce the skin slowly and carefully at a
90 degree angle
A
a. Pierce the skin quickly and smoothly at
a 90 degree angle
9
Q
After injection using the Z track technique, the
nurse should know that she needs to wait for a
few seconds before withdrawing the needle and
this is to allow the medication to disperse into
the muscle tissue, thus decreasing the client’s
discomfort. How many seconds should the nurse
wait before withdrawing the needle?
a. 2 seconds
b. 5 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 15 seconds
A
c. 10 seconds
10
Q
The rationale in using the Z track technique in an
intramuscular injection is:
a. It decreases the leakage of discolouring
and irritating medication into the
subcutaneous tissues
b. It will allow a faster absorption of the
medication
c. The Z track technique prevent irritation
of the muscle
d. It is much more convenient for the nurse
A
a. It decreases the leakage of discolouring
and irritating medication into the
subcutaneous tissues
11
Q
SITUATION: A Client was rushed to the emergency room
and you are his attending nurse. You are performing a
vital sign assessment.
11. All of the following are correct methods in
assessment of the blood pressure EXCEPT:
a. Take the blood pressure reading on both
arms for comparison
b. Listen to and identify the phases of
Korotkoff’s sound
c. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg
above the point where the pulse is
obliterated
d. Observe procedures for infection control
A
c. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg
above the point where the pulse is
obliterated
12
Q
You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. You
know that the purpose is to:
a. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin
level is low and if he needs blood
transfusion
b. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion
c. Measure the efficacy of the client’s antihypertensive
medications
d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial
blood before symptoms of hypoxemia
develops
A
d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial
blood before symptoms of hypoxemia
develops
13
Q
- After a few hours in the Emergency Room, The
client is admitted to the ward with an order of
hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse
finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will
cause the blood pressure reading to be:
a. inconsistent
b. low systolic and high diastolic
c. higher than what the reading should be
d. lower than what the reading should be
A
c. higher than what the reading should be
14
Q
- Through the client’s health history, you gather that the patient smokes and drinks coffee. When
taking the blood pressure of a client who
recently smoked or drank coffee, how long
should the nurse wait before taking the client’s
blood pressure for accurate reading?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 5 minutes
A
b. 30 minutes
15
Q
While the client has pulse oximeter on his
fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining
on the area where the oximeter is. Your action
will be to:
a. Set and turn on the alarm of the
oximeter
b. Do nothing since there is no identified
problem
c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel
or bedsheet
d. Change the location of the sensor every
four hours
A
c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel
or bedsheet
16
Q
The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood
pressure reading. In case of such re assessment,
the nurse should wait for a period of:
a. 15 seconds
b. 1 to 2 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
A
b. 1 to 2 minutes
17
Q
- If the arm is said to be elevated when taking the
blood pressure, it will create a:
a. False high reading
b. False low reading
c. True false reading
d. Indeterminate
A
b. False low reading
18
Q
- You are to assessed the temperature of the
client the next morning and found out that he
ate ice cream. How many minutes should you
wait before assessing the client’s oral
temperature?
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
A
c. 30 minutes
19
Q
- When auscultating the client’s blood pressure
the nurse hears the following: From 150 mmHg
to 130 mmHg: Silence, Then: a thumping sound
continuing down to 100 mmHg; muffled sound
continuing down to 80 mmHg and then silence.
What is the client’s blood pressure?
a. 130/80
b. 150/100
c. 100/80
d. 150/100
A
a. 130/80
b
20
Q
- In a client with a previous blood pressure of
130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to
release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an
accurate reading?
a. 10-20 seconds
b. 30-45 seconds
c. 1-1.5 minutes
d. 3-3.5 minutes
A
b. 30-45 seconds
21
Q
Situation: Oral care is an important part of hygienic
practices and promoting client comfort.
21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious.
Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive
dryness and presence of sores. Which of the
following is BEST to use for oral care?
a. lemon glycerine
b. Mineral oil
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. Normal saline solution
A
d. Normal saline solution
22
Q
- When performing oral care to an unconscious
client, which of the following is a special
consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into
the lungs?
a. Put the client on a sidelying position
with head of bed lowered
b. Keep the client dry by placing towel
under the chin
c. Wash hands and observes appropriate
infection control
d. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful
and an orderly progression
A
a. Put the client on a sidelying position
with head of bed lowered
23
Q
- The advantages of oral care for a client include
all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. decreases bacteria in the mouth and
teeth
b. reduces need to use commercial
mouthwash which irritate the buccal
mucosa
c. improves client’s appearance and selfconfidence
d. improves appetite and taste of food
A
b. reduces need to use commercial
mouthwash which irritate the buccal
mucosa
24
Q
A possible problem while providing oral care to
unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by:
a. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton
swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid
rinsing the buccal cavity
b. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and
lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton
swabs
c. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton
washcloth to rub inside the cheeks,
tongue, lips and ums
d. suctioning as needed while cleaning the
buccal cavity
A
d. suctioning as needed while cleaning the
buccal cavity
25
25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is
mouth breathing most of the time. This causes
dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral
hygiene is recommended for the client and in
addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by
using:
a. salt solution
b. petroleum jelly
c. water
d. mentholated ointment
b. petroleum jelly
26
Situation – Ensuring safety before, during and after a
diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of
the nurse.
26. To help Fernan better tolerate the
bronchoscopy, you should instruct him to
practice which of the following prior to the
procedure?
a. Clenching his fist every 2 minutes
b. Breathing in and out through the nose
with his mouth open
c. Tensing the shoulder muscles while lying
on his back
d. Holding his breath periodically for 30
seconds
b. Breathing in and out through the nose
with his mouth open
27
27. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the
following complains to Fernan should be noted
as a possible complication:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Shortness of breath and laryngeal
stridor
c. Blood tinged sputum and coughing
d. Sore throat and hoarseness
b. Shortness of breath and laryngeal
stridor
28
28. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed
Fernan to:
a. Exercise the neck muscles
b. Refrain from coughing and talking
c. Breathe deeply
d. Clear his throat
c. Breathe deeply
29
29. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic
study of pleural fluid. As a nurse your most
important function during the procedure is to:
a. Keep the sterile equipment from
contamination
b. Assist the physician
c. Open and close the three-way stopcock
d. Observe the patient’s vital signs
d. Observe the patient’s vital signs
30
30. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following
is most appropriate intervention?
a. Instruct the patient not to cough or deep
breathe for two hours
b. Observe for symptoms of tightness of
chest or bleeding
c. Place an ice pack to the puncture site
d. Remove the dressing to check for
bleeding
b. Observe for symptoms of tightness of
chest or bleeding
31
Situation: Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and
the functions of the electrolytes is necessary to
determine appropriate intervention and nursing actions.
31. A client with diabetes milletus has a blood
glucose level of 644 mg/dL. The nurse interprets
that this client is at most risk for the
development of which type of acid-base
imbalance?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
32
In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood
gas analysis gives the following results: pH 7.48,
PCO2 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L.
The nurse interprets that the client has which
acid base disturbance?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
33
A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial
artery specimens. The nurse ensures that which
of the following has been performed or tested
before the ABG specimens are drawn?
a. Guthrie test
b. Romberg’s test
c. Allen’s test
d. Weber’s test
c. Allen’s test
34
34. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values
of a client and notes that the ph is 7.31, Pco2 is
50 mmHg, and the bicarbonate is 27 mEq/L. The
nurse concludes that which acid base
disturbance is present in this client?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
35
35. Allen’s test checks the patency of the:
a. Ulnar artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Radial artery
d. Brachial artery
a. Ulnar artery
36
Situation 6: Eileen, 45 years old is admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of renal calculi. She is
experiencing severe flank pain, nauseated and with a
temperature of 39 0C.
36. Given the above assessment data, the most
immediate goal of the nurse would be which of
the following?
a. Prevent urinary complication
b. maintains fluid and electrolytes
c. Alleviate pain
d. Alleviating nausea
c. Alleviate pain
37
After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left
nephrectomy was done. Her post-operative
order includes “daily urine specimen to be sent
to the laboratory”. Eileen has a foley catheter
attached to a urinary drainage system. How will
you collect the urine specimen?
a. remove urine from drainage tube with
sterile needle and syringe and empty
urine from the syringe into the
specimen container
b. empty a sample urine from the
collecting bag into the specimen
container
c. Disconnect the drainage tube from the
indwelling catheter and allow urine to
flow from catheter into the specimen
container.
d. Disconnect the drainage from the
collecting bag and allow the urine to
flow from the catheter into the
specimen container.
a. remove urine from drainage tube with
sterile needle and syringe and empty
urine from the syringe into the
specimen container
38
38. Where would the nurse tape Eileen’s indwelling
catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation?
a. to the patient’s inner thigh
b. to the patient’ buttocks
c. to the patient’s lower thigh
d. to the patient lower abdomen
a. to the patient’s inner thigh
39
Which of the following menu is appropriate for
one with low sodium diet?
a. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea
b. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits
and vegetables
c. white chicken sandwich, vegetable
salad and tea
d. canned soup, potato salad, and diet soda
C. white chicken sandwich, vegetable
salad and tea
40
40. How will you prevent ascending infection to
Eileen who has an indwelling catheter?
a. see to it that the drainage tubing
touches the level of the urine
b. change he catheter every eight hours
c. see to it that the drainage tubing does
not touch the level of the urine
d. clean catheter may be used since
urethral meatus is not a sterile area
c. see to it that the drainage tubing does
not touch the level of the urine
41
Situation: Hormones are secreted by the various glands
in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is
necessary.
41. Somatocrinin or the Growth hormone releasing
hormone is secreted by the:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Posterior pituitary gland
c. Anterior pituitary gland
d. Thyroid gland
a. Hypothalamus
42
All of the following are secreted by the anterior
pituitary gland except:
a. Somatotropin/Growth hormone
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Gonadotropin hormone releasing
hormone
d. Gonadotropin hormone releasing
hormone
43
All of the following hormones are hormones
secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except:
a. Vasopressin
b. Anti-diuretic hormone
c. Oxytocin
d. Growth hormone
d. Growth hormone
44
All of the following hormones are hormones
secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except:
a. Vasopressin
b. Anti-diuretic hormone
c. Oxytocin
d. Growth hormone
d. Growth hormone
45
Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the:
a. Thyroid gland
b. Parathyroid gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Anterior pituitary gland
a. Thyroid gland
46
45. While Parathormone, a hormone that negates
the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the:
a. Thyroid gland
b. Parathyroid gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Anterior pituitary gland
b. Parathyroid gland
47
Situation: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff
nurses to “brainstorm” and learn ways to instruct
diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She
wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to
do health education classes.
46. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of
a. in service education process
b. efficient management of human
resources
c. increasing human resources
d. primary prevention
b. efficient management of human
resources
48
When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects
of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an
unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra
a. makes the assignment to teach the staff
member
b. is assigning the responsibility to the
aide but not the accountability for
those tasks
c. does not have to supervise or evaluate
the aide
d. most know how to perform task
delegated
b. is assigning the responsibility to the
aide but not the accountability for
those tasks
49
48. Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and
sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six
weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse
supervisor should
a. empathize with the nurse and listen to
her
b. tell her to take the day off
c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new
job
d. ask about her family life
c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new
job
50
Process of formal negotiations of working
conditions between a group of registered nurses
and employer is
a. grievance
b. arbitration
c. collective bargaining
d. strike
c. collective bargaining
51
50. You are attending a certification on
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and
required by the hospital employing you. This is
a. professional course towards credits
b. in-service education
c. advance training
d. continuing education
b. in-service education
52
51. Which of the following is not a legally binding
document but nevertheless very important in
the care of all patients in any health care
setting?
a. Bill of rights as provided in the Philippine
constitution
b. Scope of nursing practice as defined by
RA 9173
c. Board of nursing resolution adopting the
code of ethics
d. Patient’s bill of rights
d. Patient’s bill of rights
53
52. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client.
Another nurse employed by the same hospital as
a risk manager will expect to receive which of
the following communication?
a. Incident report
b. Nursing kardex
c. Oral report
d. Complain report
a. Incident report
54
Performing a procedure on a client in the
absence of an informed consent can lead to
which of the following charges?
a. Fraud
b. Harassment
c. Assault and battery
d. Breach of confidentiality
c. Assault and battery
55
54. Which of the following is the essence of
informed consent?
a. It should have a durable power of
attorney
b. It should have coverage from an
insurance company
c. It should respect the client’s freedom
from coercion
c. It should respect the client’s freedom
from coercion
56
55. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that
can be performed by a subordinate. The RN
should always be accountable and should not
lose his accountability. Which of the following is
a role included in delegation?
a. The RN must supervise all delegated
tasks
b. After a task has been delegated, it is no
longer a responsibility of the RN
c. The RN is responsible and accountable
for the delegated task in adjunct with
the delegate
d. Follow up with a delegated task is
necessary only if the assistive personnel
is not trustworthy
c. The RN is responsible and accountable
for the delegated task in adjunct with
the delegate
57
Situation: When creating your lesson plan for
cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to
include the risk factors of stroke.
56. The most important risk factor is:
a. Cigarette smoking
b. binge drinking
c. Hypertension
d. heredity
c. Hypertension
58
57. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology
or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on
cause are the following EXCEPT:
a. Embolic stroke
b. diabetic stroke
c. Hemorrhagic stroke
d. thrombotic stroke
b. diabetic stroke
59
58. Hemmorhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually
when the person is active. All are causes of
hemorrhage, EXCEPT:
a. phlebitis
b. damage to blood vessel
c. trauma
d. aneurysm
a. phlebitis
60
59. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug
abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is
closely linked to this?
a. Amphetamines
b. shabu
c. Cocaine
d. Demerol
c. Cocaine
61
60. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a
risk factor of stroke. Your best response is:
a. “More red blood cells thicken blood
and make clots more possible.”
b. “Increased RBC count is linked to high
cholesterol.”
c. “More red blood cell increases
hemoglobin content.”
d. “High RBC count increases blood
pressure.”
a. “More red blood cells thicken blood
and make clots more possible.”
62
Situation: Recognition of normal values is vital in
assessment of clients with various disorders.
61. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results
for a client with a diagnosis of severe
dehydration. The nurse would expect the
hematocrit level for this client to be which of the
following?
a. 60%
b. 47%
c. 45%
d. 32%
a. 60%
63
62. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an
assigned client and notes that the potassium
level is 5.6 mEq/L. Which of the following would
the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result
of this laboratory value?
a. ST depression
b. Prominent U wave
c. Inverted T wave
d. Tall peaked T waves
d. Tall peaked T waves
64
63. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an
assigned client and notes that the potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would
the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result
of this laboratory value?
a. U waves
b. Elevated T waves
c. Absent P waves
d. Elevated ST Segment
a. U waves
65
64. Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the
result of the blood examination are back. On
reviewing the result the nurse notices which of
the following as abnormal finding?
a. Neutrophils 60%
b. White blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is
39 mm/hr
d. Iron 75 mg/100
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is
39 mm/hr
66
Situation: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in
the pleural space. Questions 66 to 70 refer to this.
66. Which of the following is a finding that the nurse
will be able to assess in a client with Pleural
effusion?
a. Reduced or absent breath sound at the
base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachpynea
and shortness of breath
b. Hypoxemia, hypercapnea and
respiratory acidosis
c. Noisy respiration, crackles, stridor and
wheezing
d. Tracheal deviation towards the affected
side, increased fremitus and loud breath
sounds
a. Reduced or absent breath sound at the
base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachpynea
and shortness of breath
67
67. Thoracentesis is performed to the client with
effusion. The nurse knows that the removal of
fluid should be slow. Rapid removal of fluid in
thoracentesis might cause:
a. Pneumothorax
b. Cardiovascular collapse
c. Pleurisy or Pleuritis
d. Hypertension
b. Cardiovascular collapse
68
68. 3 Days after thoracentesis, the client again
exhibited respiratory distress. The nurse will
know that pleural effusion has reoccurred when
she noticed a sharp stabbing pain during
inspiration. The physician ordered a closed tube
thoracotomy for the client. The nurse knows
that the primary function of the chest tube is to:
a. Restore positive intrathoracic pressure
b. Restore negative intrathoracic pressure
c. To visualize the intrathoracic content
d. As a method of air administration via
ventilator
b. Restore negative intrathoracic pressure
69
69. The chest tube is functioning properly if:
a. There is an oscillation
b. There is no bubbling in the drainage
bottle
c. There is a continuous bubbling in the
waterseal
d. The suction control bottle has a
continuous bubbling
a. There is an oscillation
70
70. In a client with pleural effusion, the nurse is
instructing appropriate breathing technique.
Which of the following is included in the
teaching?
a. Breath normally
b. Hold the breath after each inspiration
for 1 full minute
c. Practice abdominal breathing
d. Inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3
to 5 seconds after each inhalation
d. Inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3
to 5 seconds after each inhalation
71
SITUATION: Health care delivery system affects the
health status of every filipino. As a Nurse, Knowledge of
this system is expected to ensure quality of life.
71. When should rehabilitation commence?
a. The day before discharge
b. When the patient desires
c. Upon admission
d. 24 hours after discharge
c. Upon admission
72
72. What exemplified the preventive and promotive
programs in the hospital?
a. Hospital as a center to prevent and
control infection
b. Program for smokers
c. Program for alcoholics and drug addicts
d. Hospital Wellness Center
d. Hospital Wellness Center
73
73. Which makes nursing dynamic?
a. Every patient is a unique physical,
emotional, social and spiritual being
b. The patient participate in the overall
nursing care plan
c. Nursing practice is expanding in the light
of modern developments that takes
place
d. The health status of the patient is
constantly changing and the nurse must
be cognizant and responsive to these
changes
d. The health status of the patient is
constantly changing and the nurse must
be cognizant and responsive to these
changes
74
74. Prevention is an important responsibility of the
nurse in:
a. Hospitals
b. Community
c. Workplace
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
75
75. This form of Health Insurance provides
comprehensive prepaid health services to
enrollees for a fixed periodic payment.
a. Health Maintenance Organization
b. Medicare
c. Philippine Health Insurance Act
d. Hospital Maintenance Organization
a. Health Maintenance Organization
76
Situation: Nursing ethics is an important part of the
nursing profession. As the ethical situation arises, so is
the need to have an accurate and ethical decision
making.
76. The purpose of having a nurses’ code of ethics is:
a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing
practice
b. identify nursing action recommended for
specific health care situations
c. To help the public understand
professional conduct expected of
nurses
d. To define the roles and functions of the
health care givers, nurses, clients
c. To help the public understand
professional conduct expected of
nurses
77
The principles that govern right and proper
conduct of a person regarding life, biology and
the health professionals is referred to as:
a. Morality
b. Religion
c. Values
d. Bioethics
d. Bioethics
78
78. A subjective feeling about what is right or wrong
is said to be:
a. Morality
b. Religion
c. Values
d. Bioethics
a. Morality
79
79. Values are said to be the enduring believe about
a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If Values
are going to be a part of a research, this is
categorized under:
a. Qualitative
b. Experimental
c. Quantitative
d. Non Experimental
a. Qualitative
80
80. The most important nursing responsibility where
ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
a. Act only when advised that the action is
ethically sound
b. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair
c. Assume that ethical questions are the
responsibility of the health team
d. Be accountable for his or her own
actions
d. Be accountable for his or her own
actions
81
81. Why is there an ethical dilemma?
a. the choices involved do not appear to be
clearly right or wrong
b. a client’s legal right co-exist with the
nurse’s professional obligation
c. decisions has to be made based on
societal norms.
d. decisions has to be mad quickly, often
under stressful conditions
b. a client’s legal right co-exist with the
nurse’s professional obligation
82
82. According to the code of ethics, which of the
following is the primary responsibility of the
nurse?
a. Assist towards peaceful death
b. Health is a fundamental right
c. Promotion of health, prevention of
illness, alleviation of suffering and
restoration of health
d. Preservation of health at all cost
d. Preservation of health at all cost
83
83. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code
of Ethics of Filipino Nurses, except:
a. The Philippine Nurses Association for
being the accredited professional
organization was given the privilege to
formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses
which the Board of Nursing
promulgated
b. Code for Nurses was first formulated in
1982 published in the Proceedings of the
Third Annual Convention of the PNA
House of Delegates
c. The present code utilized the Code of
Good Governance for the Professions in
the Philippines
d. Certificates of Registration of registered
nurses may be revoked or suspended for
violations of any provisions of the Code
of Ethics.
a. The Philippine Nurses Association for
being the accredited professional
organization was given the privilege to
formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses
which the Board of Nursing
promulgated
84
84. Violation of the code of ethics might equate to
the revocation of the nursing license. Who
revokes the license?
a. PRC
b. PNA
c. DOH
d84. Violation of the code of ethics might equate to
the revocation of the nursing license. Who
revokes the license?
a. PRC
b. PNA
c. DOH
d. BON.
d. BON
85
85. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses,
what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing
responsibility and accountability?
a. Human rights of clients, regardless of
creed and gender
b. The privilege of being a registered
professional nurse
c. Health, being a fundamental right of
every individual
d. Accurate documentation of actions and
outcomes
d. Accurate documentation of actions and
outcomes
86
Situation: As a profession, nursing is dynamic and its
practice is directed by various theoretical models. To
demonstrate caring behaviour, the nurse applies various
nursing models in providing quality nursing care.
86. When you clean the bedside unit and regularly
attend to the personal hygiene of the patient as
well as in washing your hands before and after a
procedure and in between patients, you indent
to facilitate the body’s reparative processes.
Which of the following nursing theory are you
applying in the above nursing action?
a. Hildegard Peplau
b. Dorothea Orem
c. Virginia Henderson
d. Florence Nightingale
d. Florence Nightingale
87
87. A communication skill is one of the important
competencies expected of a nurse. Interpersonal
process is viewed as human to human
relationship. This statement is an application of
whose nursing model?
a. Joyce Travelbee
b. Martha Rogers
c. Callista Roy
d. Imogene King
a. Joyce Travelbee
88
88. The statement “the health status of an individual
is constantly changing and the nurse must be
cognizant and responsive to these changes” best
explains which of the following facts about
nursing?
a. Dynamic
b. Client centred
c. Holistic
d. Art
a. Dynamic
89
89. Virginia Henderson professes that the goal of
nursing is to work interdependently with other
health care working in assisting the patient to gain independence as quickly as possible. Which
of the following nursing actions best
demonstrates this theory in taking care of a 94
year old client with dementia who is totally
immobile?
a. Feeds the patient, brushes his teeth,
gives the sponge bath
b. Supervise the watcher in rendering
patient his morning care
c. Put the patient in semi fowler’s position,
set the over bed table so the patient can
eat by himself, brush his teeth and
sponge himself
d. Assist the patient to turn to his sides and
allow him to brush and feed himself only
when he feels ready
a. Feeds the patient, brushes his teeth,
gives the sponge bath
90
90. In the self-care deficit theory by Dorothea Orem,
nursing care becomes necessary when a patient
is unable to fulfil his physiological, psychological
and social needs. A pregnant client needing
prenatal check-up is classified as:
a. Wholly compensatory
b. Supportive Educative
c. Partially compensatory
d. Non compensatory
b. Supportive Educative
91
Situation: Documentation and reporting are just as
important as providing patient care, As such, the nurse
must be factual and accurate to ensure quality
documentation and reporting.
91. Health care reports have different purposes. The
availability of patients’ record to all health team
members demonstrates which of the following
purposes:
a. Legal documentation
b. Research
c. Education
d. Vehicle for communication
d. Vehicle for communication
92
92. When a nurse commits medication error, she
should accurately document client’s response
and her corresponding action. This is very
important for which of the following purposes:
a. Research
b. Legal documentation
c. Nursing Audit
d. Vehicle for communication
b. Legal documentation
93
POMR has been widely used in many teaching
hospitals. One of its unique features is SOAPIE
charting. The P in SOAPIE charting should include:
a. Prescription of the doctor to the
patient’s illness
b. Plan of care for patient
c. Patient’s perception of one’s illness
d. Nursing problem and Nursing diagnosis
b. Plan of care for patient
94
94. The medical records that are organized into
separate section from doctors or nurses has
more disadvantages than advantages. This is
classified as what type of recording?
a. POMR
b. Modified POMR
c. SOAPIE
d. SOMR
d. SOMR
95
95. Which of the following is the advantage of SOMR
or Traditional recording?
a. Increases efficiency in data gathering
b. Reinforces the use of the nursing
process
c. The caregiver can easily locate proper
section for making charting entries
d. Enhances effective communication
among health care team members
c. The caregiver can easily locate proper
section for making charting entries
96
Situation: June is a 24 year old client with symptoms of
dyspnea, absent breath sounds on the right lung and
chest x ray revealed pleural effusion. The physician will
perform thoracentesis.
96. Thoracentesis is useful in treating all of the
following pulmonary disorders except:
a. Hemothorax
b. Hydrothorax
c. Tuberculosis
d. Empyema
c. Tuberculosis
97
97. Which of the following psychological preparation
is not relevant for him?
a. Telling him that the gauge of the needle
and anesthesia to be used
b. Telling him to keep still during the
procedure to facilitate the insertion of
the needle in the correct place
c. Allow June to express his feelings and
concerns
d. Physician’s explanation on the purpose
of the procedure and how it will be done
a. Telling him that the gauge of the needle
and anesthesia to be used
98
98. Before thoracentesis, the legal consideration you
must check is:
a. Consent is signed by the client
b. Medicine preparation is correct
c. Position of the client is correct
d. Consent is signed by relative and
physician
a. Consent is signed by the client
99
99. As a nurse, you know that the position for June
before thoracentesis is:
a. Orthopneic
b. Low fowlers
c. Knee-chest
d. Sidelying position on the affected side
a. Orthopneic
100
100. Which of the following anaesthetics drug is used
for thoracentesis?
a. Procaine 2%
b. Demerol 75 mg
c. Valium 250 mg
d. Phenobartbital 50 mg
a. Procaine 2%
