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NSGA 150/149 Medications > NSGA 150: Exam 2 > Flashcards

NSGA 150: Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

50 mL or less urine in a 24 hour period

A

Anuria

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2
Q

Less than 30 mL of urine per hour

A

Oliguria

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

Presence of albumin in urine

A

Microalbuminuria

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5
Q

Waking up at night to urinate

A

Nocturia

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6
Q

Painful or difficult urination

A

Dysuria

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7
Q

Presence of protein in urine

A

Proteinuria

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8
Q

Excretion of glucose in the urine

A

Glycosuria

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9
Q

Presence of bacteria in urine

A

Bacteriuria

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10
Q

The act of urinating or voiding

A

Micturition

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11
Q

Blood in the urine

A

Hematuria

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12
Q

Presence of white blood cells in urine

A

Pyuria

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13
Q

Plasma proteins, especially globulins and albumins, are routinely found in urine. T/F

A

False

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14
Q

The major waste product of protein metabolism that is excreted by the kidney is

A

Urea

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15
Q

A healthy adult bladder will hold 1500 mL-2000 mL of urine. T/F

A

False

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16
Q

Checking the amount of residual urine is a component of the health assessment of the urinary/renal system. Is the following statement true or false? A healthy person may have no more than 30 mL of residual urine whereas an older adult may have no more than 100 mL of residual urine. T/F

A

False

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17
Q

How is dysuria best described?

A

Painful urination

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18
Q

The patient experiences hematuria. What would the nurse assess further?

A

The patient’s RBC level

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19
Q

The nurse recognizes that a patient’s urine could be amber in color due to what reason?

A

Presence of medications such as pyridium
Concentration due to dehydration
Presence of fever, bile, or carotene

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20
Q

When a patient’s urine is concentrated, the specific gravity will be what?

A

Increased

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21
Q

A provider has ordered a urine culture. The nurse knows that a urine culture provides what information?

A

The pathogen colonizing the urinary tract

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22
Q

Your patient is scheduled for a CT scan using contrast. You notice that the patient’s GFR is 35 mL/min. You opt to notify the provider of the 35 mL/min GFR. What is the reason for notifying the provider before the scan?

A

The scan may need to be completed without contrast since the dye is damaging to the already damaged kidneys

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23
Q

Following a needle kidney biopsy, a patient may have blood in their urine for a few days. T/F

A

True

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24
Q

When reviewing the past medical history of a patient with a complicated UTI, the nurse expects to find the presence of what?

A

Recurrent urinary tract infections
Documented obstructions within the urinary system
Possible urologic abnormalities

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25
What are the risk factors for contracting a UTI?
Sexual intercourse Female gender Tub bathing
26
Ascending
Transurethral
27
Hematogenous
Via the bloodstream
28
Direct extension
Presence of a communicating fistula
29
A patient suffering from bacterial cystitis/UTI would present with what signs and symptoms?
Cloudy urine Suprapubic or pelvic pain Urinary frequency
30
What risk factors in the geriatric population increase the chances for a UTI?
Increased use of antibiotics Incomplete emptying of the bladder Decreased bladder control Bacterial prostatitis
31
The nurse knows that some common signs and symptoms of a UTI in the geriatric population include?
Incontinence Delirium Urinary burning
32
A nurse providing education on antibiotic therapy for a UTI provides what important educational information to patients?
It is best to take all doses of antibiotic prescribed
33
A nurse is gathering supplies to insert a foley catheter. What would the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent a urinary tract infection?
Perform meticulous perineal care daily
34
A nursing students provides what correct education about the differences in acute and chronic pyelonephritis?
Chronic pyelonephritis causes scarring of the kidney including kidney failure Choice of antibiotic therapy is based on culture and sensitivity tests in both acute and chronic pyelonephritis Acute pyelonephritis is usually treated with a 2 week antibiotic course Chronic pyelonephritis can cause symptoms of acute pyelonephritis when there is an exacerbation
35
The fluid intake of a patient with pyelonephritis should be?
3-4 Liters/day
36
The nurse knows that the most common, noninvasive, interventional procedure conducted for treating stones is what?
Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithrotripsy
37
Stress incontinence
Caused by sneezing or coughing due to weakened pelvic floor muscles
38
Iatrogenic incontinence
Medical factors that make voiding voluntarily difficult such as meds
39
Functional incontinence
Factors outside of the urinary tract system interfere with voiding voluntarily
40
Urge incontinence
Caused by the detrussor (bladder) muscle contracting involuntarily; patient knows they have to urinate but cannot reach the toilet on time
41
Select the answers below that are correct about Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.
TURP is the surgery of choice for moderate to severe symptoms. prostate enlargement usually happens over a long period of time Risk Factors include smoking, alcohol, obesity, Western Diet This is caused by an increase in the level of estrogen in males. Finasteride may be prescribed
42
What information regarding the digital rectal exam is correct?
Examiner inserts a finger through the anal sphincter during which time the patient should exhale slowly
43
Which of the following place an individual at risk for constipation?
Patients taking opioid medication Patients taking iron supplements Older Adults Patients who recently had surgery
44
Functional Constipation
Most common, treated by increasing fluid and fiber intake
45
Defecatory Disorders
inability to coordinate the abdominal, pelvic floor and recto anal muscles to defecate.
46
Opioid- induced constipation
New or worsening symptoms when opioid therapy is started or changed.
47
Slow-Transit Constipation
Inherent disorders of the motor function of the colon
48
What causes patients who are constipated and straining during elimination to get dizzy during defecation?
Decrease in cardiac output
49
A nurse is educating a patient on ways to prevent constipation. Which of the following statements would be included in the education?
Increasing your movement by taking a walk daily helps tone abdominal muscles to help propel the colon contents. It is important that if you are ingesting high-fiber foods, you include an adequate amount of fluids as well. Try to establish a time after a meal, which is usually the best time to initiate the defecation reflex.
50
What is the most common complication of Diarrhea?
Dehydration
51
How long can an External Fecal Collection device be used for patients with fecal incontinence?
4 Consecutive weeks
52
What symptoms would you expect in a patient who has a small bowel obstruction?
Crampy pain that can be wavelike and colicky. Distended abdomen The patient does not pass fecal matter or flatus. Vomiting of stomach and small intestine contents may occur.
53
Which of the following is a clinical difference between small obstruction and large bowel obstruction?
Large bowel obstruction symptoms develop and progress relatively slower.
54
Nursing care for a patient with bowel obstruction will include?
Monitor for worsening symptoms of intestinal obstruction. Restoration of Fluids as ordered by physician Monitoring Electrolyte values Monitor NG output
55
The nurse is caring for a patient who just completed a barium enema study. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
"Be sure to let your provider know if you experience any constipation following this procedure."
56
A nurse in an outpatient office has orders to conduct a fecal occult blood test. What questions should the nurse ask the patient prior to collecting a fecal sample for the fecal occult blood test?
"Have you ever been diagnosed with hemorrhoids?" "Are you on aspirin therapy or when was the last time you took aspirin?"
57
The nurse understands there are many causes in the development of gastritis. Which of the following patients would be considered at risk for developing gastritis?
A 33 year-old female with a positive H. pylori test. A 60 year-old male undergoing radiation treatment for gastric cancer. A 54 year-old male who drinks 3 alcoholic beverages per day. An 80 year-old female who takes ibuprofen four times daily for arthritis pain.
58
A patient with a severe and complicated acute case of diverticulitis has been admitted to the hospital. What intervention(s) should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Teach the patient to keep a food diary, when discharged, and avoid foods that trigger symptoms Administer analgesic medications as ordered
59
The antidiarrheal medication would be contraindicated in which of the following patients?
22 yo female who was diagnosed with food poisoning. 78 yo patient in an extended care facility diagnosed with C Dif 55 yo male patient who is hospitalized for small bowel obstruction.
60
When educating a patient on Bulk- Forming Laxative the nurse should include what important fact in the education?
"You should Drink at least 8oz of water or other hydrating fluid when taking your Psyllium."
61
Patients with Hyperlipidemia are at risk for which of the following
Microvascular Disease Heart Disease Stroke
62
Which of the following are Types of Malnutrition?
Overnutrition Undernutrition Imbalance of Micronutrients Imbalance of Macronutrients
63
Which of the following is considered a Macronutrient?
Protein and carbohydrates
64
A normal cholesterol value is
less than 200 mg/dl
65
Low Density lipoprotein is known as
LDL/bad cholesterol
66
High Density lipoprotein is known as
HDL/good cholesterol
67
Patients who have had bariatric surgery are instructed to avoid peanut butter, cheese, chicken, fish, and beans. T/F
False
68
Celiac disease can present symptoms in various forms. Select the different clinical manifestations that can present
paresthesia in hands and feet diarrhea abdominal distention seizures weight loss itchy rash steatorrhea
69
The provider has ordered a "clear liquid" diet for your patient. What foods are permitted on a clear liquid diet?
Grape popsicle Gelatin (Jello) Clear broth Coffee without cream or sugar Cranberry Juice
70
What is the first system to shut down in patients who are malnourished?
Immune system
71
Read the section entitled "Nothing by Mouth" in Chapter 37. Select the items below that are true of an NPO status.
May be ordered for a patient with decreased level of consciousness who is not alert enough to swallow food/fluid If permitted, allow ice chips and sips of water. Oral hygiene is encouraged when patients are NPO May be ordered for a patient with severe nausea and vomiting May be ordered before surgery or a procedure to prevent aspiration
72
Skin that is dry, has petechiae or is flaky
Poor Nutrition
73
Decreased albumin level
Poor Nutrition
74
Abdomen that is flat
Good Nutrition
75
Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
Good Nutrition
76
High blood pressure
Correct match: Poor Nutrition

NSGA 150/149 Medications (8 decks)

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