NREMT Flashcards
(512 cards)
1
Q
Which early provider of emergency medical care went on to help establish the
American Red Cross?
A
Clara Barton
2
Q
Which department was charged in 1966 with developing EMS standards and
systems?
A
Department of Transportation
3
Q
Which is NOT considered a main component of the EMS system?
A. Emergency medical dispatchers
B. EMT instructors
C. Specialty care facilities
D. 911 access
A
B. EMT instructors
4
Q
Which type of medical oversight involves a physician providing real-time orders
by radio/phone?
A
Online medical direction
5
Q
When should an EMT gather more information before making a treatment
decision?
A
When adequate information is lacking
6
Q
Which is NOT a role or responsibility of the EMT?
A. Driving the ambulance
B. Advocating for the patient
C. Leaving the scene before law enforcement
D. Assessing and treating patients
A
C. Leaving the scene before law enforcement
7
Q
Which is NOT considered a desirable personal trait for EMTs?
A. Compassion
B. Impatience
C. Cooperation
D. Dependability
A
B. Impatience
8
Q
- Where are EMTs NOT likely to find employment?
A. Hospital emergency department
B. Medical examiner’s office
C. Private ambulance service
D. City fire department
A
B. Medical examiner’s office
9
Q
What does registration with the National Registry of EMTs help demonstrate?
A
Successful course completion
10
Q
Which is NOT typically part of an EMT’s role in quality improvement?
A. Giving feedback on partner EMTs
B. Maintaining equipment
C. Continuing education
D. Documentation
A
A. Giving feedback on partner EMTs
11
Q
Who is ultimately responsible for all patient care provided by EMTs?
A
A. EMS medical director
12
Q
- Which is NOT typically a public health role for EMS?
A. Injury prevention programs
B. Treating chronic illnesses
C. Immunization clinics
D. Disease tracking
A
B. Treating chronic illnesses
13
Q
What is the first step of the evidence-based research process?
A
Forming a hypothesis
14
Q
What did the National EMS Systems Act accomplish?
A
Established standards for EMS systems
15
Q
When should an EMT ask for medical direction input on patient care?
A
At his or her discretion
16
Q
the main organization providing guidelines on protecting EMS providers
from disease exposure?
A
OSHA
17
Q
Which type of mask should be worn when suctioning a patient?
A
Surgical mask
18
Q
Which law allows EMS providers to find out if they were exposed to life-
threatening diseases on the job?
A
Ryan White Act
19
Q
Which is NOT typically a source of stress for EMS providers?
A. Infant death
B. Financial problems
C. Severe injuries
D. Routine transfers
A
D. Routine transfers
20
Q
Which is the first stage in dealing with death and dying?
A
Denial
21
Q
Which should you do if your EMS partner is showing signs of cumulative stress?
A
Talk to them privately
22
Q
When approaching a potential crime scene, EMS providers should:
A
Survey the scene before entering
23
Q
Which type of infectious disease is spread through the air?
A. Hepatitis
B. HIV
C. Ebola
D. Tuberculosis
A
D. Tuberculosis
24
Q
After providing care, EMS providers should
A
Wash hands with sanitizer
25
Which PPE is required for all patient contacts?
Gloves
26
Which is NOT a way for EMS providers to maintain well-being?
A. Adequate sleep
B. Regular medical visits
C. Heavy alcohol use
D. Proper nutrition
C. Heavy alcohol use
27
Which technique can help “defuse” stress after a critical incident?
A. EMDR
B. Self-talk
C. Critical incident stress debriefing
D. Aromatherapy
C. Critical incident stress debriefing
28
Sudden onset of stress symptoms after a call indicates which type of stress
reaction?
Acute
29
Which agency provides free hepatitis B vaccines to EMS providers?
Employer/EMS agency
30
You arrive on scene to a combative patient. You should FIRST:
Leave and stage nearby
31
You arrive on scene to find a patient who has fallen from a ladder while working
on his roof. He is conscious and alert but complains of back pain. Which of the
following should you do first?
Manually stabilize the spine and assess vital signs.
32
While transporting an obese patient downstairs, what device would be best
suited to prevent injury to the healthcare providers?
Stair chair
33
You’re at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. A patient is in critical condition
with major bleeding and the car is smoking. What type of patient move is most
appropriate?
Clothes drag
34
You’re called to assist a patient found lying supine on their bathroom floor. There
are no indications of trauma and the patient is alert. What is the most
appropriate lifting technique?
Extremity lift
35
During a marathon event, you come across a runner who has collapsed and is
unconscious. There is no indication of trauma. What position should the patient
be placed in for transport?
Left lateral recumbent
36
You’re lifting a heavy patient from the ground. Your partner is opposite to you.
Which of the following is most important?
a. A) Quick lifting to save time
b. B) Clear communication for coordinated lifting
c. C) Lifting with your back to generate the most force
d. D) Shifting the patient’s weight to your partner
B) Clear communication for coordinated lifting
37
When moving a patient who has a suspected spinal injury from a car accident,
which of the following devices would be the best choice?
a. A) A standard stretcher
b. B) A scoop stretcher
c. C) A spine board
d. D) A stair chair
C) A spine board
38
In which of the following scenarios would it NOT be appropriate to use the draw
sheet method?
a. A) A patient experiencing a stroke
b. B) A trauma patient with suspected spinal injury
c. C) A patient who has fainted
d. D) An elderly patient who has fallen but is not injured
B) A trauma patient with suspected spinal injury
39
When transferring a patient to a hospital stretcher, which is the most appropriate
technique to use?
B) The draw sheet method
40
Your patient has a known history of back problems and has just been involved in
a minor car accident. The patient is alert and denies any numbness or tingling in
his extremities. What should you do before moving this patient?
Manually stabilize the spine
41
You arrive at a scene where a 24-year-old female patient is alert and oriented but
has a broken arm from a fall. She refuses transport to the hospital. What should
you do?
Inform her of the risks of refusing care, attempt to consult medical
42
You are called to the scene of a motor vehicle accident. The driver is
unconscious. Under which of the following principles can you initiate care?
Implied consent
43
You have been called to a residential address for a patient who is experiencing
chest pain. As you begin to treat the patient, he suddenly says he doesn’t want to
go to the hospital. He is alert and oriented. What is the most appropriate next
step?
Persuade him to accept treatment by explaining the potential
consequences.
44
A bystander helps at a scene and later faces legal consequences. Which of the
following might be a reason for not being protected under Good Samaritan laws?
A) He was acting outside his skill level.
B) He stopped helping once EMS arrived.
C) He provided his name to law enforcement.
D) He helped without expecting compensation.
A) He was acting outside his skill level.
45
You’re off-duty and witness a car accident with injuries. Which of the following
statements best describes your legal obligation to act?
A) You are required to act.
B) You are not required but morally obligated.
C) You are not required to act if you are off-duty.
D) You are required to act only if a minor is involved.
C) You are not required to act if you are off-duty.
46
6. Which of the following scenarios is an example of abandonment?
A) Leaving a patient after their condition improves.
B) Transferring care to a nurse in the emergency department.
C) Leaving the scene because your shift ended.
D) Discontinuing care before another healthcare provider of equal or
higher level of training takes over.
D) Discontinuing care before another healthcare provider of equal or
higher level of training takes over.
47
If a patient’s injuries were worsened because an EMT failed to immobilize a
suspected spinal injury, this would likely be an example of:
Negligence
48
Which of the following situations would require an EMT to breach patient
confidentiality?
A) A news reporter asking about the condition of a patient involved in a
high-profile accident.
B) Treating a minor without a guardian present.
C) A court order requiring disclosure of medical records.
D) Discussing the case with a family member asking for information
C) A court order requiring disclosure of medical records.
49
An EMT could potentially be charged with assault and battery in which of these
situations?
A) The EMT restrains a patient to keep them from harming themselves or
others.
B) The EMT administers a medication that the patient is allergic to,
despite the patient disclosing the allergy.
C) The EMT performs CPR on an unconscious patient who has a valid
DNR.
D) The EMT splints a broken bone to immobilize it.
B) The EMT administers a medication that the patient is allergic to,
despite the patient disclosing the allergy.
50
10. Which of the following constitutes the best practice in terms of ethics for an
EMT?
A) Treating all patients to the best of your ability, regardless of their social,
economic, or cultural background.
B) Providing slightly better care for critically injured patients.
C) Sharing interesting cases with friends, while not disclosing names.
D) Withholding potentially painful treatments if the patient is unconscious.
A) Treating all patients to the best of your ability, regardless of their social,
economic, or cultural background.
51
What does the root therm mean?
Heat
52
What does dyspnea mean?
Difficult breathing
53
What is the full form of the acronym CPAP?
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
54
What does the suffix -itis signify?
Inflammation
55
When should you avoid using medical terminology?
When speaking to patients
56
What does anatomy study?
Body structures
57
If something is proximal it is:
Closer to the torso
58
What position is preferred for unconscious nontrauma patients?
Recovery
59
What does the term bilateral mean?
On both sides
60
What does the term LUQ stand for?
Left Upper Quadrant
61
What does the term medial mean?
Closer to the midline
62
In what position is the patient seated straight up?
Fowler
63
What does physiology study?
Body function
64
Which term refers to the sole of the foot?
Plantar
65
In what quadrant is the liver mainly located?
RUQ
66
What are the three main functions of the Musculoskeletal System?
Shape, Protection, Movement
67
What encases the spinal cord?
Spinal Column
68
Which system is responsible for hormonal regulation?
Endocrine System
69
What is the active process of breathing called?
Inhalation
70
Where does the exchange of gases between cells and the bloodstream occur?
Respiration
71
Which of the following arteries is NOT a central pulse?
● A. Carotid
● B. Femoral
● C. Radial
● D. Aorta
● C. Radial
72
What is hypoperfusion commonly known as?
Shock
73
Which type of muscle is voluntary?
Skeletal
74
How many vertebrae are in the spinal column?
33
75
Which system is primarily responsible for protection, water balance, and temperature
regulation?
Integumentary System
76
What is the correct order for the divisions of the spine from top to bottom?
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal
77
Which part of the pelvis is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
Acetabulum
78
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Covering the glottis during swallowing
79
Which organ is not protected by the thoracic cavity?
Liver
80
What is the main component of plasma?
Water
81
What is the primary aim of pathophysiology?
Understanding disease processes
82
Which feedback mechanism is generally used to maintain homeostasis?
Negative feedback
83
What is the term for a group of signs and symptoms that occur together and
characterize a particular abnormality?
Syndrome
84
What type of disease has a rapid onset and a short duration?
Acute
85
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of acute inflammation?
○ A) Pain
○ B) Cold
○ C) Redness
○ D) Swelling
Cold
86
In terms of cellular adaptation, what is hypertrophy?
Increase in cell size
87
What does etiology refer to?
Cause of a disease
88
Which of the following diseases is considered chronic?
○ A) Common cold
○ B) Diabetes
○ C) Influenza
○ D) Food poisoning
○ B) Diabetes
89
What is the initial physiological response to tissue injury?
Acute inflammation
90
Which type of cellular change involves an increase in cell number?
Hyperplasia
91
What role do white blood cells play in inflammation?
They initiate the healing process
92
What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
Hypoxia
93
What does homeostasis involve?
Maintaining a stable internal environment
94
What type of feedback enhances or amplifies changes?
Positive feedback
95
Which of the following best defines pathology?
Study of the nature and cause of disease
96
What is the average weight of a newborn?
3.0–3.5 kilograms
97
At what age does the anterior fontanelle generally close?
9–18 months
98
Which reflex helps an infant to find food?
Rooting reflex
99
Which of the following age groups is most susceptible to illness due to an
underdeveloped immune system?
○ A. Adolescents
○ B. Toddlers
○ C. School Age
○ D. Late Adulthood
○ B. Toddlers
100
What is a major psychosocial milestone during the toddler phase?
Developing separation anxiety
101
At what stage does a child begin to understand that words have meaning?
Preschool Age
102
What is the typical temperature range for a toddler?
98.6°F–99.6°F
103
What physiologic change occurs in school-age children?
Shedding of primary teeth
104
During which stage of life does a rapid two- to three-year growth spurt occur?
Adolescence
105
Which age group faces psychosocial challenges related to job and family stress?
Early Adulthood
106
At what age group does weight control typically become an issue?
Middle Adulthood
107
Which of the following deteriorates in Late Adulthood?
○ A. Respiratory System
○ B. Endocrine System
○ C. Cardiovascular System
○ D. All of the above
○ D. All of the above
108
Who often faces challenges like self-worth, financial burdens, and issues related
to death and dying?
Late Adulthood
109
When do lifelong habits generally form?
Early Adulthood
110
What would indicate increased pressure inside an infant’s skull?
Bulging fontanelles without crying
111
What is the primary purpose of the larynx?
To protect the lower airway during swallowing.
112
When performing a jaw-thrust maneuver, it is important NOT to:
a. Use your fingers to push the angles of the lower jaw forward.
b. Keep the head, neck, and spine in alignment.
c. Tilt or rotate the head if a spinal injury is suspected.
d. Open the mouth to allow for air passage.
c. Tilt or rotate the head if a spinal injury is suspected.
113
The oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is contraindicated in patients who:
Have an intact gag reflex.
114
The nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is typically contraindicated in patients with:
A history of epistaxis.
115
Which of the following is NOT a sign of an inadequate airway?
a. Patient is speaking in full sentences without difficulty.
b. Absent or minimal chest movement.
c. Abnormal breathing noises like wheezing or stridor.
d. Presence of foreign bodies in the airway.
a. Patient is speaking in full sentences without difficulty.
116
When assessing a pediatric patient’s airway, it is important to remember that:
a. Their airway structures are more rigid than adults.
b. They rely less on the diaphragm for breathing.
c. The trachea is softer and more flexible, making it easily obstructed.
d. Their tongue is proportionally smaller than in adults.
The trachea is softer and more flexible, making it easily obstructed.
117
During suctioning, if you notice the patient’s heart rate is dropping, you should:
Stop suctioning and reoxygenate the patient.
118
An EMT should switch from the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver to the jaw-thrust
maneuver when
There is suspicion of spinal injury.
119
Abdominal thrusts in a conscious adult with a severe airway obstruction should
be directed:
Inward and upward.
120
The correct placement of an OPA is indicated by:
The flange resting against the patient’s lips.
121
The flange resting against the patient’s lips.
Align the airway structures for optimal airflow.
122
In cases of severe allergic reaction with airway compromise, the EMT should be
prepared to
Provide aggressive airway management.
123
A gurgling sound in the airway typically indicates
Fluids in the upper airway.
124
When managing the airway of a patient with significant facial trauma, the EMT
should be most concerned with
Suctioning and possible airway adjuncts.
125
The process by which air enters the lungs due to negative pressure is known as
Inhalation.
126
Which of the following would NOT typically cause a diffusion problem for gas
exchange in the alveoli?
a. a. High altitude.
b. b. A stab wound to the chest.
c. c. Fluid in the alveoli.
d. d. Alveolar damage due to smoking.
A stab wound to the chest.
127
A common cause of hypoxia that EMTs might encounter includes:
a. a. Patient in a well-ventilated area.
b. b. Patient trapped in a fire.
c. c. Patient who is hyperventilating.
d. d. Patient who has a rapid heart rate.
b. b. Patient trapped in a fire.
128
In cases of respiratory failure, the most immediate concern for the EMT is to:
Begin artificial ventilation.
129
When assessing a patient’s breathing, which of the following is considered a sign
of adequate breathing?
Typical skin coloration and equal chest expansion.
130
When providing PPV, the EMT should:
Ventilate at a rate that is appropriate for the patient’s age and condition
131
A patient with suspected spinal injury requires ventilation. The EMT should:
Maintain spinal precautions while ventilating.
132
A non-rebreather mask is used to deliver
High concentrations of oxygen.
133
A Venturi mask is particularly beneficial for patients with:
COPD.
134
Gastric distention during artificial ventilation can be minimized by:
Using appropriate ventilation volume.
135
. The correct rate of ventilation for an adult with a stoma who is not breathing is:
10–12 times per minute.
136
The EMT can assess the effectiveness of ventilations by observing:
The chest for rise and fall.
137
Oxygen toxicity is a risk when:
High-flow oxygen is administered for an extended duration.
138
When assisting a paramedic with intubation, the EMT’s role may include:
a. Inserting the endotracheal tube.
Providing BURP maneuver to improve visualization.
139
In patients with a history of COPD, oxygen therapy should be administered:
Carefully, to avoid depressing the hypoxic drive.
140
The primary goal of scene size-up is to
Ensure the safety of EMS crew, patient, and bystanders.
141
When establishing the danger zone at a vehicle collision with no apparent
hazards, it should be at least:
50 feet in all directions
142
The mechanism of injury in a motor-vehicle collision can help predict:
The type and extent of injuries.
143
When assessing the number of patients at a scene, it is important because
it determines:
The need for additional resources and personnel.
144
Standard Precautions are primarily intended to
Protect EMS crew from bloodborne pathogens.
145
During scene size-up, if you identify the smell of gasoline, your immediate
action should be to
Establish a larger danger zone and avoid creating sparks.
146
A deployed airbag in a vehicle after a collision suggests:
The patient may have neck or facial injuries.
147
In a shooting incident at a fast-food restaurant, upon arrival, your first
action should be to
Wait for law enforcement to secure the scene.
148
The reason for identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness
during scene size-up is to:
Prepare the EMS crew for the types of injuries or conditions they will
encounter.
149
In a rear-end motor vehicle collision, you should be alert for
Potential spinal injuries due to the mechanism of injury.
150
The presence of loud voices or fighting at an emergency scene indicates:
The potential for violence requiring scene safety assessment.
151
Which of the following best describes the rationale for maintaining index
of suspicion based on mechanism of injury?
To anticipate possible injuries and prepare for patient care.
152
When considering the nature of the patient’s illness, information can be
gathered from
Family members, bystanders, and the scene.
153
The ‘up-and-over’ injury pattern is associated with
Head-on collisions.
154
A fall from a height is more serious and has a higher index of suspicion for
serious injury if:
The patient is an adult who fell more than 10 feet.
155
When performing a primary assessment, your first step should be to:
Check for responsiveness.
156
If a patient is making gurgling sounds, this indicates that:
The patient requires immediate suctioning.
157
During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by all the following
except:
Taking a blood pressure reading.
158
An EMT should begin spinal motion restriction (SMR) when:
There is a suspicion of spinal injury based on the mechanism of injury.
159
The ‘Look Test’ is used to:
Get a general sense of the patient’s overall condition at first glance.
160
The AVPU scale is used to assess:
Patient’s level of responsiveness.
161
Which of the following is not a component of forming a general impression?
Patient’s past medical history.
162
What does C-A-B stand for in the context of primary assessment?
Circulation, Airway, Breathing.
163
A patient who is alert and talking clearly has:
An open and clear airway.
164
A patient with pale, clammy skin is most likely experiencing:
Shock.
165
The primary assessment should be reevaluated how often?
Continuously throughout patient care.
166
An unresponsive patient should be assessed first with:
A primary assessment focusing on C-A-B.
167
In the primary assessment, a patient’s priority for transport is determined by
The need for immediate life-saving interventions.
168
The mnemonic A-B-C is a guide to:
a. Ambulance operations.
b. Intervention priorities.
c. Assessment order.
d. Both b and c.
d. Both b and c.
169
A patient’s mental status is best assessed by
Using the AVPU scale.
170
What is the importance of obtaining baseline vital signs?
To provide a starting point for identifying trends in the patient’s condition.
171
If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, this would be
Indicative of hypertension.
172
Which of the following should be assessed when examining a patient’s pupils?
Size, equality, and reactivity to light.
173
When using a pulse oximeter, a reading of 92% could suggest:
The patient may be experiencing mild hypoxia.
174
Bradycardia in an adult is defined as a pulse rate:
Below 60 beats per minute.
175
What is the first step when measuring blood pressure by auscultation?
Palpate the brachial artery.
176
Skin that is cool, pale, and moist is indicative of
Possible shock.
177
A thready pulse most likely suggests:
Decreased stroke volume.
178
A patient with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is experiencing:
Tachypnea.
179
The term “capnography” refers to the monitoring of
Exhaled carbon dioxide levels.
180
What is the primary focus of the primary assessment?
Life-threatening conditions
181
Which technique is used to listen for abnormal sounds in the body during
physical examination?
Auscultation
182
In the SAMPLE history, what does the M stand for?
In the SAMPLE history, what does the M stand for?
183
What is the purpose of using the OPQRST mnemonic in patient assessment?
To assess the chief complaint in a structured manner
184
When assessing a child, it’s important to:
Tailor communication to be age-appropriate
185
Auscultation during a physical examination is crucial for assessing
Lung sounds
186
What does the ‘P’ in OPQRST stand for?
Provocation/Palliation
187
The assessment of which body system includes checking for jugular vein
distention?
Cardiovascular system
188
Which of the following is a component of the past medical history (PMH)?
Patient’s chronic illnesses
189
When palpating a patient’s abdomen during an assessment, you are checking
for:
Abdominal tenderness
190
In assessing a patient with a suspected stroke, which of the following would be
most relevant?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Glasgow Coma Scale
C. OPQRST mnemonic
D. SAMPLE history
Glasgow Coma Scale
191
What is the first step in the physical examination of a patient?
Observing the patient’s overall appearance
192
What is the primary purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale in neurological
assessment?
To determine the patient’s level of consciousness
193
During a patient assessment, the mnemonic SAMPLE is used primarily to:
Collect the patient’s medical history
194
Which technique should be used first when attempting to gain access to a
patient in a vehicle collision?
Checking if the door can be opened normally
195
What should you primarily focus on during the secondary assessment of a
responsive medical patient?
History of the present illness
196
During the secondary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient, you
should first:
Perform a rapid physical exam.
197
The DCAP-BTLS mnemonic is used to
Assess for potential trauma injuries
198
When assessing a pediatric patient, it is important to:
Communicate at an age-appropriate level.
199
The primary difference between a detailed physical exam and a rapid trauma
assessment is:
The depth of the assessment.
200
For a trauma patient with serious injuries, the EMT should
Perform a rapid trauma assessment first.
201
When performing a secondary assessment on a trauma patient, the EMT should
look for:
Deformities, contusions, and abrasions.
202
A 35-year-old male complains of chest pain. Your secondary assessment
should focus on:
The respiratory and cardiovascular systems.
203
What is the first step in the secondary assessment of a responsive medical
patient?
Obtaining a patient history.
204
When assessing an unresponsive medical patient, it is MOST important to:
Gather history from family or bystanders.
205
In pediatric patients, observing the respiratory system should focus on
Symmetry, bruising, and retractions.
206
When applying a cervical collar to a trauma patient, you should:
Size the collar before application.
207
The secondary assessment of a trauma patient with a minor injury is focused
on:
The chief complaint and MOI.
208
Which of the following is an appropriate action during a secondary assessment?
Tailoring the exam to the patient’s complaints.
209
The mnemonic SAMPLE is used during the secondary assessment to:
Determine a patient’s medical history.
210
Which of the following is a primary reason for reassessment of a patient?
To identify changes in the patient’s condition.
211
The AVPU scale is used during reassessment to determine:
Mental status.
212
In pediatric patients, a normal response indicating adequate mental
status during reassessment is:
Crying when flicked on the feet.
213
While reassessing a patient, you notice their breathing has become more
rapid and shallow. This change primarily indicates
Potential respiratory distress.
214
During reassessment, if a patient’s skin becomes cool, clammy, and pale,
this could indicate:
Shock.
215
When reassessing vital signs, a significant increase in heart rate might
suggest:
Response to pain or anxiety.
216
If a patient’s mental status changes from alert to unresponsive, what is
the immediate action?
Administer high-flow oxygen.
217
In reassessment, a change from normal to labored breathing in a patient
with chest trauma should lead the EMT to suspect:
Pneumothorax.
218
How often should a stable patient be reassessed?
Every 15 minutes
219
An unstable patient should be reassessed
Every 5 minutes
220
Which component is not typically reassessed in a stable patient?
Detailed physical exam
221
When reassessing an unresponsive pediatric patient, the EMT should:
Assess response to flicking the feet
222
During reassessment, noting a patient’s skin turning cyanotic could
indicate:
Respiratory distress.
223
Which of the following is not a reason to perform reassessment on a
patient?
To engage in conversation with the patient
224
If a patient’s condition suddenly deteriorates en route to the hospital, the
EMT should
Stop the ambulance and reassess the patient.
225
What is a crucial component of EMS radio systems for extending
communication range?
Repeaters
226
Which regulatory body governs EMS radio communication?
Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
227
In a medical radio report, what should be included immediately after unit
identification and level of provider?
Estimated time of arrival (ETA)
228
When using a radio, you should keep your lips approximately how far from the
microphone?
2-3 inches
229
Which of the following is NOT recommended in EMS radio communication?
Using codes and jargon
230
During a verbal report at the hospital, what should you provide in addition to the
chief complaint?
Additional vital signs taken en route
231
Effective therapeutic communication with a patient often includes:
Maintaining eye contact
232
When documenting a prehospital care report, the narrative should:
Consist of objective information that is observable and measurable
233
The prehospital care report (PCR) serves primarily as:
A patient care record and legal document
234
What should you do if you make an error while documenting a PCR?
Draw a single line through the error, initial, and correct it
235
HIPAA regulations primarily ensure:
Patient confidentiality
236
In the context of EMS, ‘repeater’ refers to a device that:
Amplifies and extends the range of radio signals
237
A PCR’s narrative section should always include:
Detailed descriptions of the scene and patient presentation
238
During radio communication, saying ‘affirmative’ and ‘negative’ is preferred
over ‘yes’ and ‘no’ because:
They are clearer and less likely to be misunderstood
239
When documenting a patient refusal, it is important to:
Document all details and have the patient sign a refusal form
240
Which medication is commonly administered by EMTs for a patient with chest pain suggestive of a cardiac origin?
Aspirin
241
An EMT may assist a patient in taking which medication for respiratory distress?
Bronchodilator Inhaler
242
What is the primary action of oral glucose?
Increases blood sugar levels
243
Which of the following is a potential side effect of administering nitroglycerin
Hypotension
244
Naloxone is used to treat patients who have overdosed on
Opioids
245
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, it should be injected into the:
Thigh
246
In assisting a patient with their prescribed inhaler, the EMT should ensure that the medication is for treating:
Asthma or COPD
247
Which of the following is NOT a ‘Right’ in the Five Rights of Medication Administration?
Right temperature
248
What is the primary purpose of administering activated charcoal?
To bind with ingested toxins
249
Which route of medication administration involves placing the drug under the patient's tongue?
Sublingual
250
Which medication can lower the blood pressure as a side effect?
Nitroglycerin
251
Epinephrine, when administered for anaphylactic shock, acts by:
Constricting blood vessels
252
Which of the following medications is generally NOT carried on an ambulance for administration by EMTs?
A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Oxygen
D) Oral Glucose
B) Ibuprofen
253
If a patient has a history of COPD, which of the following medications might the EMT assist the patient in administering?
A) Epinephrine
B) Insulin
C) Bronchodilator Inhaler
D) Nitroglycerin
C) Bronchodilator Inhaler
254
Intranasal medication is administered through the:
Nose
255
What is the primary muscle of respiration?
Diaphragm
256
What sound is typically heard in asthma patients?
Wheezing
257
Which condition is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli?
Emphysema
258
What is a common sign of inadequate breathing in infants?
Nasal flaring
259
Which is not a typical sign of pulmonary edema?
Dry cough
260
What is the rate of artificial ventilation for an adult with inadequate respirations?
10-12 breaths per minute
261
What is the primary purpose of CPAP in respiratory emergencies?
To keep alveoli open
262
Which condition is often a precursor to a spontaneous pneumothorax
COPD
263
What is the typical initial step in assisting a patient with a prescribed inhaler?
Checking the expiration date on the inhaler
264
In an adult patient, what might increasing pulse rates indicate during artificial ventilation?
Inadequate ventilation
265
What type of cough is associated with croup?
Barking cough
266
A patient with a DVT is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Pulmonary embolism
267
The presence of wheezing in a patient most likely indicates:
Narrowing of the air passages
268
Which is a contraindication for CPAP use?
Hypotension
269
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
270
What is an exaggerated immune response to a foreign substance?
Allergic reaction
271
Which of the following is NOT a common allergen?
Fresh fruits
272
Anaphylaxis is characterized by:
Rapid onset of systemic symptoms
273
What is the primary medication used in the treatment of anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine
274
What is a life-threatening allergic reaction that involves multiple body systems?
Anaphylaxis
275
Which symptom is NOT typically associated with an allergic reaction?
Hypertension
276
The first exposure to an allergen usually results in:
No reaction
277
What should EMTs do if a patient with a known allergy to bee stings is stung and starts to develop difficulty breathing?
Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare epinephrine
278
Which of these is NOT a sign of anaphylaxis?
Bradycardia
279
How should epinephrine be administered to a patient with anaphylaxis?
Intramuscularly
280
Which of these should an EMT assess for in a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A. Previous exposure to the allergen
B. Family history of allergic reactions
C. Only visible symptoms, like hives
D. Only respiratory symptoms
A. Previous exposure to the allergen
281
Which of the following is a concern when dealing with latex allergies?
A. Latex allergies are extremely rare
B. Latex allergies cannot cause anaphylaxis
C. Multiple surgeries increase the risk of latex allergy
D. Latex allergies are only seen in healthcare workers
C. Multiple surgeries increase the risk of latex allergy
282
In which condition is high-concentration oxygen indicated?
Anaphylaxis
283
Which of the following is an appropriate step in the care of a patient with a severe allergic reaction?
A. Wait for symptoms to worsen before administering epinephrine
B. Limit oxygen administration to preserve respiratory drive
C. Administer epinephrine if the patient has respiratory distress or signs of shock
D. Avoid administering epinephrine to patients with a heart condition
Administer epinephrine if the patient has respiratory distress or signs of shock
284
What is the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children?
Food allergies
285
What is the primary cause of sepsis?
Bacterial infection
286
Which of the following is NOT a common source of infection leading to sepsis?
Cardiovascular system
287
What is the communicable period of a disease?
Time when the microbe can be transmitted
288
Which criterion is NOT part of the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?
Body temperature over 102° F
289
The incubation period of an infectious disease refers to:
The time from exposure to development of symptoms
290
Which of the following is a typical sign of chickenpox?
Itchy blisters
291
Measles is characterized by:
A red-blotchy rash
292
Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through which route?
Fecal-oral
293
Which of the following is a symptom of tuberculosis?
Night sweats
294
The first step in the care of a patient with suspected sepsis is
Conducting a primary assessment
295
Which infection is known for causing a "seal bark" cough in children?
Croup
296
What is the first line of defense in preventing the spread of infectious diseases in EMS?
Standard Precautions
297
Lyme disease is most commonly transmitted by:
Ticks
298
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of meningitis?
A. Nuchal rigidity
B. Petechial rash
C. Coughing fits
D. Severe headache
C. Coughing fits
299
During a sepsis alert, it is important to:
Notify the receiving hospital
300
Which route of poisoning is most commonly associated with children?
Ingestion
301
Signs of carbon monoxide poisoning often mimic which condition?
Flu
302
What is the first step in caring for a patient with suspected inhaled poison?
Move the patient to fresh air
303
What is the primary action of activated charcoal?
Adsorbs the poison
304
Which of these is a contraindication for administering activated charcoal?
A. Patient has ingested an acid or alkali
B. Patient is experiencing nausea
C. Patient has ingested a petroleum product
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
305
What is the most important aspect of treatment for a patient who has ingested a poison?
Prompt transportation to a medical facility
306
When assessing a patient with a suspected overdose, what is important to note about the medication bottles found on scene?
The amount of medication missing
307
A patient with alcohol intoxication should be assessed for what additional condition?
Trauma
308
What is the primary concern when treating a patient who has absorbed a poison?
Decontaminating the patient's skin
309
What substance is commonly inhaled in a confined space leading to poisoning?
Carbon monoxide
310
Which symptom is most indicative of opioid overdose?
Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression
311
When dealing with a poisoning emergency, what is the EMT's highest priority?
Scene safety
312
What should you do if you suspect a patient has ingested a household cleaner?
Administer activated charcoal if directed
313
In cases of substance abuse, what is important to determine?
A. Type of substance used
B. Quantity of substance used
C. Time of last substance use
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
314
What is a common sign of poisoning in pediatric patients?
Altered mental status
315
Which type of abdominal pain is dull and originates from organs?
Visceral
316
Where would pain from an abdominal aortic aneurysm most likely radiate to?
Flank or back
317
Which medication should NOT be administered to a patient complaining of abdominal pain?
A) Oral glucose
B) Acetaminophen
C) Aspirin
D) None of the above
D) None of the above
318
Which condition involves a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal muscle?
Hernia
319
What is the most crucial vital sign to monitor for a patient with abdominal pain?
Blood pressure
320
The abdomen is divided into how many quadrants?
4
321
Which of the following conditions is characterized by nausea, vomiting, and pain that initially starts near the belly button and then moves to the RLQ?
A) Cholecystitis
B) Appendicitis
C) GI bleeding
D) Renal colic
B) Appendicitis
322
Coffee ground-like vomit is most indicative of which abdominal emergency?
GI bleeding
323
What is the most severe potential cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant female?
Ectopic pregnancy
324
In which sequence should you palpate the abdomen when assessing a patient with abdominal pain?
Painful areas last
325
Which medication is used to relieve nausea associated with abdominal pain?
Ondansetron
326
Pain from cholecystitis most commonly radiates to which area?
Shoulder
327
Which vital sign is the least important to monitor serially in a patient with abdominal pain?
Temperature
328
Which type of pain is typically sharp and localized?
Parietal
329
How should a patient with severe abdominal pain be positioned during transport?
Position of comfort
330
Which type of abdominal pain is dull and originates from organs?
Tearing
331
Where would pain from an abdominal aortic aneurysm most likely radiate to?
Groin
332
Which medication should NOT be administered to a patient complaining of abdominal pain?
Aspirin
333
What is the most crucial vital sign to monitor for a patient with abdominal pain?
Heart rate
334
Which is NOT typically a cause for an altered mental status and behavior?
Patient's astrological sign
335
What is the minimum safe distance to keep from an agitated psychiatric patient?
3 feet
336
Patients experiencing acute psychosis may exhibit which symptom?
Delusions
337
Which technique can help calm an agitated behavioral emergency patient?
Listen attentively and speak slowly
338
Which is NOT an appropriate restraint guideline?
A. Ensure adequate assistance
B. Restrain to stretcher in prone position
C. Continually reassess patient
D. Properly document
Restrain to stretcher in prone position
339
.Sudden, severe agitation in a psychiatric patient may represent which life-threatening condition?
Excited delirium
340
Risk factors for suicide do NOT typically include:
A. Previous suicide attempts
B. Feelings of hopelessness
C. Recent improved mood
D. Older adulthood
C. Recent improved mood
341
Once restrained, a behavioral emergency patient should be continually monitored for:
Adequate breathing
342
Which medication can an EMT administer to a patient with an altered mental status?
Oxygen
343
A potentially violent scene should first be approached with
Caution while staging nearby
344
Which is NOT an appropriate step when restraining a violent patient?
A. Apply leg restraints
B. Cover patient's head
C. Discuss actions with patient
D. Ensure proper circulation
B. Cover patient's head
345
Suicidal statements or plans should be taken:
Seriously
346
Which technique can help diffuse a situation with an agitated patient?
A. Criticizing their behavior
B. Arguing about treatment
C. Using restraints immediately
D. Speaking calmly and listening
D. Speaking calmly and listening
347
A patient presenting with disordered thoughts and hallucinations likely has:
Acute psychosis
348
Which should be assessed FIRST with a behavioral emergency patient?
A. Mental status
B. Skin color
C. Pupil response
D. Airway and breathing
D. Airway and breathing
349
What is the primary function of the circulatory system?
To carry nutrients to the body's cells
350
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting?
Platelets
351
What is the immediate treatment for a patient in hypovolemic shock due to severe bleeding?
Apply direct pressure to the bleeding site
352
What is a late sign of hypovolemic shock?
Decreased blood pressure
353
Which type of shock is caused by widespread dilation of blood vessels?
Distributive shock
354
What is the most appropriate initial step in controlling external bleeding?
Use direct pressure
355
Which type of bleeding is characterized by a fast, spurting flow and is bright red?
Arterial
356
In a trauma patient, what is one of the primary assessments for internal bleeding?
Palpating the abdomen for rigidity
357
When assessing a patient with suspected shock, which vital sign is most indicative of their condition?
Pulse rate
358
What is the best course of action for a patient with signs of decompensated shock?
Rapid transport to the hospital
359
Which is not a type of distributive shock?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Septic
C. Neurogenic
D. Hemorrhagic
D. Hemorrhagic
360
In pediatric patients, which is an early sign of shock?
A. Hypotension
B. Bradycardia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypothermia
C. Tachycardia
361
What is the primary concern when treating a patient with significant external hemorrhage and suspected shock?
Controlling the bleeding
362
Which is a contraindication for using a tourniquet?
A. Severe arterial bleeding from an extremity
B. Bleeding that is controlled with direct pressure
C. Bleeding from the neck
D. A patient with a history of hypertension
B. Bleeding that is controlled with direct pressure
363
What is the role of the EMT in the care of a patient with suspected internal bleeding?
Rapid transport and supportive care
364
What is the first layer of skin called?
Epidermis
365
Which of the following is a type of closed wound?
A. Laceration
B. Abrasion
C. Hematoma
D. Avulsion
C. Hematoma
366
How should you care for an impaled object?
Apply direct pressure around the object.
367
What is the primary function of the skin?
Protection
368
A 'contusion' is another name for what type of injury?
Bruise
369
What is the correct treatment for an avulsion?
Replace and align the avulsed skin flap, then bandage.
370
In the case of a severe burn, what is the initial step in treatment?
Immediately cool the burned area.
371
An electrical burn should be treated with:
High-flow oxygen and rapid transport.
372
How should you approach a chemical burn?
Brush off the chemical then irrigate with water
373
What is the rule of nines used for a burn patients?
Calculating the total body surface area affected.
374
When bandaging a wound, what is important to avoid?
Covering the tips of fingers or toes.
375
What is the main danger of an open crush injury?
Internal bleeding and infection.
376
Why should you not remove a dressing once it's applied to a wound?
It may dislodge clots that have formed.
377
The initial care for a partial thickness burn involves:
Immersing in cold water.
378
Which type of bleeding is characterized by a slow, steady flow and is dark red in color?
A. Arterial
B. Venous
C. Capillary
D. Junctional
B. Venous
379
What is the primary concern when assessing a patient with suspected flail chest?
Paradoxical movement
380
A patient with a tension pneumothorax may exhibit:
Distended neck veins, tracheal deviation, and hypotension.
381
Which of the following is an indication of traumatic asphyxia?
Bulging eyes and distended neck veins.
382
The most appropriate way to manage an open chest wound is to:
Seal the wound with an occlusive dressing.
383
Cardiac tamponade may present with:
Distended neck veins and low blood pressure.
384
In a patient with suspected abdominal evisceration, you should:
Cover the wound with a moist sterile dressing.
385
For a patient with an impaled object in the abdomen, you should:
Stabilize the object and bandage around it.
386
What type of injury is most likely in a high-speed vehicle collision causing rapid deceleration?
Aortic injury.
387
When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, you should expect:
Guarding and rigidity.
387
The initial step in treating a patient with a penetrating chest injury is:
Sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing
388
A flutter valve dressing is used for:
An open chest wound to allow air to escape.
389
Pneumothorax can be identified by:
Absent or diminished breath sounds on one side of the chest
390
Which of the following is a sign of hemothorax?
Coughing up frothy blood.
391
In abdominal trauma, differentiation between hollow and solid organ injuries is important because:
Hollow organs can spill contents, causing peritonitis.
392
Which mechanism is most likely to cause a diaphragmatic tear?
Compression injury to the lower ribcage.
393
What is a greenstick fracture?
An incomplete fracture common in children
394
A dislocation is best described as:
The displacement of a bone from its normal position at a joint
395
What type of muscle is under voluntary control?
Skeletal
396
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of splinting?
A. To realign broken bone fragments
B. To reduce pain
C. To prevent further injury to soft tissues
D. To minimize blood loss
A. To realign broken bone fragments
397
Compartment syndrome typically occurs in which setting?
In the setting of a fractured long bone
398
In assessing a patient with a suspected musculoskeletal injury, which of the following is NOT one of the 'Six P's'?
A. Pain or tenderness
B. Pallor
C. Pressure
D. Paralysis
B. Applying a pelvic binder
399
Which of the following structures connects muscle to bone?
A. Ligament
B. Tendon
C. Cartilage
D. Periosteum
B. Tendon
400
An open fracture is characterized by:
Broken skin and visible bone ends
401
A traction splint is MOST appropriately used for which of the following injuries?
Femoral shaft fractures
402
What is the first step in splinting a musculoskeletal injury?
Assessing distal CSM
403
What should you suspect when a patient presents with a hip injury and the injured limb appears shorter than the other?
Hip fracture
404
In which situation would you NOT use a rigid splint?
A. An open fracture with severe bleeding
B. A closed fracture with no deformity
C. A suspected sprain of the ankle
D. A severely angulated forearm fracture
A suspected sprain of the ankle
405
A 'sling and swathe' is most useful for injuries to which body part?
The arm
406
When splinting a suspected fracture, it is important to:
Splint above and below the injury site
407
What is the primary function of the central nervous system?
Control thought, sensations, and motor functions
408
A patient with a suspected spine injury should be transported in what position?
Supine
409
What is the best method to control scalp bleeding?
Direct pressure
410
What is an indication of a possible skull fracture?
Battle sign
411
A hematoma forming between the brain and dura mater is known as:
Subdural hematoma
412
Rising ICP in a head injury patient can lead to:
Hypertension and bradycardia
413
Which injury is most associated with the risk of an air embolism?
A) Scalp laceration
B) Neck wound
C) Facial fracture
D) Closed head injury
B) Neck wound
414
What is the first step in spinal motion restriction for a trauma patient?
Manual stabilization of the head
415
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses:
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
416
In a patient with a traumatic brain injury, decerebrate posturing indicates:
Severe brain injury
417
When assessing a patient with a spinal injury, what should you check?
A) Skin color and temperature
B) Bowel and bladder control
C) Pulse and blood pressure
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
418
What should you suspect in a patient with trauma to the head and an altered mental status?
Traumatic brain injury
419
How should you manage a patient with a penetrating injury to the neck?
Apply an occlusive dressing and direct pressure
420
What is a key sign of a basilar skull fracture?
Raccoon eyes
421
in a patient with a suspected spinal injury, priapism indicates:
Possible spinal cord injury
422
What is the primary role of the EMT in childbirth?
Assist the mother during delivery.
423
During which stage of labor does the cervix become fully dilated?
First stage.
424
What is a major concern when a pregnant patient lies in a supine position?
Supine Hypotensive Syndrome.
425
What does the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicate?
Possible fetal distress.
426
How should you treat a patient with a prolapsed umbilical cord?
Elevate the mother's hips and provide oxygen.
427
What is the correct procedure if the baby's head is crowning during labor?
Prepare to assist with delivery on scene.
428
The APGAR score is used to:
Evaluate the newborn's condition immediately after birth.
429
A breech presentation during delivery is characterized by:
The baby's feet or buttocks presenting first.
430
How should an EMT manage a limb presentation, during childbirth, in a prehospital setting?
Initiate immediate transport and elevate the mother's pelvis
431
In the context of pregnancy, supine hypotensive syndrome is best described as:
Compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus.
432
During the third stage of labor, an EMT should expect:
Delivery of the placenta.
433
The primary assessment of a pregnant woman should always include:
Evaluation of airway, breathing, and circulation.
434
Neonatal resuscitation may be required if:
There is meconium staining in the amniotic fluid.
435
Excessive prebirth bleeding may be caused by:
Placenta previa.
436
The primary goal in managing a sexual assault patient is to:
Treat life-threatening injuries and provide emotional support.
437
The term "disability" in EMS refers to:
A condition that interferes with daily living activities
438
Autism spectrum disorders primarily affect:
Ability to communicate
439
When working with a patient with Down syndrome, an EMT should:
Use empathy and adapt communication strategies
440
In caring for terminally ill patients, it is important to:
Prioritize their emotional needs and advance directives
441
Key considerations in the care of obese patients include:
Allowing the patient to assume a position of comfort
442
A significant health concern for homeless patients is:
Issues like pneumonia and substance abuse
443
The 'A' in the ABCS mnemonic for treating ASD patients stands for:
Awareness
444
When dealing with patients who use medical technologies at home, caregiver input is crucial because
They often have deep knowledge of the patient’s condition and device operation
445
An EMT’s approach when encountering a patient with an advanced medical device should be
To understand the device’s function and its importance for the patient
446
Establishing a baseline for patients with special challenges involves:
Determining what is normal for the specific patient
447
In differentiating between chronic and routine problems in patients with special challenges, it's important to:
Prioritize life-threatening primary assessment problems
448
A common complication associated with tracheostomy tubes is:
Mucus buildup and potential infection
449
The primary function of a CPAP machine is to:
Provide constant airway pressure to keep passages open
450
In cases of suspected abuse or neglect, the EMT's role includes:
Providing care and reporting suspicions according to jurisdictional requirements
451
Signs of human trafficking an EMT should be aware of include:
Patient accompanied by a controlling person
452
Which type of ambulance is characterized by a standard van design with an integrated cab and body?
Type II
453
What is one of the primary responsibilities of an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD)?
Dispatching and coordinating EMS resources
454
During the "Engine Off" inspection of an ambulance, what should be checked?
Body, wheels, tires, fluid levels, and battery
455
Which is NOT a typical step in transferring a patient to an ambulance?
A. Selecting the right carrying device
B. Administering advanced medications
C. Moving the patient to the ambulance
D. Loading the patient into the ambulance
B. Administering advanced medications
456
In pediatric transport, why might the presence of a female EMS or police officer be helpful?
To calm a frightened child
457
What is a critical consideration when operating an ambulance at high speed?
Speed increases stopping distance
458
What should an EMT do immediately after transferring a patient to the Emergency Department staff?
Prepare the prehospital care report
459
Which of the following is a clinical reason to call for air rescue?
A. The patient's home is in a remote location
B. Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 10
C. There is a minor injury
D. Patient prefers air transport
B. Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 10
460
What type of ambulance is best suited for advanced life support and rescue services?
Type I
461
What is an important action during the ambulance inspection with the engine on?
Checking dash-mounted indicators and gauges
462
When terminating a call at the hospital, what is one of the key tasks for an EMT?
Quickly cleaning the patient compartment
463
What should you avoid while operating an ambulance?
Driving under the influence of any substance
464
Which statement is true about the privileges granted to ambulance operators during an emergency?
A. They provide immunity from all traffic laws
B. They are not applicable if not responding to a call
C. They allow the ambulance to park anywhere without restrictions
D. Ambulance operators are not granted any privileges
B. They are not applicable if not responding to a call
465
What is a key component of ensuring readiness for service in EMS operations?
Inspecting the vehicle and equipment at the start of every shift
465
What should be used to secure a patient in the ambulance?
Minimum of three straps: chest level, waist level, lower extremities
466
What is the primary responsibility of a First Responder at a HazMat incident
Identification and isolation of the HazMat zone
467
Which zone is directly involved with decontamination in a HazMat incident?
Warm Zone
468
What is the FIRST action an EMT should take upon arriving at a suspected HazMat incident?
Identify and isolate the HazMat zone
469
In an MCI, what color triage tag is assigned to patients who are deceased or have fatal injuries?
Black
470
During the START triage process, a patient who is not breathing after opening the airway should be tagged as:
Deceased (Black)
471
Which of the following is a key component of the Incident Command System?
A) Advanced life support
B) Psychological first aid
C) Unified command structure
D) Direct patient care
C) Unified command structure
472
The 'R' in the START triage system stands for:
Respiration
473
What is the main goal of triage in an MCI?
To afford the greatest number of people the greatest chance of survival
474
What should an EMT do if they encounter a HazMat situation where the substance is unknown
Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook
475
In an MCI, the area where ambulances are held until needed is known as the
Staging Area
476
What type of protective clothing is generally NOT appropriate for HazMat incidents?
A) Chemical suits
B) Structural firefighting gear
C) High visibility vests
D) Biological hazard suits
B) Structural firefighting gear
477
In the SALT triage system, a patient who can follow simple commands and has no respiratory distress is categorized as:
Delayed
478
When using the START triage method, what should you check first?
Respiration
479
The Emergency Response Guidebook is primarily used to:
Provide information on hazardous substances
480
In an MCI, what is the primary role of the triage supervisor?
Prioritizing and categorizing patients
481
What is the primary purpose of "blocking" at a highway incident scene?
Provide a safe work area for responders.
482
When responding to a highway emergency, the first-arriving unit should:
Establish Command and confirm the location.
483
What type of gear should EMS responders wear when working in traffic during highway operations?
ANSI-approved safety vests and helmets.
484
In vehicle extrication, what is the first phase?
Preparing for rescue.
485
During a vehicle extrication, if the hood of the car is partially open, you should:
Try to fully open the hood.
486
Which of the following is NOT a phase in vehicle extrication?
A. Sizing up the situation.
B. Managing traffic.
C. Disentangling the patient.
D. Checking vehicle registration.
D. Checking vehicle registration.
487
When extricating a patient from a vehicle, your first approach should be:
Trying simple methods like opening doors.
488
How should EMS responders position their vehicles when arriving at a highway incident?
Parked single file in the same direction.
489
What is the primary concern when approaching a vehicle with an undeployed airbag?
Risk of airbag deployment.
490
If a vehicle is on its side at an accident scene, how should it be stabilized?
With ropes and cribbing.
491
Which of the following is a key aspect of sizing up a vehicle collision scene?
A. The make and model of the vehicles involved.
B. Number of passengers in each vehicle.
C. The need for additional ambulances.
D. Time of day.
C. The need for additional ambulances.
492
What is the most appropriate action for managing traffic at a highway incident at night?
Red/amber warning lights on, headlights off.
493
When working at a highway incident, the best lighting combination for maximum visibility at night is:
Red/amber warning lights on, headlights off.
494
The primary goal of triage at a vehicle collision is to:
Prioritize patient transport.
495
What should EMS responders do if they encounter a vehicle fire at an accident scene?
Use a dry chemical fire extinguisher if safe to do so.
496
What is the primary definition of terrorism according to the U.S. Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation?
The unlawful use of force or violence to intimidate for political or social objectives
497
Which type of terrorism involves groups or individuals conducting activities against their own government or population?
Domestic Terrorism
498
What is the most effective route of agent dissemination in a terrorist attack?
Inhalation
499
In a terrorist incident, what signs should alert EMS responders to the possibility of a secondary attack?
Unusual odors or color of smoke.
500
What is the most critical consideration for EMS providers when responding to a potential terrorist incident?
Scene safety and provider security
501
What does the acronym TRACE-MP stand for in the context of identifying harms posed by terrorist threats?
Thermal, Radiologic, Asphyxiation, Chemical, Etiologic - Mechanical, Psychological
502
Which of the following is a primary goal in responding to multiple-casualty incidents (MCIs) related to terrorism?
A) Evacuation of nearby buildings
B) Crowd control
C) Triage and treatment of the greatest number of patients
D) Immediate pursuit of perpetrators
C) Triage and treatment of the greatest number of patients
503
What is the purpose of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) in a terrorist incident?
To ensure coordinated, efficient incident management
504
What is the first level of training required by law for EMS responders to hazardous materials incidents?
First Responder Awareness
505
When encountering a potential chemical incident as a terrorist attack, what is an essential self-protection measure for EMS responders?
Respiratory protection and protective clothing
506
In the context of terrorism, what is a "dirty bomb" primarily classified as?
Radiological Weapon
507
During a biologic terrorist incident, what type of harm is primarily a concern for EMS responders?
Etiologic
508
What is the key strategy in managing an explosive incident as a terrorist attack?
Preblast and postblast protection
509
What are SLUDGEM symptoms indicative of in the context of a chemical terrorist attack?
Nerve agent poisoning
510
What does the acronym SALT stand for in the context of triage during terrorist incidents?
Sort, Assess, Lifesaving Interventions, Treatment/Transport
