Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NEUROLOGIC AND SPECIAL CONDITIONS > NPT1 > Flashcards

NPT1 Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What type of blood vessel is affected in subdural hemorrhage?

A

Venous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of blood vessel is affected is epidural hemorrhage?

A

Arterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of hemorrhage presents slower because of the capacitance vessels which push blood only through blood volume?

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of hemorrhage presents faster because of the vessels which push blood through high pressure?

A

Epidural Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACA stroke affects upper extremities and face (True or False)

A

False (MCA affects upper extremities and face; ACA only affects UE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

C8 dermatome key point

A

Pinky finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T1 dermatome key point

A

Medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

C7 dermatome key point

A

Middle finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T2 dermatome key point

A

Anterior fold of axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C5 dermatome key point

A

Lateral epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

C6 dermatome key point

A

Thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

Spinal cord level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the normal chest expansion measurement?

A

1 to 3 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does it take for a nerve to regenerate?

A

1mm/day or 1in/month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What receptor is affected in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Postsynaptic acetylcholine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which quadrant/s of the face does a supranuclear (Stroke) lesion of the CN7 affect?

A

Contralateral lower quadrant of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which lobe of the cerebellum is responsible for coordination and fine motor movements?

A

Posterior lobe of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which lobe of the cerebellum is responsible for muscle tone and posture?

A

Anterior lobe of the cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which lobe of the cerebellum is responsible for balance and equilibrium?

A

Flocculomodular lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is increased BP (sympathetic or parasympathetic)?

A

Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is a flushed face (sympathetic or parasympathetic)?

A

Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is pupillary constriction (sympathetic or parasympathetic)?

A

Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where does parasympathetic exit?

A

Craniosacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where does sympathetic exit?

A

Thoracolumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the effect of anti-histamine meds to the blood vessels?
Vasoconstriction
26
Which branch of the median nerve exits before going through the carpal tunnel?
Palmar cutaneous sensory branch
27
Where is atrophy faster to develop (UE or LE)?
LE
28
What special test may be used for Pronator Teres impingement of median nerve?
Pinch grip test
29
What neurologic condition have both UMNL and LMNL signs?
ALS
30
What descending tracts are affected in an upper motor neuron lesion?
Corticospinal tract or Pyramidal tract
31
What is the most common feature of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
Asymmetric ptosis
32
What is the cause of death in pt's with ALS?
Respiratory failure
33
What is the histopathology seen in pt's with ALS?
Bunina bodies
34
What is the usual presentation of ALS?
Focal asymmetric weakness
35
(+) Pathologic reflexes is indicative of what motor neuron disorder?
UMNL
36
What is the UMNL variant of ALS?
Primary Lateral Sclerosis
37
What blocks the presynaptic ACh release?
Botulinum toxin
38
What meds for MG is an AChE inhibitor that prevent hydrolysis of ACh?
Pyridostigmine
39
What is the LMNL variant of ALS?
Progressive Muscular Atrophy
40
What is the accumulation of Ca in presynaptic terminal which triggers ACh release?
LEMS
41
What has an increased ACh release with fast frequency repeated simulation?
Botulinum
42
What has limb/girdle pattern of weakness?
Myasthenia Gravis
43
True or False The ff are in sequence of increasing autonomic dysfunction: Myasthenia Gravis, LEMS, Botulinum Toxicity
True
44
What is the main site of protein synthesis in the neuronal cytoplasm?
Nissl bodies
45
What is the anterograde degeneration distal to site of injury?
Wallerian degeneration
46
What is the leading cause of neuropathy in 3rd world countries?
Leprosy
47
What is the leading cause of neuropathy in 1st world countries?
Diabetes Mellitus
48
In an EMG & CS, what has normal amplitude and slow speed (loss of myelin sheath)?
Demyelinating conditions
49
In an EMG & CS, what has low amplitude and normal speed (intact myelin sheath)?
Axonal loss
50
What is the resting membrane potential of an axon?
-70mv
51
What is the most common infectious agent in GBS?
Campylobacter jejuni
52
What is the Charcot's neurologic triad (seen in pt's with late MS; cerebellar sx)
Ataxia, dysarthria and tremors
53
What is the most common classification of MS (85%)?
Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)
54
What are the 4 classifications of MS? (in decreasing disability)
PRMS, SPMS, PPMS, RRMS
55
What is the imaging procedure of choice for MS?
Brain MRI
56
What is the surgical procedure of choice for PD?
Deep brain stimulation
57
What is the gold standard pharmacologic treatment for PD?
Levodopa/Carbidopa
58
Where are the initial sites of tangle deposition and atrophy in AD?
Hippocampus and medial temporal lobe
59
What findings can be seen in lumbar puncture in pt's with AD?
Elevated levels of tau and phosphorylated tau and low amyloid levels in the CSF
60
Which spinal segments does the patellar reflex check?
L2-L4
61
The common peroneal nerve can be tested with which SLR test?
SLR4
62
What is true of Amytrophic lateral sclerosis ALS affectation?
It typically will eventually involve the brainstem, lateral corticospinal tract and anterior horn cell pathology
63
What is the most common side-effect of prolonged intake of Levodopa?
Movement disorders
64
The pathognomonic lesion of PD is the presence of
Lewy bodies
65
A simple testing for screening dementia is the __?
MMSE
66
The neurotransmitter that is most commonly targeted by medications for Alzheimer's Disease AD?
Acetylcholine
67
Biceps reflex and Brachioradialis reflex checks which spinal segment?
C5-C6
68
Achilles tendon reflex checks which spinal segments?
S1-S2
69
Anterior cord syndrome presents with?
Affected pain and temp and motor loss | Intact proprioception
70
Brown sequard syndrome presents with?
Affected contralateral proprioception | Ipsilateral pain and temp loss
71
Root of Cranial VII Mnemonics
Sharon Cuneta Says Gabby Is Panget Stylomastoid foramen, Chorda tympani, Stapedius mm, Geniculate ganglion, IAM, Pons

NEUROLOGIC AND SPECIAL CONDITIONS (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions