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np 2nd review Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
    A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of illness
    B. To enhance the capacity of individuals families and communities to cope with
    their health needs
    C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
    D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children.
A

B. To enhance the capacity of individuals families and communities to cope with
their health needs

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2
Q
  1. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?
    A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people.
    B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs
    and problems.
    C. The services are based on the available resources within the community.
    D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified.
A

B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs
and problems.

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3
Q
  1. Population-focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?
    A. Community organizing
    B. Nursing process
    C. Community diagnosis
    D. Epidemiologic process
A

C. Community diagnosis

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4
Q
  1. What other factor must be considered in determining the occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?
    A. Type of occupation: agricultural, commercial, industrial
    B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities
    C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit
    D. Sex and age composition of employees
A

B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities

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5
Q

SITUATION: Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on how this information became processed and consolidated.

  1. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except?

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history
B. To provide standardized, facility level data accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion
C. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in timely and easy to use fashion

A

A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history

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6
Q
  1. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?
    A. Family treatment record
    B. Target Client list
    C. Reporting forms
    D. Output record
A

A. Family treatment record

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7
Q
  1. What is the primary advantage of having a target client list?
    A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effort
    B. Help monitor service rendered to clients in general
    C. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of services
    D. Facilitate easier reporting
A

A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time and effort

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?
    A. Family treatment record
    B. Target Client list
    C. Reporting forms
    D. Output record
A

B. Target Client list

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9
Q
  1. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services?
    A. Daily
    B. Weekly
    C. Monthly
    D. Quarterly
A

A. Daily

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10
Q
  1. After bringing the reportin unig forms in the right facility for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output reports are solely produced by what office?
    A Rural health office
    B. FHSIS Main office
    C. Provincial health office
    D. Regional health office
A

C. Provincial health office

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11
Q

SITUATION: Community organizing is a process by which people, health services and agencies of the community are brought together to act and solve their own problems.

  1. Mang ambo approaches you for counseling. You are an effective counselor if you
    A. Give good advice to Mang Ambo
    B. Identify Mang Ambo’s problems
    C. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your advice
    D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems
A

D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

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12
Q
  1. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize Barangay Baritan, which of the following is your initial step in organizing the community for initial action?
    A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and records
    B. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
    C. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plans
    D. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor
A

A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and records

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13
Q
  1. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?
    A. Area selection
    B. Community profiling
    C. Entry in the community
    D. Integration with the people
A

A. Area selection

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14
Q
  1. The most important factor in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should
    A. Be already adopted by another organization
    B. Be able to finance the projects
    C. Have problems and needs assistance
    D. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders
A

C. Have problems and needs assistance

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following dwelling place should the Nurse choose when integrating with the people?
    A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and San Pablo
    B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the center of Barangay Baritan
    C. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter
    D. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community
A

D. A modest dwelling place where people will not hesitate to enter located in the center of the community

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16
Q
  1. In choosing a leader in the community during the Organizational phase, which among these people will you choose?
    A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and Famous
    B. Rustom, 27 years old, Actor
    C. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired change
    D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change
A

D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work for the desired change

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17
Q
  1. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of the community practice?
    A. Autocratic
    B. Democratic
    C. Laissez Faire
    D. Consultative
A

B. Democratic

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18
Q
  1. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in what phase of COPAR?
    A. Preparatory
    B. Organizational
    C. Education and Training
    D. Intersectoral Collaboration
    E. Phase out
A

B. Organizational

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19
Q
  1. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of health programs and services. This is done in what phase of COPAR?
    A. Preparatory
    B. Organizational
    C. Education and Training
    D. Intersectoral Collaboration
    E. Phase out
A

C. Education and Training

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20
Q
  1. The people named the community health workers based on the collective decision in accordance with the set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The Nurse must first
    A. Make a lesson plan
    B. Set learning goals and objective
    C. Assess their learning needs
    D. Review materials needed for training
A

C. Assess their learning needs

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21
Q
  1. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to Agnesia, 50-year-old breast cancer survivor needing rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education is effective when
    A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions perfectly
    B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positively
    C. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she understood the instruction
    D. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek
A

B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed positively

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about health education?
    A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s sole efforts
    B. It should not be flexible
    C. It is a fast and mushroom like process
    D. It is a slow and continuous process.
A

D. It is a slow and continuous process.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following factors least influence the learning readiness of an adult learner?
    A. The individual’s stage of development
    B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned
    C. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illness
    D. The internal impulses that drive the person to take action
A

B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control their diet?
    A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during instructions
    B. Motivation to be symptom free
    C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instruction
    D. Language used by the nurse
A

C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching instruction

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25
Q
  1. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, which of the following learning domain will you classify the above goals?
    A. Psychomotor
    B. Cognitive
    C. Affective
    D. Attitudinal
A

A. Psychomotor

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26
Q

Situation: Community health nurse Regielyn will administer immunization to children in her assigned community. The total population of Barangay Sta. Mesa is 15,750 people. The right distribution depends on the availability of vaccines and the appropriate health personnel.

  1. Regielyn is required to have her monthly doses for Tetanus Toxoid (TT). She will come up with which of the following choices:
    A 79
    B. 198
    C. 99
    D. 153
A

huh

500 kapin ako calcu

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27
Q
  1. What will be the eligible population for Hepa, B vaccine?
    A. 551
    B. 550
    C. 472
    D. 473
A

idk

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28
Q
  1. Compute for the monthly doses of Anti-Measles
    Vaccine:
    A. 79
    B. 130
    C. 99
    D. 68
A

z

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29
Q
  1. If Regielyn will compute for the monthly doses of OPV, she will have which of the following:
    A. 115
    B. 198
    C. 151
    D. 132
A

tun an pa

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30
Q
  1. Compute for the monthly doses’ requirement for Hepatitis B vaccine:
    A. 130
    B. 151
    C. 132
    D. 115
A

ge lang

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31
Q

Situation: According to study, environmental health as well as environmental sanitation is still a concern and a problem in our country.

  1. The Department of Health through Environmental and Occupational Health Office has authority to act on all issues related to environment and health. Nurse Francis is aware that diarrheal diseases ranked first as the leading cause of disease among general population. The comprehensive sanitation code of the Philippines is mandated and put into law as:
    A. PD 825
    B. RA 8749
    C. PD 856
    D. RA 9275
A

C. PD 856

856 Promulgating the Code on Sanitation of the Philippines.

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32
Q
  1. Neil, a newly hired public health worker is no working in his assigned community, Barangay Bidin, in a remote area under the Municipality of Sibutu. During his community assembly, he emphasized that their different types of toilets that are being utilized in the said barangay. The EHS set policies on approved types of toiletsand categorizing them according to different levels. Neil has correct understanding regarding toilet level - Il if he states that.
    A. “Level I is a non-water carriage toilet facility; no water is necessary to wash the waste into the receiving space this include pit latrines
    B “Level Il is a type of toilet facility requiring small amount of water to wash the waste into the receiving space like pour flush’
    C. “Level Il is a water carriage type of toilet facility that is connected to a septic tank and to a sewerage system to treatment plant”
    D “Level I is an on-site toilet facility of a water carriage type with water-sealed and flush type with septic tank”
A

B “Level Il is a type of toilet facility requiring small amount of water to wash the waste into the receiving space like pour flush’

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33
Q
  1. The Department of Health (DOH) through the EOHO has set some policies on the following areas such as (1) approved types of water facilities (2) Unapproved types of water facilities (3) Access to safe and potable drinking water (4) water quality and monitoring surveillance and (5) waterworks system and well construction.
    Leila, knows that Level I approved
    type of water supply facility include all of the following choices apart from one that is incorrect:
    A. Designed to deliver 40 - 80 liters of water, to an average of 100 households, with one faucet per 4-6 households
    B. Suitable for rural areas where houses are clustered densely to justify a simple piped system.-
    C. Communal Faucet System or Stand
    -Posts, a system composed of a source,
    a reservoir, a piped distribution network and a communal faucet, located not more than 25 meters from the farthest house
    D. A protected well or a developed spring with an outlet but without distribution system, generally adaptable for rural areas where the house is thinly scattered.
A

A. Designed to deliver 40 - 80 liters of water, to an average of 100 households, with one faucet per 4-6 households

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34
Q
  1. There are 4 rights in food safety. These rights involve the chain in food processing from the source in the market until the food reaches the table. Neil, knows that all are 4 rights in food safety except:

A Right Source
B. Right Cooking
C. Right Food
D. Right Storage

A

C. Right Food

Four Steps to Food Safety: Clean, Separate, Cook, Chill. Following four simple steps at home—Clean, Separate, Cook, and Chill—can help protect you and your loved ones from food poisoning.

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35
Q
  1. The modern-day practice of water supply among urban areas is through water refilling station. Andy Lynn, as an owner of a water refilling distilled station knows that she has to regularly monitor the quality of drinking water being sold in her station, if she will submit her water for analysis for physical and chemical properties, it should be submitted every how many months:

A. Every month
B. Every 6 months
C. Annually
D. As need arises

A

C. Annually

d sad sure

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true?
    A. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
    B. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.
    C. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
    D.Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.
A

B. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.

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37
Q
  1. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
    A. Causative Agent
    B. Reservoir
    C. Bacteria
    D. Carrier
A

A. Causative Agent

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38
Q
  1. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:
    A. Pathogenicity
    B. Communicability
    C. Teratogenicity
    D. Epidemiology
A

A. Pathogenicity

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39
Q
  1. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a particular period of time and not all through the disease process because:
    A. During febrile stage toxins are present.*
    B. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.
    C. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
    D. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.
A

B. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.

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40
Q
  1. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community:
    A. Malarial Blood Smear
    B. Quantitative Buffy Coat
    C. ELISA
    D. Nocturnal Blood Examination
A

A. Malarial Blood Smear

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41
Q
  1. The drug of choice against malaria is:
    A. Chloroquine
    B. N-diethyl-D-toluamide
    C. Pyethrinoids
    D. Biltricide
A

A. Chloroquine

Chloroquine phosphate. Chloroquine is the preferred treatment for any parasite that is sensitive to the drug.

42
Q
  1. Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose:

A. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 5rg/kg single dose on the third day.
B. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day
C. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day
D. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day

A

A. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 5rg/kg single dose on the third day.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?
    A. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.
    B. It should be given before meals.
    C. Can be giiven even before c and S is completed or confirmed.
    D. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.
A

A. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.

43
Q
  1. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except:
    A. Fever lasting 2-7 days
    B. Thrombocytopenia
    C. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
    D. Abdominal pain plus joint fever
A

A. Fever lasting 2-7 days

44
Q
  1. In what stage is Herman’s sign clinically manifested by the client?
    A Febrile stage
    B. Hemorrhagic Stage
    C. Circulatory failure stage
    D. Hypovolemic Shock
A

A Febrile stage

45
Q
  1. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?
    A. Institute seizure precautions
    B. Assess neurologic status
    C. Place in respiratory isolation
    D. Assess vital signs
A

C. Place in respiratory isolation

46
Q
  1. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is MOST appropriate for this client?
    A. Reverse isolation
    B. Respiratory isolation
    C. Standard precautions
    D. Contact isolation
A

D. Contact isolation

Use Contact Precautions when caring for patients with MRSA (colonized, or carrying, and infected). Contact Precautions mean: Whenever possible, patients with MRSA will have a single room or will share a room only with someone else who also has MRSA.

47
Q
  1. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the following medical conditions?
    A. A diagnosis of AIDS and cytomegalovirus
    B. A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray
    C. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia
    D. Advanced carcinoma of the lung
A

B. A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing infections when providing care for a
    A. Hand washing
    B. Wearing gloves
    C. Using a barrier between client’s furniture and nurse’s bag
    D. Wearing gowns and goggles
A

A. Hand washing

49
Q
  1. An adult woman is admitted to an isolation unit in the hospital after tuberculosis was detected during a pre-employment physical. Although frightened about her diagnosis, she is anxious to cooperate with the therapeutic regimen. The teaching plan includes information regarding the most common means of transmitting the tubercle bacillus from one individual to another. Which contamination is usually responsible?
    A. Hands
    B. Droplet nuclei.
    C. Milk products.
    D.Eating utensils
A

B. Droplet nuclei.

50
Q
  1. A nurse is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation consists of:
    A. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
    B. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein
    C. Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus
    D. Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus
A

B. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

51
Q
  1. A nurse prepares to assess a fetal heartbeat. The nurse uses a fetoscope, knowing that the fetal heartbeat can first be heard with a fetoscope at gestational week:
    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 16
    D. 20
A

D. 20

52
Q
  1. A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal physical finding necessitating further testing?
    A. Consistent increase in fundal height
    B. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute
    C. Braxton hicks’ contractions
    D. Quickening
A

B. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute

53
Q
  1. A nurse is performing an assessment of a pregnant client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse measures the fundal height in centimeters and expects the findings to be which of the following?
    A.22 cm
    B.28 cm
    C.36 cm
    D.40 cm
A

B.28 cm

The fundal height is the distance between the pubic bone and the top of the uterus. It gives clues as to the position and growth rate of a developing fetus. At 28 weeks, the fundal height is usually around 28 centimeters.

54
Q
  1. A pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic when she will be able to start feeling the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling the mother that fetal movements will b noted between:
    A. 6 and 8 weeks of gestation
    B.8 and 10 weeks of gestation
    C.10 and 12 weeks of gestation
    D. 14 and 16 weeks of gestation
A

D. 14 and 16 weeks of gestation

55
Q
  1. A clinic has instructed a pregnant client in measures to prevent varicose veins during pregnancy. Which statement if made by the client indicates a need for further education?
    A. “I should wear support hose”
    B. “I should be wearing flat nonslip shoes that have an arch support*
    C. “I should wear pantyhose”
    D. “I can wear knee-high hose as long as I don’t leave them on longer than 8 hours.
A

D. “I can wear knee-high hose as long as I don’t leave them on longer than 8 hours.

56
Q
  1. The nurse is providing care for a postpartum client. Which of the following condition would place this client at greater risk for a postpartum hemorrhage?
    A Hypertension
    B. Uterine infection
    C. Placenta previa
    D Severe pain
A

C. Placenta previa

Placental abruption. The early detachment of the placenta from the uterus. Placenta previa.

57
Q
  1. During the 3’d postpartum day, which of the following would the nurse be most likely to find in the client?
    A. She’s interested in learning more about newborn care
    B. She talk a lot about her birth experience
    C. She sleeps whenever the baby isn’t present
    D. She requests help in choosing a name for the baby
A

A. She’s interested in learning more about newborn care

58
Q
  1. A client in the active phase of labor has a reactive fetal monitor strip and has been encouraged to walk. When she returns to bed for a monitor check, she complains of an urge to push. When performing a vaginal examination, the nurse accidentally ruptures the amniotic membranes, and as she withdraws her hand, the umbilical cord comes out. What should the nurse do next?
    A. Put the client in a knee-to-chest position
    B. Call the physician or midwife
    C. Push down on the uterine fundus
    D. Set up for a fetal blood sampling to assess for fetal acidosis
A

A. Put the client in a knee-to-chest position

59
Q
  1. The nurse can consider the fetus’s head to be engaged when:
    A. The presenting part moves through the pelvis
    B. The fetal head rotates to pass through the ischial spines
    C. The fetal head extends as it passes under the symphysis pubis
    D. The biparietal diameter passes the pelvic inlet
A

D. The biparietal diameter passes the pelvic inlet

60
Q
  1. A client is experiencing a true labor when her contraction pattern shows
    A. Occasional irregular contractions
    B. Irregular contractions that increase in intensity
    C. Regular contractions that remain the same
    D. Regular contractions that increase in frequency and duration
A

D. Regular contractions that increase in frequency and duration

61
Q
  1. When late decelerations are noted by the nurse, the first action is to:
    A. Notify the physician STAT
    B. Position the client on her left side
    C. Administer oxygen via face mask
    D. Increase the drip rate of the intravenous fluid
A

B. Position the client on her left side

62
Q
  1. A client is receiving magnèsium sulfate to help suppress preterm labor. The nurse should watch for which sign of magnesium toxicity.
    A. Headache
    B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
    C. Palpitations
    D. Dyspepsia
A

B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes

One of the most common signs that nurses watch for is the loss of the knee-jerk reflex (a jerk that usually occurs when your leg is tapped just below the knee).

63
Q
  1. During prenatal screening of a diabetic client, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for:
    A. Rh incompatibility
    B. Placenta previa
    C. Hyperemesis
    D. Stillbirth
A

D. Stillbirth

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is a normal physiological response in the early postpartum period?
    A. Urinary urgency
    B. Rapid diuresis
    C. Decrease in blood pressure D. Increased motility of the Gl system
A

B. Rapid diuresis

65
Q
  1. A newly pregnant client who is a little overweight ask how much weight she should gain over the 9 months. The most appropriate answer is;
    A. “For your size a little heavy, about 15 pounds would be best
    B. “It really doesn’t matter exactly how much weight you gain, as long as your diet is healthy.
    C. “A gain of about 24-25 pounds is best for mother and baby.
    D. “Because you are a little overweight, it would be best for you not to gain too much weight.—-
A

C. “A gain of about 24-25 pounds is best for mother and baby.

66
Q
  1. A parent brings a 19-month-old toddler to the clinic for a well-child checkup. When palpating the toddler’s fontanels, the nurse would expect to find:
    A. Closed anterior fontanel and open posterior fontanel.—-
    B. Open anterior fontanel and closed posterior fontanel
    C. Closed anterior and posterior fontanels.
    D. Open anterior and posterior fontanels.
A

C. Closed anterior and posterior fontanels.

67
Q
  1. An infant is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following drugs may be administered in hopes of achieving pharmacologic closure of the defect?
    A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
    B. Prednisone
    C. Furosemide (Lasix)
    D. Indomethacin (Indocin)
A

D. Indomethacin (Indocin)

Indomethacin injection is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature infants (babies born too early) who weigh between 500 and 1750 grams

68
Q
  1. The nurse is teaching a mother about the benefits of breast-feeding her infant. Which type of immunity is passed on to the infant during breast-feeding?
    A Natural immunity
    B Natural acquired active immunity
    C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
    D. Artificially acquired active immunity
A

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

This type of immunity is called passive immunity because the baby has been given antibodies rather than making them itself. Antibodies are special proteins the immune system produces to help protect the body against bacteria and viruses.

69
Q
  1. The nurse would anticipate a possible complication in infants delivered by cesarean section. This condition would be:
    A. Respiratory distress
    B Renal impairment
    C AB incompatibility
    D. Kernicterus
A

A. Respiratory distress

70
Q
  1. An 11 lb. 6 oz. baby girl was delivered by cesarean section to a diabetic mother. The priority assessment of the infant of a diabetic mother would be for;
    A. Hypoglycemia
    B. Sepsis
    C. Hyperglycemia
    D. Hypercalcemia
A

A. Hypoglycemia

71
Q
  1. During a physical exam of an infant with congenital hip dysplasia, the nurse would observe and report which of the following characteristics?
    A. Symmetrical gluteal folds
    B. Limited adduction of the affected leg
    C. Femoral pulse when the hip is flexed and the leg is abducted
    D. Limited abduction of the affected leg
A

D. Limited abduction of the affected leg

72
Q
  1. The nurses caring for a premature baby use careful hand washing techniques because they know premature infants are more susceptible to infection than full-term infants. Which of the following explains why premature infants are more likely to develop infection?
    A. Their liver enzymes are immature
    B. Premature babies may receive steroid drugs, which affects the immune system
    C. Premature infants receive few antibodies from the mother, because antibodies pass across the placenta
    during the last month of
    pregnancy
    D. Surfactant is decreased in premature infants
A

C. Premature infants receive few antibodies from the mother, because antibodies pass across the placenta
during the last month of
pregnancy

73
Q
  1. In the delivery room, a client has just delivered a healthy 7-pound baby boy. The physician instructs the nurse to suction the baby. The procedure that the nurse would use is to:
    B Suction the mouth first
    C. Suction neither the nose nor mouth until the physician gives further instructions
    D. Turn the baby on his side so mucus will drain out before suctioning
A

B Suction the mouth first

74
Q
  1. A mother tells the nurse that her 22-month-old child says “no” to everything. When scolded, the toddler becomes angry and starts crying loudly, but then immediately wants to be held. What is
    the best interpretation of this behavior?
    A. The toddler isn’t effectively coping with stress.
    B. The toddler’s need for affection isn’t being met.
    C. This is normal behavior for a 2-year-old child.
    D. This behavior suggests the need for counseling.
A

C. This is normal behavior for a 2-year-old child.

75
Q
  1. Which nursing intervention has priority when feeding an infant with a cleft lip or palate?
    A. Directing the flow of milk in the center of mouth
    B. Providing small, frequent feedings
    C. Avoiding breast-feeding
    D. Infrequent burping
A

B. Providing small, frequent feedings

76
Q
  1. Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?
    A. Assist with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways
    B. Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern
    C. Promotes clearing mucus from the
    D. Helps the lungs remain expanded atter the initiation of breathing
A

D. Helps the lungs remain expanded atter the initiation of breathing

77
Q
  1. While assessing a 2-hour-old neonate, the nurse observes the neonate to have acrocyanosis. Which of the following nursing actions should be performed initially?
    A. Activate the blue code or emergency system
    B. Do nothing because acrocyanosis is normal in the neonate
    C. Immediately take the neonate’s temperature according to hospital policy
    D. Notify the physician of th e need for a cardiac consult
A

B. Do nothing because acrocyanosis is normal in the neonate

78
Q
  1. When performing a neurologic assessment, which sign is considered a normal finding in a neonate?
    A. Doll eyes
    B. “Sunset eyes
    C. Positive Babinski’s sign
    D. Pupils that don’t react to light
A

C. Positive Babinski’s sign

79
Q
  1. A client’s mother asks the nurse why her newborn grandson is getting an injection of vitamin K. Which best explains why this drug is given to neonates?
    A. Vitamin K assists with coagulation
    B. Vitamin K assists the gut to mature
    C. Vitamin K initiates the immunization process
    D. Vitamin K protects the brain from excess fluid production
A

A. Vitamin K assists with coagulation

80
Q
  1. Respiratory depression in neonates that is due to maternal use of narcotics is given a narcotic antagonist which is Naloxone (Narcan) through IM. What is the other route for administering Narcan?
    A ID
    B. Tropical
    C. Oral
    D. Umbilical Vessel
A

D. Umbilical Vessel

81
Q
  1. During assessment of a newborn, what is the 1st sign of obstruction or respiratory compromise?
    A Increasing RR
    B. Increasing PR
    C. Increasing BUN
    D. Increasing Creatinine
A

A Increasing RR

82
Q
  1. A newborn that has no audible heartbeat is being resuscitated in the delivery room. After 30 seconds of CPR the heart rate is 70 bpm. The next action of the nurse would be to?
    A. Administer 0.5 ml/kg of epinephrine
    B. Administer 1ml/kg of epinephrine
    C Administer 0.3ml/kg of epinephrine
    D. Do nothing
A

C Administer 0.3ml/kg of epinephrine

83
Q
  1. Resuscitation in a newborn may cause many side effects including hypovolemia. Which of the following is not included of the signs and symptoms?
    A. Hypotension
    B. Bradycardia
    C. Decrease CVP
    D. Decrease peripheral tissue perfusion*
A

D. Decrease peripheral tissue perfusion

84
Q
  1. A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by:
    A Warming the crib pad
    B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer C Closing the doors to the room
    D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket
A

D. Drying the infant in a warm blanket

85
Q
  1. In regulating the temperature of the newborn which of the following action of the nurse requires further attention?
    A. Wiping the newborn dry
    B. Placing newborn under a prewarmed radiant warmer
    C. Initiating skin-skin contact
    D. Placing newborn on X-ray tables
A

D. Placing newborn on X-ray tables

86
Q
  1. Radiant heat warmers are open beds with overhead radiant source used in regulating the newborns’ temperature. It contains a probe which is tape in what site?
    A Head
    B. Xiphoid Process
    C. Upper extremities
    D. Lower extremities
A

B. Xiphoid Process

Attach the probe to the exposed abdominal skin at mid-epigastrium, halfway between the xiphoid and the umbilicus.

87
Q
  1. Asphyxia is a condition arising when the body is deprived of oxygen, infants who have this condition usually receive IF to prevent exhaustion. Furthermore, an infant who also is tachypneic receives gavage feeding which also needs to be given a pacifier at feeding times. Which of the following is a contraindication in giving a pacifier?

A NEC
B. Good sucking reflex
C. Intussusception
D. TEF

A

D. TEF

Tracheoesophageal fistulas (TEFs) represent one of the most common congenital anomalies seen in major pediatric surgical centers. Infants with tracheoesophageal fistulas classically present with respiratory distress, feeding difficulties, choking, and risk of aspiration.

88
Q
  1. A pregnant woman’s blood test revealed a very low hemoglobin level. The physician considers the woman severely anemic. Which of the following is the most likely effect on the fetus if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?
    A. Hemorrhage could be possiblel
    B. Erythroblastosis fetalis
    C. Small for Gestational Age (SGA) baby
    D. Large for Gestational Age (LGA) fetus
A

C. Small for Gestational Age (SGA) baby

89
Q
  1. Small for Gestational Age infants fall below 10TH percentile of the normal weight. Which of the following will you assess in these infants?
    A Good skin turgor
    B Normal Liver
    C. Large head
    D. Intact skull sutures
A

C. Large head

90
Q
  1. Why are small for gestational age newborns are at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature?
    A. They are preterm so are born relatively in small size
    B. They are more active than usual so throw off covers
    C. They do not have as many fat store as other infants
    D. Their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold
A

C. They do not have as many fat store as other infants

91
Q
  1. This is the blueness of extremities observed in Small for Gestational Infants.
    A. Acrocyanosis
    B. Cyanosis
    C. Hemosiderosis
    D. Kernicterus
A

A. Acrocyanosis

Acrocyanosis, a functional peripheral arterial disease, is a persistent, painless bluish discoloration of both hands and, less commonly, of both feet, caused by spasm of the small blood vessels within the skin, usually in response to cold or emotional stress.

92
Q
  1. Baby girl Gretch was born large for gestational age. After being delivered vaginally, this infant should be carefully assessed for:
    A. Increased intracranial pressure
    B. Hypothermia
    C. Decreased red blood levels (Anemia)
    D. Hyperglycemia
A

D. Hyperglycemia

93
Q
  1. There are many conditions associated with macrosomic infants, which of the following refers to an overgrowth disorder?
    A. PDA
    B. Omphalocele
    C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
    D. DM
A

C. Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

94
Q
  1. What is the preferred birthing type for LGA infants?
    A Normal Spontaneous Vaginal Delivery
    B. Forceps Delivery
    C Assisted Delivery
    D. Cesarean Section
A

D. Cesarean Section

95
Q
  1. A cardiovascular dysfunction that happens to GA infants that involves a group of congenital heart defects involving an abnormal spatial arrangement of any of the great vessels.
    A. PDA**
    B. Tetralogy of fallot
    C. Transposition of great vessels*
    D. CHF
A

C. Transposition of great vessels

96
Q
  1. Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for which complication following birth?
    A. Atelectasis
    B. Microcephaly
    C. Pneumothorax
    D. Macrosomia
A

D. Macrosomia

The term “fetal macrosomia” is used to describe a newborn who’s much larger than average. A baby who is diagnosed as having fetal macrosomia weighs more than 8 pounds, 13 ounces (4,000 grams), regardless of his or her gestational age.

97
Q
  1. In infants with DM mothers, what happens to their insulin needs at birth?
    A Increase
    B. Decrease
    C Normalize
    D. Fluctuates
A

A Increase

98
Q
  1. The nurse is aware that a neonate of a mother with diabetes is at risk for what complication?
    A. Anemia
    B. Hypoglycemia
    C. Nitrogen loss D.Thrombosis
A

B. Hypoglycemia

99
Q
  1. A preterm infant is those born before the end of week 37 of gestation and what another criterion?
    A. Weight >2,500 g (5 1b 8oz)
    B. Weight < 2,500 g (5 Ib 8 oz)
    C. Weight < 2,500 g (8 lb 5 oz)
    D. Weight > 2,500 g (8lb 5oz)
A

B. Weight < 2,500 g (5 Ib 8 oz)

Many premature babies also weigh less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces (2,500 grams). They may be called low birth weight. Premature babies can have long-term health problems.

NP (5 decks)

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