NUR 200 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Joint Commission?

A

Publishes national public safety goals

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2
Q

What did the Institute of Medicine (IOM) do?

A

“To Err is Human (2001)- report saysy it is unacceptable for patients to not be safe in healthcare

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3
Q

What does the American Nurses Association (ANA) do?

A

Advocates for healthcare reform, prioritizes access to high quality care for everyone

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4
Q

What is the Quality & Safe Education for Nurses (QSEN)?

A

A task force to improve nursing education, focus in graduate nurses being confident with safety

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5
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for Infants/Toddlers?

A

-Completely dependent
-Walk and manipulate objects before recognizing dangers
-Curious/explorers
-Puts objects in mouth

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6
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for Preschoolers?

A

-Play outside more, but better gross and fine motor skills, coordination, and balance

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7
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for School Aged Children?

A

-More outside activities lead to broken bones and muscle injuries
-Less fearful and more ready to try new things
-Wider school/neighborhood environments

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8
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for Adolescents?

A

-Peak physical, sensory, and psychomotor skills given feeling of strength and confidence
-Feel indestructible, risky behaviors

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9
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for Adults?

A

-Workplace injury or lifestyle related (drug/alcohol use, stress, carelessness, abuse, decline in strength and stamina)

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10
Q

What are developmental factors affecting safety for Older Adults?

A

-Physiological changes (reduced muscle strength and joint mobility, slower reflexes, decreased response to stimuli, sensory losses)
-Increased risks for falls, leading cause for accidental deaths, can have burns, car accidents

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11
Q

True or False:
In adults, leading cause for accidental deaths are unintentional poisionings

A

True

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12
Q

Who are the populations at risk?

A

-Smokers, substance abusers, risk-takers
-Confused folx due to stress or short term memory loss
-Language barriers, hearing and speech impairment
-Impaired strength with mobility, balance, and endurance issues
-Reduced physical stamina and depression, loss of control, helplessness
-Reduced cognitive awareness or immature development

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13
Q

What are hazards to avoid at home?

A

Posioning
Carbon dioxide
Scalds and burns
Suffocation/Asphyxiation
Fires
Firearms

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14
Q

What can a UAP do at home?

A

-Can ambulate with pt
-Can put on non skid socks
-Can make a clutter free zone

*CAN NOT ASSESS PT HOME

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15
Q

What are signs of posioning?

A

-Unusual stains or odors on clothes or skin
-Unusual (fruity) odor on breath
-Burns around mouth
-Drowsiness, stomach pain, vomiting, trouble breathing, sweating, drooling, irritability, signs of fear, sudden behavior changes
-Drugs or containers open or out of place

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16
Q

What are hazard preventions for toxins?

A

-clothing removal
-shower
-gloves/handling
-check with workplace

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17
Q

What are take home toxins?

A

hazardous substances transported from work to home

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18
Q

What are community hazards?

A

-Motor vehicle accidents
-Pathogens ( a microorganism capable of causing an illness)
-Pollution (any harmful chemical or waste material discharge into the air, water, or soil
-Electrical storms, floods, heat

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19
Q

What are healthcare facility hazards?

A

-Organizational safety problems
-Errors/failing to rescue; Falls
-Equipment related accidents
-Fires and electrical hazards
-Alarm safety (failure to recognize and respond to actionable clinical alarms in a timely manner”
-Healthcare culture (short staff, less time to provide care, quality of nursing care impacts pt outcomes)

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20
Q

What are Never Events?

A

(Serious Reportable Events): healthcare-acquired complications that cause serious injury or death to a patient and should never happen in the hospital

*Characteristics= clearly identifiable and measurable, serious, usually preventable

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21
Q

What is root cause analysis?

A

Tries to solve problems by identifying and correcting the underlying event (Not aimed to get anyone in trouble, but to improve quality of car/change processes)

*Questions asked= What Happened? Why did it Happen? What can be done to prevent it from happening again?

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22
Q

What does CUS stand for?

A

C- State your concern
U- Say why you are uncomfortable
S- State why this is a safety issue

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23
Q

What are key components of the nursing culture of safety?

A

-Team empowerment (everyone gets the chance to contribute)
-Communication (open and honest)
-Transparency (be unites, working on facts only, eliminating rumors)
-Accountability (claiming ownership for our errors)

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24
Q

True or False:
A nurse does not need to request for restraints

A

False- they do need a request

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25
Q

True or False:
LPN and UAP cannot remove restraints themselves

A

True

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26
Q

How often do you need to assess circulation, skin breakdown, and patient needs while in restraints?

A

Every 2 hours

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27
Q

What are hazards to healthcare workers?

A

-Back injury
-Needle sticks
-Radiation Exposure
-Violence

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28
Q

What does RACE mean?

A

Rescue
Alarm
Confine
Extinguish

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29
Q

What does PASS mean?

A

Pull the pin
Aim at base of fire
Squeeze handle
Sweep side to side

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30
Q

What does mobility mean?

A

Body movement

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31
Q

What does fitness mean?

A

Ability to carry out ADLs with vigor and alertness

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32
Q

What does physical activity mean?

A

Bodily movement produced by the contraction of skeletal muscle that increases expenditure above baseline

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33
Q

What does exercise mean?

A

Planned, structured, and repetitive and purposeful for improving or maintaining physical fitness, performance, or health

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34
Q

What are musculoskeletal components that are required for movement?

A

Bones
Muscles
Tendons
Ligaments

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35
Q

What are the 3 types of muscles?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

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36
Q

What are tendons?

A

Fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone

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37
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Fibrous tissues that connect most movable joints

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38
Q

What do nerves do?

A

Control the movement of the musculoskeletal system

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39
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

The housekeepers (CLEAN out the old or damaged tissue)

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40
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

The construction crew (repair and BUILD new bone)

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41
Q

What are the different joints?

A

-Synarthroses (immoveable- cranial bones)
-Amphiarthroses (limited movement)
-Diarthroses/synovial joints (free moving)

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42
Q

What does body mechanics mean?

A

The way we move our body

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43
Q

True or False:
The wider the stance, the lower the center of gravity, the more difficulty balancing

A

True

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44
Q

What does coordination mean?

A

Controlled movements by the brain and msucles

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45
Q

What is isometric exercise?

A

-Against an immovable surface
-Involves muscle contraction without motion
(Ex: wall sits)

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46
Q

What is isotonic exercise?

A

-Weight training with free weights
-Involves movement of the joint during the muscle contraction
(Ex: pull ups, push ups, bicep curls w/ dumbells)

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47
Q

What is isokinetic exercise?

A

-Machine that is a constant preset speed
-Performed with specialized apparatuses that provide variable resistance to movement
(Ex: treadmill, leg press)

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48
Q

What is aerobic exerxcise?

A

-Brisk walking, jogging, bicycling
-Acquires energy from metabolic pathways that use oxygen- amount taken in exceeds the amount required to perform the activity
-Large muscle groups with continuous movement

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49
Q

What is anaerobic exercise?

A

-Occurs when the amount of oxygen taken into the body does not meet the amount of oxygen required to perform the activity
(Ex: crossfit, HIIT, sprinting)

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50
Q

What are the risks associated with exercise?

A

-Cardiac
-Musculoskeletal injury
-Dehydration
-Temperature regulation problems

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51
Q

What is flexibility training?

A

Stretching before/after exercise
-Cools down muscles and helps maintain stability
-Yoga, pilates, etc

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52
Q

What is resistance training?

A

Movement against resistance
-Builds strength (less reps more weight)
-Builds endurance (more reps, less weight)

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53
Q

What is aerobic conditioning?

A

How hard one is exercising
-Intensity, duration, frequency, mode
(Ex: target heart rate method)

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54
Q

What are factors that affect mobility?

A

-Developmental stage
-Nutrition
-Lifestyle
-Environmental factors
-Diseases and abnormalities

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55
Q

What are safety nursing interventions?

A

-Promoting exercise/assisting with ambulation
-Prevent Injury from exercise
-Positioning patients
-Turning patient every 2 hrs
-Transferring clients

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56
Q

What are standards in nutrition?

A

A reference for nutrient intake thought to meet the nutritional needs of most healthy population groups (food labels)

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57
Q

What are food guides?

A

They specify the number of daily servings of foods needed to make healthy good choices (more practical)

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58
Q

What are Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)

A

Promote the consumption of micronutrients and macronutrients

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59
Q

What is adequate intake?

A

The amount of food consumed by healthy people

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60
Q

What is tolerable upper intake level?

A

The max amount that we can intake in a day w/o adverse affects

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61
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range?

A

Percentage of protein, fat, and carbs that are associated with a reduction in chronic illness

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62
Q

What does the USDA dietary guidelines do?

A

Provide information on choosing a nutritious diet, maintaining healthy weight, achieve adequate exercise, and good safety

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63
Q

What is anabolism?

A

FORMATION of larger molecules from smaller ones

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64
Q

What is catabolism?

A

the BREAKDOWN of larger molecules into smaller components

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65
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

-Primary energy source to muscles and organs
-gives us a feeling of fullness
-Sugars (sodas)
-Monosaccharides, polysaccharides, complex carb (healthiest; whole grains, vegetables)

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66
Q

What are proteins?

A

-Tissue building
-Helps with metabolism
-Helps with immune system function
-Helps with fluid and acid base balance
-Secondary energy source
-Nitrogen balance
-Made up of amino acids

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67
Q

What is a complete amino acid?

A

Obtained from animal sources

68
Q

What is an incomplete amino acid?

A

Obtained from nuts and plants

69
Q

What are lipids?

A

-Fat
-Insoluble in water
-Have them in moderation
-Make things taste better (butter)
-Back up energy source
-Organ/insulation protection
-Have HDL

70
Q

What are the types of lipids?

A

Sterols, glycerides, and phospholipids

71
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

Their purpose is to regulate body functions, only needed in small amounts (include vitamins and minerals)

72
Q

What are vitamins?

A

Organic substances necessary for metabolism or preventing a particular deficiency disease

73
Q

What are fat soluble vitamins?

A

A,D,E,K

74
Q

What are water soluble vitamins?

A

B, C

75
Q

What are minerals?

A

inorganic elements found in nature that occur naturally in foods or as additives/supplements

76
Q

What is the purpose of water in the body?

A

-Solvent for chemical processes
-Transports substances
-Form for tissues
-Lubricant
-Temperature control

77
Q

Where can you find Vitamin A?

A

Egg, leafy green vegetables (spinach, kale, broccoli), milk

78
Q

Where can you find Vitamin D?

A

Fish (salmon, cod, grouper, trout), milk, sunlight

79
Q

Where can you find Vitamin E?

A

Vegetable oils, nuts (peanuts, almonds, pecans, walnuts), fish, green leafy vegetables

80
Q

Where can you find Vitamin K?

A

Green leafy vegetables, liver

81
Q

Where can you find Magnesium?

A

Whole grain (complex carbs), nuts, legumes, green leafy vegetables

81
Q

Where can you find calcium?

A

Dairy products, green leafy vegetables, legumes (beans, kidney beans, black beans), nuts

82
Q

Where can you find Potassium?

A

Fruits, vegetables, meats, legumes, shellfish

83
Q

Where can you find sodium?

A

Table salt, meat, baking soda/powder

84
Q

What is the Basic Metabolic Rate (BMR)

A

Amount of energy required at rest (prolonged physical exertion, body composition, body and environmental temp, being ill, growth spurts

85
Q

What is nutrition like for Infants to 1 year olds?

A

-Higher protein and carbs needed because they are tissue building
-More fluid because BMR is higher

86
Q

What is nutrition like for toddlers?

A

-Diets are deficient in nutrients
-Picky eaters
-Offer a variety of foods

87
Q

What is nutrition like for preschoolers?

A

-Concern that they will learn bad habits because they are at school
-Don’t want to overfeed them, but their appetite will fit whatever they need

88
Q

What is nutrition like for School Age Children?

A

-Must get adequate vitamins and minerals- low fat/salt/sugar foods
-Have less parental control, concerned that they are not getting an adequate diet

89
Q

What is nutrition like for Adolescents?

A

-Active and eat a lot of “ready to go” meals
-Make sure they have healthy snacks available

90
Q

What does nutrition look like for Young and Middle Age adults?

A

-Tend to follow habits learned earlier in life
-BMR decreases in middle adults (make it harder to lose weight)
-Encourage nutrition and exercise, otherwise they may potentially be unhealthy and obese

91
Q

What is nutrition like for Older Adults?

A

-Need fewer kcal due to lean body mass, decreased physical activity, and decreased BMR
-Need more dairy, fiber, and water
-Have a lack of interest in food because their taste buds diminish
-Reduced thirst
-Have chronic diseases
-Potentially have a lack of teeth, or have gum disease

92
Q

What are factors that affect nutrition?

A

-Dietary Patterns
-Work Environment
-Cooking Method
-Caffeine
-Using food to relieve stress
-Tobacco use
-Alcohol
-Ethnic, cultural, and religious practices
-Disease processes and functional limitations
-medications
-Special diets

93
Q

What BMI is considered overweight?

A

25.0-29.9

94
Q

What BMI is considered Class I obesity?

A

30.0-34.9

95
Q

What BMI is considered Class II obesity?

A

35.0-39.9

96
Q

What BMI is considered Class III obesity?

A

40.0 or higher

97
Q

What can UAPs do nutritionally?

A

-Can feed pt
-Can position pt for feeding
-Can order food (not create diet)
-Can take vitals
-Can measure urine intake and output
-Can take height and weight

98
Q

What is oxygenation?

A

How well the cells, tissues, and organs of the body are supplied with oxygen

99
Q

What are the 2 processes that oxygenate blood?

A

Inspiration and Ventilation

100
Q

What is Respiration?

A

-Exchange of oxygen/carbon dioxide
-Alveolar capillary/capillary cell membrane

101
Q

What is Ventilation?

A

Movement of air into/out of the lungs

102
Q

What are the parts of the pulmonary system?

A

Airway
Lungs
Nasal passages
Mouth
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchiloes

103
Q

What are the parts of the upper airway?

A

-Pharynx
-Trachea
-Epiglottis (closes off during swallowing and opens to allow air movement)

103
Q

What are the parts of the lower airway?

A

CONSIDERED STERILE
-Below larynx (epiglottis)
-Trachea
-Bronchi
-Bronchioles

104
Q

True or False:
Hyperventilation means not enough CO2

A

False- It means too much CO2 because you are breathing too fast

105
Q

True or False:
Hypoventilation means not enough CO2

A

True

106
Q

What is lung compliance?

A

The ease of lung inflation

107
Q

Where does External Respiration occur?

A

At lungs (alveolar-capillary gas exchange)

*O2 travels across membrane into the blood of the capillaries, CO2 diffuses out of blood into alveoli to be exhaled

108
Q

Where does internal respiration occur?

A

In the blood, out to the body (capillary-tissue gas exchange)

*O2 diffuses from the blood to the tissues and cells, CO2 waste product- transported to lungs and exhaled

109
Q

What factors can influence pulmonary function?

A

Environment
Lifestyle
Medication (can depress respirations
Upper respiratory infections (typically viral, not bacterial)
Lower respiratory infections
Pulmonary system abnormalities (rib fracture, inflammation, etc)
CNS abnormalities
Neuromuscular abnormalities
Pulmonary circulation abnormalities

110
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Occurs when there is inadequate oxygenation of organs and tissues

111
Q

What are late signs of hypoxia?

A

Cyanosis

112
Q

What are early signs of hypoxia?

A

Restlessness, anxious

113
Q

When a patient is experiencing dyspnea/respiratory effort, what do you do?

A

Put them in Fowler’s or Semi-Fowler’s position

114
Q

What does pulse oximetry do?

A

Measures the percentage of hemoglobin molecules that are carrying oxygen (Normal is 95-100)

115
Q

What is Eupnea?

A

Normal breathing
12-20 breathes per minute

116
Q

What is Tachypnea?

A

Fast breathing
> 24 breathes per minute

117
Q

What is Bradypnea?

A

Slow breathing
< 10 breathes per minute

118
Q

What is apnea?

A

Absence of breathing

119
Q

What is Kussmaul’s breathing pattern?

A

Normal, but increased

120
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern?

A

Increase in depth, gradual decrease in depth, apnea… (brain injury)

121
Q

What is stridor?

A

High-pitches, harsh, crowing inspiratory sounds that occur due to partial obstruction of the larynx

122
Q

What do you assess with sputum?

A

-Appearance (color, thick/thin)
-Odor (Ex: metallic taste)
-Amount timing (morning or night)

123
Q

What do you assess with a cough?

A

-Wet or Dry?
-Productive? (getting mucus up)
-Better or Worse?

124
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Difficulty breathing while laying flat

125
Q

True or False:
Mobilizing secretions is the #1 thing to do to prevent pneumonia

A

True

126
Q

True or False:
UAP can teach patient coughing and deep breathing

A

False- they can remind pt to drink and deep breathe, but not teach

127
Q

True or False:
Bladder and urethra are considered to be sterile

A

True

128
Q

Where is the kidney located?

A

Retroperitoneal
(Posterior abdominal wall)

129
Q

What is the function of the kidneys?

A

-Filter metabolic waste from blood stream as urine
-Help regulate blood volume, BP, electrolytes, and acid-base balance
-Produce erythrpoietin, secrete enzyme renin, activate Vitmain D3

130
Q

What is the order of the urinary system?

A

Kidney –> Ureter –> Bladder –> Urethra

131
Q

What do nephrons do?

A

Found in the kidney, help form urine

132
Q

What do ureters do?

A

Transport urine through ureters

133
Q

What does the bladder do?

A

Store urine

134
Q

What does the urethra do?

A

Transports urine out of body

135
Q

True or False:
Men are more likely to get UTIs because they have a smaller urethra

A

False- Women do because they have a smaller urethra

136
Q

What is micturition?

A

(Voiding) To start the stream of urine; to urinate; release urine from the bladder

137
Q

What can inhibit Micturition?

A

-Anxiety
-Lack of time
-Lack of privacy
-Loss of dignity due to need for assistance
-Cultural influences such as same gender

138
Q

What can nurses do to encourage pt to pee?

A

Increase fluid intake
Turning on faucet while in bathroom
Privacy if possible
-Pour warm water over perineum area to stimulate pee

139
Q

How much urine does an adult bladder typically hold?

A

200-450 mL

140
Q

How much urine does a child’s bladder usually hold?

A

50-200 mL

141
Q

What is the process of urinary elimination?

A

-Internal urethral sphincter closes so bladder can fill
-Distention activates stress receptors in bladder wall
-Signaling to the voiding reflex center the urge to void
-Contraction of detrusor muscle, internal sphincter relaxes
-Once ready to urinate, conscious relaxation of external urethral sphincter occurs
-Detrusor muscle relaxes and bladder begins to fill again

142
Q

How much urine does the kidney usually produce?

A

~1500 mL a day (most people void 5-6 times daily)

143
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

A measurement that tells us how diluted or concentrated urine is) 1.002 (diluted) to 1.030 (concentrated)

144
Q

If your urine is diluted, what color will it be?

A

Pale yellow (hydrated)

145
Q

If your urine is concentrated, what color will it be?

A

Cloudy, dark yellow (dehydrated)

146
Q

True or False:
Toilet training is highly variable and influenced by family and culture

A

True- usually seen between 18 and 36 months

147
Q

What is Enuresis (incontinence)?

A

Occasional involuntary passage of urine
-Normal up to early school years
-Usually occurs when child is distracted

148
Q

What is nocturnal enuresis?

A

Nighttime bed wetting
-Can go to 6 or 7 years old, but usually controlled from 3-5
-Caused by insufficient level of ADG, pressure on the bladder, urinary infection, and emotional stress

149
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Frequent urination after going to bed (waking up in the middle of the night to urinate)

150
Q

What causes bladder infections?

A

Incomplete emptying of the bladder

151
Q

What causes urine leakage?

A

Not emptying the bladder enough

152
Q

What is a diuretic?

A

Increases urine production
(Ex: caffeine)
*Pt on diuretics are HUGE fall risks due to urgency to pee

153
Q

What happens when you consume alcohol?

A

Release of ADH is impaired, resulting in increased urine production

154
Q

True or False:
Physical activity/dehydration causes kidneys to hold water

A

True

155
Q

True or False:
Increased blood flow impairs filtration and urine production

A

False- *Decreased blood flow

156
Q

What happens to the kidneys when you have a systemic infection?

A

Kidneys reabsorb and retain water

157
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Painful or difficult urination due to infection, obstruction, or meds

158
Q

What is frequency?

A

Need to urinate at short intervals

159
Q

What is hematuria?

A

Blood in urine due to trauma, kidney stones, infection, or menstruation

160
Q

What is urgency?

A

Sudden, uncontrollable need to urinate

161
Q

What is anuria?

A

Absence of urine, UO < 100 mL/24 hrs
*Common in pts with chronic kidney disease/dialysis

162
Q

What is oliguria?

A

Urine output less than 400 mL/24 hrs due to dehydration

163
Q
A