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ADI numbers (possible questions for Written Assesment) > Numbers > Flashcards

Numbers Flashcards

(110 cards)

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1
Q

How big an area does the Minimum Sector Altitude cover ?

A

25 miles radius *plus a buffer of 5 miles).

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2
Q

Which area is Terrain Clearance to be provided withing 30 nm from the radar - and what is the height clearance ?

A

“The big keyhole”.
1000 feet over any fixed object within:
5 nm in any direction and
15 nm ahead of the aircraft (20 degrees to each side)

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3
Q

Which area is Terrain Clearance to be provided withing 15 nm from the radar - and what is the height clearance ?

A

“The small keyhole”.
1000 feet over any fixed object within:
3 nm in any direction and
10 nm ahead of the aircraft (20 degrees to each side)

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4
Q

What is the vertical terrain clearance within the Surveillance Minimum Altitude Area (SMAA) ?

A

300m (984ft)

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5
Q

What is the terrain clearance associated with approach segments ?

A

3-6nm : 250 ft “Final”
6-15nm : 500 ft “Intermediate”
15+ : 984 ft “Initial”

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6
Q

How many AFTN categories are there ?

A 
8:
DISTRESS
UGERGENCY
Flight Safety
Meteorological
Flight Regularity
Aeronautical Information
Aeronautical Administration
Service
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7
Q

How many AFTN priority indicators are there ?

A

5:

SS,DD,FF,GG,KK

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8
Q

What is the maximum validity for an ASHTAM (time)

A

24 hours

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9
Q

What is the size of an ATZ ?

A

2000ft aal and radius of 2 or 2½ nm centered on the notified midpoint of the longest runway

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10
Q

What is the size of a CTR ?

A

As specified (touches ground)

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11
Q

What is the size of a CTA ?

A

As specified (does not touch the ground)

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12
Q

How long is a unit endorsement valid for, and when can it be renewed ?

A

12 months, renewed up to 45 days in advance

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13
Q

What is the maximum period of duty (SRATCOH)

A

10 hours

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14
Q

How long can you be on-call / on duty during a 30 day period ? (SRATCOH)

A

Withing 720 consecutive hours (30 days) periods of duty & on call shall < 300 hours and on duty < 200 hours

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15
Q

How long was the intervals between periods of duty be ? (SRATCOH)

A

12 hours - may be reduced to 11 hours once every 30 days

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16
Q

How long must breaks be ? (SRATCOH)

A

No operational duty > 2 hours without a break or breaks totalling not less than 30 minutes

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17
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by breath ?

A

9 MICROgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

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18
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by blood ?

A

20 MILIgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

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19
Q

What are the alcohol limits measured by urine ?

A

27 MILIgrams of alcohol in 100 mililitres

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20
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 1 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is less than 800 meters

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21
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 2 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 800-1199 meters

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22
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 3 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 1200-1799 meters

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23
Q

What is the TODA / SODA of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code 4 ?

A

The greater of TODA/SODA is 1800 meters or over

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24
Q

What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter A ?

A

Wing Span up to but not including 15m

Outer Main Gear Wheel Span up to but not including 4.5m

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25
What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter B ?
Wing Span 15 m up to but not including 24m | Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 4.5m up to but not including 6m
26
What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter C ?
Wing Span 24 m up to but not including 36m | Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 6m up to but not including 9m
27
What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter D ?
Wing Span 36 m up to but not including 52m | Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 9m up to but not including 14m
28
What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter E ?
Wing Span 52 m up to but not including 65m | Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 9m up to but not including 14m
29
What is the Wing Span / Outer Main Gear Wheel Span of an airport with Aerodrome Reference Code Letter F ?
Wing Span 65 m up to but not including 80m | Outer Main Gear Wheel Span 14m up to but not including 16m
30
What is the required runway width for an 4E aerodrome ?
45 meters
31
What is the minimum required runway width including shoulders, for a category D or E airport ?
60 meters
32
What is the minimum length of the Runway Strip for a category 2,3 or 4 airport ?
60 meters is each end
33
What is the minimum Runway Strip width for a non-instrument runway on a category 3 or 4 airport ?
75 meters from the centerline of the runway
34
What is the minimum Runway Strip width for an instrument runway on a category 3 or 4 airport ?
150 meters from the centerline of the runway
35
What is the width of the cleared and graded area of a non-instrument or a non-precision approach runway, or a category 3 or 4 airport ?
75 meters from the centerline of the runway
36
What is the minimum size of the cleared and graded area of a precision instrument runway for a category 3 or 4 airport ?
105 meters from each side of the centerline. This distance may be reduced to not less than 75m each side of the centerline and extended centerline at each strip end, continuing at this width for the first 150 meters of the runway available for landing in each direction, then increasing uniformly to 105 meter from the cetreline by 300 meters
37
What is the minimum length of the Runway End Safety Area for a code 3 or 4 airport ?
90 meters
38
What is the recommended length of the Runway End Safety Area for a code 3 or 4 airport ?
240 meters
39
What is the minimum width of a taxiway of a code E or D airport ?
23 meters
40
What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Non-Instrument Runway ?
75 meters
41
What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Instrument and Take-Off Runway ?
75 meters
42
What is the minimum distance from the runway centerline to a holding bay or taxi holding position for a Code 4 Airport Precision Approach Runway ?
Cat I: 90 meters Cat II: 107.5 meters Cat III : 137 meters
43
What are the maximum tyre pressure authorised for the pavement, according to the part 5 of the PCN ?
``` W = High, No limit X = Medium, limitied to 1.50 MPa Y = Low, limited to 1.00 MPa Z = Very Low, limitied to 0.50 MPa ```
44
What is the departure AOM for a Public Transportation Single Engine Flight ?
1000ft ceiling and 1800m RVR
45
What is the departure AOM for a Public Transportaion Perf A aircraft ?
HIEL & HICLL & multi-RVR : 150m (200m Cat D) at all RVRs HIEL & HICLL : RVR & VIS 200m (250m CatD) HIEL or HICLL : RVR & Vis 250m (300m Cat D) No Lights : RVR & Vis 500m
46
What is the decision height for a Cat I approach ?
200 ft
47
What is the decision height of a Cat II approach
100 ft
48
What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat I approach ?
Not less than IRVR 550m
49
What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat II appraoch ?
Not less than IRVR 300m
50
What is the decision height for a Cat III approach ?
IIIA: 100 ft IIIB: 50 ft IIIC: none
51
What is the IRVR requirement for a Cat III appraoch ?
IIIA: Not less than IRVR 200m IIIB: Not less than IRVR 75m IIIC: None
52
What is the width of the ILS Sensitive Area ?
137 meters either side of the centerline
53
What is the Specified Time Limit when it comes to Mandatory Reporting ?
96 hours (Europe requires 72 hours)
54
What is the TORA for runway 26 from S1 ?
2800m
55
What is the TORA for runway 26 from SL1 ?
2642m
56
What is the TORA for runway 26 from N1 ?
2279m
57
What is the TORA for runway 26 from A1/E1 ?
1854m
58
What is the TORA for runway 08 from W1/V1 ?
2800m
59
What is the TORA for runway 08 from L1/R1 ?
2128m
60
What is the TORA for runway 35/17 from the threshold ?
1800m
61
At what height are the following clouds ? Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus ?
20,000-45,000 ft
62
At what height are the following clouds ? Altocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus
6,500-20,000 ft
63
At what height are the following clouds ? Cumulus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus, Stratocumulus
Surface - 6,500 ft
64
What clouds are found at the following height ? 20,000-45,000 ft
Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus
65
What clouds are found at the following height ? 6,500-20,000 ft
Altocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus
66
What clouds are found at the following height ? Below 6,500 ft
Cumulus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus, Stratocumulus
67
If the visibility is 1000m, is if fog or mist ?
Mist. Fog is BELOW 1000m
68
What are the emergency frequencies ?
121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
69
When using the turn method to identify an aircraft, how many degrees must the turn be ?
At least 30 degrees
70
When using 1 minute time departure separation, how many degrees must the two departing tracks diverge ?
45 degrees
71
When using 2 minute departure separation, how much slower must the following aircraft be.
40kts or more
72
When using 5 minute departure separation, how much slower must the following aircraft be.
20kts or more
73
What is the MTOM for UK "Heavy" aircraft ?
162,000 kg or more (560,000+ is "Super")
74
What is the MTOM for UK "Upper Medium" aircraft ?
104,000 - 162,000 kg (neither included)
75
What is the MTOM for UK "Lower Medium" aircraft ?
40,000 - 104,000 kg (40 not included)
76
What is the MTOM for UK "Small" aircraft ?
17,000 - 40,000 kg (17 not included)
77
What is the MTOM for UK "Light" aircraft ?
17,000 kg or less
78
What is the MTOM for ICAO "Heavy" aircraft ?
136,000 kg or greater
79
What is the MTOM for ICAO "Medium" aircraft ?
7,000 kg - 136,000 kg (neither included)
80
What is the MTOM for ICAO "Light" aircraft ?
7,000 kg or less
81
What is the minimum length for a simple approach lighting system ?
420m
82
At what distance from the threshold is the wide bar of white lights, on a simple approach lighting system
300m
83
What is the distance between the lights on a simple approach lighting system ?
60m
84
What is the length of a High Intensity Approach Lighting System ?
900m
85
How far a distance does the supplementary approach lighting cover ?
300m
86
How far a distance does the yellow runway edge lights cover, when there is no centerline ?
600m (or 1/3 of the total runway length, whichever is less)
87
How long is the touchdown zone lighting ?
900m
88
How long is the red centerline lighting at the end of the runway ?
300m
89
How long is the alternating red/white centerline runway lighting ?
600m
90
What is the periods of display for hazard beacons ?
By Day: Vis < 3500m | By Night: During published hours of watch
91
What is the normal final approach speed for Group A aircraft ?
Vref 90 kts or less
92
What is the normal final approach speed for Group B aircraft ?
Vref 91-120 kts
93
What is the normal final approach speed for Group C aircraft ?
Vref 121-140 kts
94
What is the normal final approach speed for Group D aircraft ?
Vref 141-165 kts
95
What is the normal final approach speed for Group E aircraft ?
Vref 166-210 kts
96
What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category A aircraft ?
100 kts & 1.68 NM
97
What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category B aircraft ?
135 kts & 2.66 NM
98
What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category C aircraft ?
180 kts & 4.20 NM
99
What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category D aircraft ?
205 kts & 5.28 NM
100
What is the max circling speed and circling area for a Category E aircraft ?
240 kts & 6.94 NM
101
What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category A aircraft ?
MIN OC: 300 ft | Lowest OCH aal: 400 ft
102
What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category B aircraft ?
MIN OC: 300 ft | Lowest OCH aal: 500 ft
103
What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category C aircraft ?
MIN OC: 400 ft | Lowest OCH aal: 600 ft
104
What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category D aircraft ?
MIN OC: 400 ft | Lowest OCH aal: 700 ft
105
What is the minimum Obstacle Clearance and Obstacle Clearance Height withint a Visual Manoeuvring Area for a Category E aircraft ?
MIN OC: 500 ft | Lowest OCH aal: 800 ft
106
What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is "Good" ?
0.40 or above (95)
107
What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is "MEDIUM/GOOD" ?
0.36-0.39 (94)
108
What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is "MEDIUM" ?
0.30-0.35 (93)
109
What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is "MEDIUM/POOR" ?
0.26-0.29 (92)
110
What is the Measured co-efficient of Friction when the Braking Action is "POOR" ?
0.25 or below (91)

ADI numbers (possible questions for Written Assesment) (1 decks)

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