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Nuclear Physics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a mass spectrograph?

A

A mass spectrograph is an analytical instrument used to determine the mass of charged particles.

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2
Q

True or False: Mass spectrographs can only analyze solid samples.

A

False

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3
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary function of a mass spectrograph is to identify __________ in a sample.

A

chemical compounds

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4
Q

What are the main components of a mass spectrograph?

A

Ion source, mass analyzer, and detector.

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5
Q

What does the term ‘ionization’ refer to in mass spectrometry?

A

The process of converting molecules into ions.

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6
Q

True or False: The mass-to-charge ratio is denoted as m/z.

A

True

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7
Q

Main phenomenon of mass spectrograph?

A

Beam of ions moving through electric and magnetic fields is deflected and that deflection depends upon charge and mass of ion.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Mass spectrographs can provide information about the __________ of molecules.

A

structure and composition

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9
Q

What is another role of a mass spectrograph?

A

To separate isotopes of chemical elements and to determine their relative abundance.

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10
Q

What is mass defect?

A

Mass defect is the amount by which the mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of it constituents particles.

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11
Q

True or False: Mass defect is always a positive value.

A

True

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12
Q

What is binding energy?

A

Binding energy is the energy required to separate a nucleus into its individual protons and neutrons and is the energy that holds the nucleus together.

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13
Q

How is binding energy related to mass defect?

A

Binding energy is directly related to mass defect through Einstein’s equation, E=mc².

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14
Q

What unit is commonly used to express binding energy?

A

Binding energy is commonly expressed in MeV (mega-electronvolts).

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15
Q

Which particle contributes to the mass defect in a nucleus?

A

Both protons and neutrons contribute to the mass defect.

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16
Q

Multiple Choice: What happens to the binding energy as the mass defect increases? A) It decreases B) It increases C) It remains the same

A

B) It increases

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17
Q

True or False: A nucleus with a larger binding energy is generally more stable.

A

True

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18
Q

What is the significance of a negative mass defect?

A

A negative mass defect indicates that energy is released when the nucleus is formed from its constituent nucleons.

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: The binding energy per nucleon is a measure of the ________ of the nucleus.

A

Stability

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20
Q

What is the approximate binding energy of a helium-4 nucleus?

A

The binding energy of a helium-4 nucleus is approximately 28.3 MeV.

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21
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following nuclei has the highest binding energy per nucleon? A) Hydrogen B) Iron C) Uranium

A

B) Iron

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22
Q

What does a higher binding energy per nucleon indicate about a nucleus?

A

It indicates greater stability of the nucleus.

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23
Q

True or False: The concept of mass defect is only applicable to heavy nuclei.

A

False

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24
Q

True or False: The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy required to separate it into individual nucleons.

A

True

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25
Fill in the blank: Larger nuclei generally have a _____ binding energy per nucleon compared to smaller nuclei.
lower
26
What is the trend of binding energy per nucleon as you move from small to intermediate nuclei?
Binding energy per nucleon increases.
27
Which type of nuclei typically has the highest binding energy per nucleon?
Intermediate nuclei
28
What happens to the binding energy per nucleon in very large nuclei?
It decreases due to the effects of instability and increased repulsion among protons.
29
Multiple Choice: Which nucleus is expected to have the highest mass defect?
A large nucleus
30
True or False: Small nuclei have a mass defect that is significantly larger than that of large nuclei.
False
31
Fill in the blank: As nucleons bind together, their total mass _____ compared to when they are separate.
decreases
32
What is the relationship between nuclear size and binding energy for small nuclei?
Small nuclei have a relatively high binding energy per nucleon.
33
Multiple Choice: Which of the following has the lowest binding energy per nucleon?
Very large nuclei
34
True or False: Intermediate nuclei are generally more stable than both small and large nuclei.
True
35
What is one consequence of a low binding energy per nucleon in large nuclei?
Increased likelihood of radioactive decay.
36
What is Radioactivity?
The spontaneous release of subatomic particles or gamma rays by unstable atoms as their nuclei decay to attain stability.
37
How many radioactive elements are stable?
257.
38
What particle is emitted during alpha emission?
An alpha particle, which consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
39
True or False: Alpha emission increases the atomic number of the parent nucleus.
False
40
Fill in the blank: Alpha emission typically occurs in __________ elements.
heavy
41
What is the effect of alpha emission on the mass number of an atom?
The mass number decreases by 4.
42
Which of the following is a common element that undergoes alpha emission? A) Carbon B) Uranium C) Hydrogen
B) Uranium
43
What type of radiation is alpha emission classified as?
Ionizing radiation.
44
True or False: Alpha particles can penetrate human skin.
False
45
What is the typical range of alpha particles in air?
A few centimeters.
46
Describe one application of alpha emission in medicine.
Alpha-emitting isotopes are used in targeted alpha therapy for cancer treatment.
47
What is the primary reason alpha particles are less penetrating than beta or gamma radiation?
Alpha particles have a larger mass and charge, which results in greater interaction with matter.
48
What is beta emission?
Beta emission is a type of radioactive decay in which an unstable nucleus emits a beta particle, which can be an electron or a positron.
49
True or False: Beta particles are always negatively charged.
False. Beta particles can be either negatively charged electrons or positively charged positrons.
50
Fill in the blank: In beta decay, a neutron is transformed into a ________ and an electron is emitted.
proton
51
Which type of beta decay involves the emission of an electron?
Beta minus decay
52
Multiple Choice: What is the primary result of beta plus decay? A) Emission of an electron B) Emission of a positron C) Emission of a neutron D) Emission of an alpha particle
B) Emission of a positron
53
What is the role of neutrinos in beta decay?
Neutrinos are emitted alongside beta particles and carry away excess energy and momentum from the decay process.
54
True or False: Beta emission results in a change of atomic number for the emitting nucleus.
True
55
What is the typical range of beta particles in air?
Beta particles typically have a range of a few meters in air.
56
Fill in the blank: Beta particles can be stopped by ________ materials such as plastic or glass.
low-density
57
What is the main health risk associated with exposure to beta particles?
Beta particles can cause skin burns and increase the risk of cancer due to radiation exposure.
58
What is gamma emission?
Gamma emission is the release of gamma rays from a nucleus as it transitions from a higher energy state to a lower energy state.
59
True or False: Gamma rays are particles.
False: Gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation, not particles.
60
Fill in the blank: Gamma rays have a ______ wavelength compared to alpha and beta particles.
shorter
61
Which type of decay often accompanies gamma emission?
Alpha or beta decay.
62
What is the primary characteristic of gamma rays?
They have high energy and high penetration power.
63
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common use of gamma emission? A) Medical imaging B) Radioactive dating C) Smoke detectors
A) Medical imaging
64
What is a key safety concern associated with gamma emission?
Gamma radiation can penetrate human tissue, leading to potential health risks such as cancer.
65
True or False: Gamma rays can be shielded by paper.
False: Gamma rays require dense materials like lead or thick concrete for effective shielding.
66
What is the relationship between gamma emission and nuclear stability?
Gamma emission occurs when a nucleus transitions to a more stable state after undergoing other forms of decay.
67
Short Answer: Name one detector commonly used to measure gamma radiation.
Geiger-Muller counter.
68
What is nuclear fission?
Nuclear fission is the process of splitting a heavy nuclei into intermediate size nuclei releasing free neutrons, photons and large amount of energy.
69
True or False: Nuclear fission can occur spontaneously without external influence.
False
70
Fill in the blank: The primary fuel used in nuclear fission reactors is __________.
uranium-235
71
Which of the following particles is commonly used to initiate a nuclear fission reaction? A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron
B) Neutron
72
What are the two main products of a nuclear fission reaction?
Two lighter nuclei and several neutrons
73
Short answer: Why is nuclear fission considered a chain reaction?
Because the neutrons released can initiate further fission reactions.
74
True or False: The energy released during nuclear fission is millions of times greater than that released in chemical reactions.
True
75
What is the significance of the critical mass in nuclear fission?
Critical mass is the minimum amount of mass required to sustain a fission chain reaction. Sub Critical= mass less than critical mass Super Critical= mass greater than critical mass
76
Fill in the blank: The process of controlling nuclear fission reactions in a reactor is done using __________.
control rods
77
What is a nuclear reactor?
device that is designed to maintain a self sustaining fission reaction in a controlled manner.
78
What is nuclear fusion?
A process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy.
79
True or False: Nuclear fusion occurs naturally in stars, including the Sun.
True
80
Fill in the blank: The primary fuel for nuclear fusion in stars is ______.
hydrogen
81
Which of the following is a potential advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission? A) Less radioactive waste B) Higher energy yield C) Both A and B
C) Both A and B
82
What is the main challenge in achieving controlled nuclear fusion on Earth?
Maintaining the extremely high temperatures and pressures needed for the fusion reaction.
83
What temperature is typically required to initiate nuclear fusion?
Approximately 10 million degrees Celsius.
84
True or False: Nuclear fusion has been successfully harnessed for commercial energy production.
False
85
What is the name of the experimental nuclear fusion reactor being developed in France?
ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor)
86
Short answer: Name one isotope of hydrogen that is commonly used in nuclear fusion reactions.
Deuterium or Tritium
87
What is the primary byproduct of nuclear fusion reactions?
Helium

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