NP 3 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Situation: Leo lives in the squatter area. He goes to
nearby school. He helps his mother gather molasses
after school. One day, he was absent because of fever,
malaise, anorexia and abdominal discomfort.
1. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have
hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the
infection agent taken?
a. Fecal-oral
b. Droplet
c. Airborne
d. Sexual contact
A
a. Fecal-oral
2
Q
- Which of the following is concurrent disinfection
in the case of Leo?
a. Investigation of contact
b. Sanitary disposal of faeces, urine and
blood
c. Quarantine of the sick individual
d. removing all detachable objects in the
room, cleaning lighting and air duct
surfaces in the ceiling, and cleaning
everything downward to the floor
A
b. Sanitary disposal of faeces, urine and
blood
3
Q
- Which of the following must be emphasized
during mother’s class to Leo’s mother?
a. Administration of Immunoglobulin to
families
b. Thorough hand washing before and
after eating and toileting
c. Use of attenuated vaccines
d. Boiling of food especially meat
A
b. Thorough hand washing before and
after eating and toileting
4
Q
- Disaster control should be undertaken when
there are 3 or more hepatitis A cases. Which of
these measures is a priority?
a. Eliminate faecal contamination from
foods
b. Mass vaccination of uninfected
individuals
c. Health promotion and education to
families and communities about the
disease it’s cause and transmission
d. Mass administration of Immunoglobulin
A
c. Health promotion and education to
families and communities about the
disease it’s cause and transmission
5
Q
- What is the average incubation period of
Hepatitis A?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 50 days
d. 14 days
A
A. 30 days
6
Q
Situation: As a nurse researcher you must have a very
good understanding of the common terms of concept
used in research.
6. The information that an investigator collects
from the subjects or participants in a research
study is usually called;
a. Hypothesis
b. Variable
c. Data
d. Concept
Situation: As a nurse researcher you must have a very
good understanding of the common terms of concept
used in research.
6. The information that an investigator collects
from the subjects or participants in a research
study is usually called;
a. Hypothesis
b. Variable
c. Data
d. Concept
A
c. Data
7
Q
- Which of the following usually refers to the
independent variables in doing research
a. Result
b. output
c. Cause
d. Effect
A
c. Cause
8
Q
- The recipients of experimental treatment is an
experimental design or the individuals to be
observed in a non experimental design are
called;
a. Setting
b. Treatment
c. Subjects
d. Sample
A
c. Subjects
9
Q
- The device or techniques an investigator
employs to collect data is called;
a. Sample
b. hypothesis
c. Instrument
d. Concept
A
c. Instrument
10
Q
- The use of another person’s ideas or wordings
without giving appropriate credit results from
inaccurate or incomplete attribution of materials
to its sources. Which of the following is referred
to when another person’s idea is inappropriate
credited as one’s own;
a. Plagiarism
b. assumption
c. Quotation
d. Paraphrase
A
a. Plagiarism
11
Q
Situation – Mrs. Pichay is admitted to your ward. The
MD ordered “Prepare for thoracentesis this pm to
remove excess air from the pleural cavity.
11. Which of the following nursing responsibilities is
essential in Mrs. Pichay who will undergo
thoracentesis?
a. Support and reassure client during the
procedure
b. Ensure that informed consent has been
signed
c. Determine if client has allergic reaction
to local anesthesia
d. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests
have been prescribed and completed
A
d. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests
have been prescribed and completed
12
Q
- Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned
by the nurse to which of the following positions?
a. Trendelenburg position
b. Supine position
c. Dorsal Recumbent position
d. Orthopneic position
A
d. Orthopneic position
13
Q
- During thoracentesis, which of the following
nursing intervention will be most crucial?
a. Place patient in a quiet and cool room
b. Maintain strict aseptic technique
c. Advice patient to sit perfectly still
during needle insertion until it has been
withdrawn from the chest
d. Apply pressure over the puncture site as
soon as the needle is withdrawn
A
c. Advice patient to sit perfectly still
during needle insertion until it has been
withdrawn from the chest
14
Q
- Chest x-ray was ordered after thoracentesis.
When your client asks what is the reason for
another chest x-ray, you will explain:
a. To rule out pneumothorax
b. To rule out any possible perforation
c. To decongest
d. To rule out any foreign body
A
a. To rule out pneumothorax
15
Q
Situation: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J. Santos, 25
was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after
he had experienced seizure in his office.
16. Just as the nurse was entering the room, the
patient who was sitting on his chair begins to
have a seizure. Which of the following must the
nurse do first?
a. Ease the patient to the floor
b. Lift the patient and put him on the bed
c. Insert a padded tongue depressor
between his jaws
d. Restraint patient’s body movement
A
a. Ease the patient to the floor
16
Q
- To prevent leakage of fluid in the thoracic cavity,
how will you position the client after
thoracentesis?
a. Place flat in bed
b. Turn on the unaffected side
c. Turn on the affected side
d. On bed rest
A
b. Turn on the unaffected side
17
Q
- Mr Santos is scheduled for CT SCAN for the next
day, noon time. Which of the following is the
correct preparation as instructed by the nurse?
a. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil
and dirt
b. No special preparation is needed.
Instruct the patient to keep his head
still and stead
c. Give a cleansing enema and give fluids
until 8 AM
d. Shave scalp and securely attach
electrodes to it
A
b. No special preparation is needed.
Instruct the patient to keep his head
still and stead
18
Q
- Mr Santos is placed on seizure precaution.
Which of the following would be
contraindicated?
a. Obtain his oral temperature
b. Encourage to perform his own personal
hygiene
c. Allow him to wear his own clothing
d. Encourage him to be out of bed
A
a. Obtain his oral temperature
19
Q
- Usually, how does the patient behave after his
seizure has subsided?
a. Most comfortable walking and moving
about
b. Becomes restless and agitated
c. Sleeps for a period of time
d. Say he is thirsty and hungry
A
c. Sleeps for a period of time
20
Q
- Before, during and after seizure. The nurse
knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what
position?
a. Low fowler’s
b. Side lying
c. Modified trendelenburg
d. Supine
A
b. Side lying
21
Q
Situation: Mrs. Damian an immediate post op
cholecystectomy and choledocholithotomy patient,
complained of severe pain at the wound site.
21. Choledocholithotomy is:
a. The removal of the gallbladder
b. The removal of the stones in the
gallbladder
c. The removal of the stones in the common bile duct
d. The removal of the stones in the kidney
A
c. The removal of the stones in the common bile duct
22
Q
- The simplest pain relieving technique is:
a. Distraction
b. Deep breathing exercise
c. Taking aspirin
d. Positioning
A
d. Positioning
23
Q
- Which of the following statement on pain is
TRUE?
a. Culture and pain are not associated
b. Pain accompanies acute illness
c. Patient’s reaction to pain Varies
d. Pain produces the same reaction such as
groaning and moaning
A
c. Patient’s reaction to pain Varies
24
Q
- In pain assessment, which of the following
condition is a more reliable indicator?
a. Pain rating scale of 1 to 10
b. Facial expression and gestures
c. Physiological responses
d. Patients description of the pain
sensation
A
d. Patients description of the pain
sensation
25
25. When a client complains of pain, your initial
response is:
a. Record the description of pain
b. Verbally acknowledge the pain
c. Refer the complaint to the doctor
d. Change to a more comfortable position
b. Verbally acknowledge the pain
26
Situation: You are assigned at the surgical ward and
clients have been complaining of post pain at varying
degrees. Pain as you know, is very subjective.
26. A one-day postoperative abdominal surgery
client has been complaining of severe throbbing
abdominal pain described as 9 in a 1-10 pain
rating. Your assessment reveals bowel sounds on
all quadrants and the dressing is dry and intact.
What nursing intervention would you take?
a. Medicate client as prescribed
b. Encourage client to do imagery
c. Encourage deep breathing and turning
d. Call surgeon stat
a. Medicate client as prescribed
27
27. Pentoxidone 5 mg IV every 8 hours was
prescribed for post abdominal pain. Which will
be your priority nursing action?
a. Check abdominal dressing for possible
swelling
b. Explain the proper use of PCA to alleviate anxiety
c. Avoid overdosing to prevent
dependence/tolerance
d. Monitor VS, more importantly RR
d. Monitor VS, more importantly RR
28
28. The client complained of abdominal distention
and pain. Your nursing intervention that can
alleviate pain is:
a. Instruct client to go to sleep and relax
b. Advice the client to close the lips and
avoid deep breathing and talking
c. Offer hot and clear soup
d. Turn to sides frequently and avoid too
much talking
d. Turn to sides frequently and avoid too
much talking
29
29. Surgical pain might be minimized by which
nursing action in the O.R.
a. Skill of surgical team and lesser
manipulation
b. Appropriate preparation for the
scheduled procedure
c. Use of modern technology in closing the
wound
d. Proper positioning and draping of clients
b. Appropriate preparation for the
scheduled procedure
30
30. Inadequate anesthesia is said to be one of the
common cause of pain both in intra and post op
patients. If General anesthesia is desired, it will
involve loss of consciousness. Which of the
following are the 2 general types of GA?
a. Epidural and Spinal
b. Subarachnoid block and Intravenous
c. Inhalation and Regional
d. Intravenous and Inhalation
d. Intravenous and Inhalation
31
Situation: Nurse’s attitudes toward the pain influence
the way they perceive and interact with clients in pain.
31. Nurses should be aware that older adults are at
risk of underrated pain. Nursing assessment and
management of pain should address the
following beliefs EXCEPT:
a. Older patients seldom tend to report
pain than the younger ones
b. Pain is a sign of weakness
c. Older patients do not believe in
analgesics, they are tolerant
d. Complaining of pain will lead to being
labeled a ‘bad’ patient
d. Complaining of pain will lead to being
labeled a ‘bad’ patient
32
32. Nurses should understand that when a client
responds favorably to a placebo, it is known as
the ‘placebo effect’. Placebos do not indicate whether or not a client has:
a. Conscience
b. Disease
c. Real pain
d. Drug tolerance
c. Real pain
33
33. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where you
have client who has difficulty specifying the
location of pain. How can you assist such client?
a. The pain is vague
b. By charting-it hurts all over
c. Identify the absence and presence of
pain
d. As the client to point to the painful are
by just one finger
d. As the client to point to the painful are
by just one finger
34
34. What symptom, more distressing than pain,
should the nurse monitor when giving opioids
especially among elderly clients who are in pain?
a. Forgetfulness
b. Drowsiness
c. Constipation
d. Allergic reactions like pruritis
d. Allergic reactions like pruritis
35
35. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who
takes opiods over a period of time. What do you
tell a mother of a ‘dependent’ when asked for
advice?
a. Start another drug and slowly lessen the
opioid dosage
b. Indulge in recreational outdoor activities
c. Isolate opioid dependent to a restful
resort
d. Instruct slow tapering of the drug
dosage and alleviate physical
withdrawal symptoms
d. Instruct slow tapering of the drug
dosage and alleviate physical
withdrawal symptoms
36
Situation: The nurse is performing health education
activities for Janevi Segovia, a 30 year old Dentist with
Insulin dependent diabetes Miletus.
36. Janevi is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. The
nurse is satisfied with her performance when
she:
a. Draw insulin from the vial of clear
insulin first
b. Draw insulin from the vial of the
intermediate acting insulin first
c. Fill both syringes with the prescribed
insulin dosage then shake the bottle
vigorously
d. Withdraw the intermediate acting
insulin first before withdrawing the short acting insulin first
a. Draw insulin from the vial of clear
insulin first
acting insulin first
37
37. Janevi complains of nausea, vomiting,
diaphoresis and headache. Which of the
following nursing intervention are you going to
carry out first?
a. Withhold the client’s next insulin
injection
b. Test the client’s blood glucose level
c. Administer Tylenol as ordered
d. Offer fruit juice, gelatine and chicken
bouillon
b. Test the client’s blood glucose level
38
38. Janevi administered regular insulin at 7 A.M and
the nurse should instruct Jane to avoid
exercising at around:
a. 9 to 11 A.M
b. Between 8 A.M to 9 A.M
c. After 8 hours
d. In the afternoon, after taking lunch
a. 9 to 11 A.M
39
39. Janevi was brought at the emergency room after
four month because she fainted in her clinic. The
nurse should monitor which of the following test
to evaluate the overall therapeutic compliance
of a diabetic patient?
a. Glycosylated hemoglobin
b. Ketone levels
c. Fasting blood glucose
d. Urine glucose level
a. Glycosylated hemoglobin
40
40. Upon the assessment of Hba1c of Mrs. Segovia,
The nurse has been informed of a 9% Hba1c
result. In this case, she will teach the patient to:
a. Avoid infection
b. Prevent and recognize hyperglycaemia
c. Take adequate food and nutrition
d. Prevent and recognize hypoglycaemia
b. Prevent and recognize hyperglycaemia
41
41. The nurse is teaching plan of care for Jane with
regards to proper foot care. Which of the
following should be included in the plan?
a. Soak feet in hot water
b. Avoid using mild soap on the feet
c. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet
but not between the toes
d. Always have a podiatrist to cut your toe
nails; never cut them yourself
c. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet
but not between the toes
42
42. Another patient was brought to the emergency
room in an unresponsive state and a diagnosis of
hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar nonketotic
syndrome is made. The nurse immediately
prepares to initiate which of the following
anticipated physician’s order?
a. Endotracheal intubation
b. 100 unites of NPH insulin
c. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
d. Intravenous infusion of sodium
bicarbonate
43
43. Jane eventually developed DKA and is being
treated in the emergency room. Which finding
would the nurse expect to note as confirming
this diagnosis?
a. Comatose state
b. Decreased urine output
c. Increased respiration and an increase in
pH
d. Elevated blood glucose level and low
plasma bicarbonate level
d. Elevated blood glucose level and low
plasma bicarbonate level
44
44. The nurse teaches Jane to know the difference
between hypoglycaemia and ketoacidosis. Jane
demonstrates understanding of the teaching by
stating that glucose will be taken if which of the
following symptoms develops?
a. Polyuria
b. Shakiness
c. Blurred Vision
d. Fruity breath odour
b. Shakiness
45
45. Jane has been scheduled to have a FBS taken in
the morning. The nurse tells Jane not to eat or
drink after midnight. Prior to taking the blood
specimen, the nurse noticed that Jane is holding
a bottle of distilled water. The nurse asked Jane
if she drink any, and she said “yes.” Which of the
following is the best nursing action?
a. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove
the distilled water from the stomach
b. Suction the stomach content using NGT
prior to specimen collection
c. Advice to physician to reschedule to
diagnostic examination next day
d. Continue as usual and have the FBS
analysis performed and specimen be
taken
d. Continue as usual and have the FBS
analysis performed and specimen be
taken
46
Situation: Elderly clients usually produce unusual signs
when it comes to different diseases. The ageing process
is a complicated process and the nurse should
understand that it is an inevitable fact and she must be
prepared to care for the growing elderly population.
46. Hypoxia may occur in the older patients because of which of the following physiologic changes
associated with aging.
a. Ineffective airway clearance
b. Decreased alveolar surfaced area
c. Decreased anterior-posterior chest
diameter
d. Hyperventilation
c. Decreased anterior-posterior chest
diameter
47
47. The older patient is at higher risk for
incontinence because of:
a. Dilated urethra
b. Increased glomerular filtration rate
c. Diuretic use
d. Decreased bladder capacity
d. Decreased bladder capacity
48
48. Merle, age 86, is complaining of dizziness when
she stands up. This may indicate:
a. Dementia
b. Functional decline
c. A visual problem
d. Drug toxicity
b. Functional decline
49
49. Cardiac ischemia in an older patient usually
produces:
a. ST-T wave changes
b. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
c. Very high creatinine kinase level
d. Acute confusion
d. Acute confusion
50
50. The most dependable sign of infection in the
older patient is:
a. Change in mental status
b. Fever
c. Pain
d. Decreased breath sounds with crackles
a. Change in mental status
51
Situation – In the OR, there are safety protocols that
should be followed. The OR nurse should be well versed
with all these to safeguard the safety and quality of
patient delivery outcome.
51. Which of the following should be given highest
priority when receiving patient in the OR?
a. Assess level of consciousness
b. Verify patient identification and
informed consent
c. Assess vital signs
d. Check for jewelry, gown, manicure, and
dentures
b. Verify patient identification and
informed consent
52
52. Surgeries like I and D (incision and drainage) and
debridement are relatively short procedures but
considered ‘dirty cases’. When are these procedures best scheduled?
a. Last case
b. In between cases
c. According to availability of
anaesthesiologist
d. According to the surgeon’s preference
a. Last case
53
53. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining the
client’s safety is the overall goal of nursing care
during the intraoperative phase. As the
circulating nurse, you make certain that
throughout the procedure…
a. the surgeon greets his client before
induction of anesthesia
b. the surgeon and anesthesiologist are in
tandem
c. strap made of strong non-abrasive
materials are fastened securely around
the joints of the knees and ankles and
around the 2 hands around an arm
board.
d. Client is monitored throughout the
surgery by the assistant anesthesiologist
c. strap made of strong non-abrasive
materials are fastened securely around
the joints of the knees and ankles and
around the 2 hands around an arm
board.
54
54. Another nursing check that should not be missed
before the induction of general anesthesia is:
a. check for presence underwear
b. check for presence dentures
c. check patient’s ID
d. check baseline vital signs
d. check baseline vital signs
55
55. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect
postoperative respiratory function. If your client
smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past
10 years, you will anticipate increased risk for:
a. perioperative anxiety and stress
b. delayed coagulation time
c. delayed wound healing
d. postoperative respiratory infection
d. postoperative respiratory infection
56
Situation: Sterilization is the process of removing ALL
living microorganism. To be free of ALL living
microorganism is sterility.
56. There are 3 general types of sterilization use in
the hospital, which one is not included?
a. Steam sterilization
b. Physical sterilization
c. Chemical sterilization
d. Sterilization by boiling
d. Sterilization by boiling
57
57. Autoclave or steam under pressure is the most
common method of sterilization in the hospital. The nurse knows that the temperature and time is set to the optimum level to destroy not only
the microorganism, but also the spores. Which
of the following is the ideal setting of the
autoclave machine?
a. 10,000 degree Celsius for 1 hour
b. 5,000 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
c. 37 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
d. 121 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
d. 121 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
58
58. It is important that before a nurse prepares the
material to be sterilized, a chemical indicator
strip should be placed above the package,
preferably, Muslin sheet. What is the color of
the striped produced after autoclaving?
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Gray
d. Purple
a. Black
59
59. Chemical indicators communicate that:
a. The items are sterile
b. That the items had undergone
sterilization process but not necessarily
sterile
c. The items are disinfected
d. That the items had undergone
disinfection process but not necessarily
disinfected
b. That the items had undergone
sterilization process but not necessarily
sterile
60
60. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture labile
instruments, It is according to AORN
recommendation to use which of the following
method of sterilization?
a. Ethylene oxide gas
b. Autoclaving
c. Flash sterilizer
d. Alcohol immersion
a. Ethylene oxide gas
61
Situation 5 – Nurses hold a variety of roles when
providing care to a perioperative patient.
61. Which of the following role would be the
responsibility of the scrub nurse?
a. Assess the readiness of the client prior
to surgery
b. Ensure that the airway is adequate
c. Account for the number of sponges,
needles, supplies, used during the
surgical procedure.
d. Evaluate the type of anesthesia
appropriate for the surgical clientSituation 5 – Nurses hold a variety of roles when
providing care to a perioperative patient.
61. Which of the following role would be the
responsibility of the scrub nurse?
a. Assess the readiness of the client prior
to surgery
b. Ensure that the airway is adequate
c. Account for the number of sponges,
needles, supplies, used during the
surgical procedure.
d. Evaluate the type of anesthesia
appropriate for the surgical client
c. Account for the number of sponges,
needles, supplies, used during the
surgical procedure.
62
62. As a perioperative nurse, how can you best meet
the safety need of the client after administering
preoperative narcotic?
a. Put side rails up and ask the client not
to get out of bed
b. Send the client to OR with the family
c. Allow client to get up to go to the
comfort room
d. Obtain consent form
a. Put side rails up and ask the client not
to get out of bed
63
63. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to do
skin prep for patients undergoing surgery. If hair
at the operative site is not shaved, what should
be done to make suturing easy and lessen
chance of incision infection?
a. Draped
b. Pulled
c. Clipped
d. Shampooed
c. Clipped
64
64. It is also the nurse’s function to determine when
infection is developing in the surgical incision.
The perioperative nurse should observe for what
signs of impending infection?
a. Localized heat and redness
b. Serosanguinous exudates and skin
blanching
c. Separation of the incision
d. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible
a. Localized heat and redness
65
65. Which of the following nursing interventions is
done when examining the incision wound and
changing the dressing?
a. Observe the dressing and type and odor
of drainage if any
b. Get patient’s consent
c. Wash hands
d. Request the client to expose the incision
wound
a. Observe the dressing and type and odor
of drainage if any
66
Situation – The preoperative nurse collaborates with the
client significant others, and healthcare providers.
66. To control environmental hazards in the OR, the
nurse collaborates with the following
departments EXCEPT:
a. Biomedical division
b. Infection control committee
c. Chaplaincy services
d. Pathology department
c. Chaplaincy services
67
An air crash occurred near the hospital leading
to a surge of trauma patient. One of the last patients will need surgical amputation but there
are no sterile surgical equipments. In this case,
which of the following will the nurse expect?
a. Equipments needed for surgery need not
be sterilized if this is an emergency
necessitating life saving measures
b. Forwarding the trauma client to the
nearest hospital that has available sterile
equipments is appropriate
c. The nurse will need to sterilize the item
before using it to the client using the
regular sterilization setting at 121
degree Celsius in 15 minutes
d. In such cases, flash sterlizer will be use
at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes
d. In such cases, flash sterlizer will be use
at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes
68
68. Tess, the PACU nurse, discovered that Malou,
who weighs 110 lbs prior to surgery, is in severe
pain 3 hrs after cholecystectomy. Upon checking
the chart, Malou found out that she has an order
of Demerol 100 mg I.M. prn for pain. Tess should
verify the order with:
a. Nurse Supervisor
b. Surgeon
c. Anesthesiologist
d. Intern on duty
b. Surgeon
69
69. Rosie, 57, who is diabetic is for debridement if
incision wound. When the circulating nurse
checked the present IV fluid, she found out that
there is no insulin incorporated as ordered.
What should the circulating nurse do?
a. Double check the doctor’s order and
call the attending MD
b. Communicate with the ward nurse to
verify if insulin was incorporated or not
c. Communicate with the client to verify if
insulin was incorporated
d. Incorporate insulin as ordered.
a. Double check the doctor’s order and
call the attending MD
70
70. The documentation of all nursing activities
performed is legally and professionally vital.
Which of the following should NOT be included
in the patient’s chart?
a. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as
dentures, artificial limbs hearing aid, etc.
b. Baseline physical, emotional, and
psychosocial data
c. Arguments between nurses and
residents regarding treatments
d. Observed untoward signs and symptoms
and interventions including contaminant
intervening factors
c. Arguments between nurses and
residents regarding treatments
71
Situation – Team efforts is best demonstrated in the OR.
71. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling
surgical cases, what important information do
you need to ask the surgeon?
a. Who is your internist
b. Who is your assistant and
anaesthesiologist, and what is your
preferred time and type of surgery?
c. Who are your anaesthesiologist,
internist, and assistant
d. Who is your anaesthesiologist
b. Who is your assistant and
anaesthesiologist, and what is your
preferred time and type of surgery?
72
In the OR, the nursing tandem for every surgery
is:
a. Instrument technician and circulating
nurse
b. Nurse anaesthetist, nurse assistant, and
instrument technician
c. Scrub nurse and nurse anaesthetist
d. Scrub and circulating nurses
d. Scrub and circulating nurses
73
73. While team effort is needed in the OR for
efficient and quality patient care delivery, we
should limit the number of people in the room
for infection control. Who comprise this team?
a. Surgeon, anaesthesiologist, scrub nurse,
radiologist, orderly
b. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse,
circulating nurse, anaesthesiologist
c. Surgeon, assistant surgeon,
anaesthesiologist, scrub nurse,
pathologist
d. Surgeon, assistant surgeon,
anaesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse
b. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse,
circulating nurse, anaesthesiologist
74
74. Who usually act as an important part of the OR
personnel by getting the wheelchair or stretcher,
and pushing/pulling them towards the operating
room?
a. Orderly/clerk
b. Nurse Supervisor
c. Circulating Nurse
d. Anaesthesiologist
a. Orderly/clerk
75
75. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a
failure in:
a. Electricity
b. Inadequate supply
c. Leg work
d. Communication
d. Communication
76
Situation: Basic knowledge on Intravenous solutions is
necessary for care of clients with problems with fluids
and electrolytes.
76. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash
presents to the emergency department with
severe internal bleeding. The client is severely
hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse
anticipates which of the following intravenous
solutions will most likely be prescribed to
increase intravascular volume, replace
immediate blood loss and increase blood
pressure?
a. 0.45% sodium chloride
b. 0.33% sodium chloride
c. Normal saline solution
d. Lactated ringer’s solution
d. Lactated ringer’s solution
77
77. The physician orders the nurse to prepare an
isotonic solution. Which of the following IV
solution would the nurse expect the intern to
prescribe?
a. 5% dextrose in water
b. 0.45% sodium chloride
c. 10% dextrose in water
d. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
a. 5% dextrose in water
78
80. One patient had a ‘runaway’ IV of 50% dextrose.
To prevent temporary excess of insulin or
transient hyperinsulin reaction what solution
you prepare in anticipation of the doctor’s order?
a. Any IV solution available to KVO
b. Isotonic solution
c. Hypertonic solution
d. Hypotonic solution
c. Hypertonic solution
79
78. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing
unit to assess the condition of assigned clients.
The nurse notes that the client’s IV Site is cool,
pale and swollen and the solution is not infusing.
The nurse concludes that which of the following
complications has been experienced by the
client?
a. Infection
b. Phlebitis
c. Infiltration
d. Thrombophelibitis
c. Infiltration
80
79. A nurse reviews the client’s electrolyte
laboratory report and notes that the potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would
the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a
result of the laboratory value?
a. U waves
b. Absend P waves
c. Elevated T waves
d. Elevated ST segment
a. U waves
81
An informed consent is required for:
a. closed reduction of a fracture
b. irrigation of the external ear canal
c. insertion of intravenous catheter
d. urethral catheterization
a. closed reduction of a fracture
82
82. Which of the following is not true with regards
to the informed consent?
a. It should describe different treatment
alternatives
b. It should contain a thorough and
detailed explanation of the procedure
to be done
c. It should describe the client’s diagnosis
d. It should give an explanation of the
client’s prognosis
b. It should contain a thorough and
detailed explanation of the procedure
to be done
83
83. You know that the hallmark of nursing
accountability is the:
a. accurate documentation and reporting
b. admitting your mistakes
c. filing an incidence report
d. reporting a medication error
a. accurate documentation and reporting
84
84. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients.
On review of the client’s medical records, the
nurse determines that which client is at risk for
excess fluid volume?
a. The client taking diuretics
b. The client with renal failure
c. The client with an ileostomy
d. The client who requires gastrointestinal
suctioning
b. The client with renal failure
85
85. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients.
On review of the client’s medical records, the
nurse determines that which client is at risk for
deficient fluid volume?
a. A client with colostomy
b. A client with congestive heart failure
c. A client with decreased kidney function
d. A client receiving frequent wound
irrigation
a. A client with colostomy
86
Before you use a disinfected instrument it is
essential that you:
a. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol
b. Wrap the instrument with sterile water
c. Dry the instrument thoroughly
d. Rinse with sterile water
d. Rinse with sterile water
87
Situation: As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the
correct processing methods for preparing instruments
and other devices for patient use to prevent infection.
86. As an OR nurse, what are your foremost
considerations for selecting chemical agents for
disinfection?
a. Material compatibility and efficiency
b. Odor and availability
c. Cost and duration of disinfection process
d. Duration of disinfection and efficiency
a. Material compatibility and efficiency
88
88. You have a critical heat labile instrument to
sterilize and are considering to use high level
disinfectant. What should you do?
a. Cover the soaking vessel to contain the
vapor
b. Double the amount of high level
disinfectant
c. Test the potency of the high level
disinfectant
d. Prolong the exposure time according to
manufacturer’s direction
d. Prolong the exposure time according to
manufacturer’s direction
89
89. To achieve sterilization using disinfectants,
which of the following is used?
a. Low level disinfectants immersion in 24
hours
b. Intermediate level disinfectants
immersion in 12 hours
c. High level disinfectants immersion in 1
hour
d. High level disinfectant immersion in 10
hours
d. High level disinfectant immersion in 10
hours
90
90. Bronchoscope, Thermometer, Endoscope, ET
tube, Cytoscope are all BEST sterilized using
which of the following?
a. Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15
minutes
b. Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3
minutes
c. Ethylene Oxide gas aeration for 20 hours
d. 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10
hours
d. 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10
hours
91
Situation: The OR is divided into three zones to control
traffic flow and contamination What OR attires are worn in the restricted area?
a. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
b. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
c. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
d. Cap, mask, gloves, shoes
b. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
92
92. Nursing intervention for a patient on low dose IV
insulin therapy includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor
ketosis
b. Vital signs including BP
c. Estimate serum potassium
d. Elevation of blood glucose levels
a. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor
ketosis
93
The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000”u”
insulin to the remaining on-going IV. The
strength is 500 /ml. How much should you
incorporate into the IV solution?
a. 10 ml
b. 0.5 ml
c. 2 ml
d. 5 ml
C. 2 ml
94
94. Multiple vial-dose-insulin when in use should be
a. Kept at room temperature
b. Kept in narcotic cabinet
c. Kept in the refrigerator
d. Store in the freezer
c. Kept in the refrigerator
95
95. Insulins using insulin syringe are given using how
many degrees of needle insertion?
a. 45
b. 180
c. 90
d. 15
c. 90
96
Situation: Maintenance of sterility is an important
function a nurse should perform in any OR setting.
96. Which of the following is true with regards to
sterility?
a. Sterility is time related, items are not
considered sterile after a period of 30
days of being not use.
b. for 9 months, sterile items are
considered sterile as long as they are
covered with sterile muslin cover and
stored in a dust proof covers.
c. Sterility is event related, not time
related
d. For 3 weeks, items double covered with
muslin are considered sterile as long as
they have undergone the sterilization
c. Sterility is event related, not time
related
97
97. 2 organizations endorsed that sterility are
affected by factors other than the time itself,
these are:
a. The PNA and the PRC
b. AORN and JCAHO
c. ORNAP and MCNAP
d. MMDA and DILG
b. AORN and JCAHO
98
98. All of these factors affect the sterility of the OR
equipments, these are the following except:
a. The material used for packaging
b. The handling of the materials as well as
its transport
c. Storage
d. The chemical or process used in
sterililzing the material
d. The chemical or process used in
sterililzing the material
99
99. When you say sterile, it means:
a. The material is clean
b. The material as well as the equipments
are sterilized and had undergone a
rigorous sterilization process
c. There is a black stripe on the paper
indicator
d. The material has no microorganism nor
spores present that might cause an
infection
d. The material has no microorganism nor
spores present that might cause an
infection
100
100. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave
machine, which of the following is true?
a. Autoclave is better in sterilizing OR
supplies versus liquid sterilizer
b. They are both capable of sterilizing the
equipments, however, it is necessary to
soak supplies in the liquid sterilizer for
a longer period of time
c. Sharps are sterilized using autoclave and
not cidex
d. If liquid sterilizer is used, rinsing it
before using is not necessary
b. They are both capable of sterilizing the
equipments, however, it is necessary to
soak supplies in the liquid sterilizer for
a longer period of time
