NURS 317 Unit 6 Pharm Chapter 16 Flashcards

1
Q

NSAIDs have antiinflammatory, antipyretic, and analgesic properties.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

A

A) TRUE

Rationale:NSAIDs are used to reduce inflammation, lower fever, and also have analgesic properties. They can also be used to treat dysmenorrhea.

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2
Q

Rheumatoid factor (RF) interacts with circulating IgG to form immune complexes that deposit in the joints precipitating an inflammatory reaction.

A) FALSE

B) TRUE

A

B) TRUE
Rationale:Clients with rheumatoid arthritis have high levels of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody to immunoglobulin G (IgG). RF interacts with circulating IgG to form immune complexes, which tend to deposit in the synovial fluid of joints, as well as in the eye and other small vessels.

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3
Q

A client experiences intense knee pain due to arthritis and the use of a hyaluronidase derivative is being considered. What assessment finding must be considered?

A) The client’s adherence to previous medication regimens

B) Whether the client is comfortable having an injection into the knee joint

C) Allergies to shellfish or diagnostic contrast solution

D) The client’s expectations for future mobility

A

B) Whether the client is comfortable having an injection into the knee joint

Rationale:Hyaluronidase is injected directly into the knee once a week for 3 weeks to relieve arthritis pain in the knee when unresponsive to conventional treatment. Adherence is less of an issue because of the infrequent administration. An allergy to shellfish or contrast dye is not a contraindication. The client’s expectations must be assessed, but this would not be as significant an issue as the delivery method.

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4
Q

A parent has sought care from the nurse practitioner to treat a child’s fever. The nurse practitioner is most likely to recommend what drug?

A) Ibuprofen

B) Naproxen

C) Indomethacin

D) Acetaminophen

A

D) Acetaminophen

Rationale:Acetaminophen is the most frequently used drug for managing fever and pain in children. Ibuprofen and naproxen are both effective treatments for pain and fever in children, but they are not the most commonly used medications. Indomethacin is not indicated for fever control.

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5
Q

The nurse has conducted a health education session for new parents. After learning about the safe and effective use of antiinflammatories, which statement by the parents indicates effective teaching?

A) “We need to read the labels carefully for the ingredients and dosages.”

B) “We can temporarily give our child extra doses of acetaminophen if we need to do so.”

C) “We need to give the drug on an empty stomach or 2 hours after meals.”

D) “We should use aspirin if our child develops symptoms of the flu.”

A

A) “We need to read the labels carefully for the ingredients and dosages.”

Rationale:Antiinflammatory agents can be found in a number of combination products to treat pain, cold, flu, and nasal congestion. It is important for parents to read the label of each medication carefully to avoid overdosing the child with multiple products containing the same antiinflammatory agent. Children are more susceptible to the GI and CNS effects of these drugs so the drugs should be given with food or meals. Aspirin for flu-like symptoms in children is to be avoided due to the increased risk for Reye syndrome. Acetaminophen is the most commonly used antiinflammatory drug for children. However, parents need to be cautioned to avoid overdosage, which can lead to severe hepatotoxicity.

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6
Q

A client has been given acetaminophen to reduce a fever. How will this be achieved?

A) Acting directly on thermoregulatory cells in the hypothalamus

B) Reducing inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandins

C) Causing vasodilation, allowing heat to be expelled from the body

D) Increasing fluid reabsorption in the kidney to reduce fever

A

A) Acting directly on thermoregulatory cells in the hypothalamus

Rationale:Acetaminophen functions by acting directly on thermoregulatory cells in the hypothalamus to reduce fever. It does not impact kidney function, has no effect on vasodilation, and is not an antiinflammatory medication.

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7
Q

A client’s care provider has recommended the use of acetaminophen to treat the client’s pain. What should the nurse teach the client about the safe and effective use of acetaminophen?

A) Avoid drinking grapefruit juice with acetaminophen.

B) Avoid excessive doses because there is no antidote.

C) Avoid taking more than 4,000 mg in any 24-hour period.

D) Take the medication with food to prevent GI upset.

A

C) Avoid taking more than 4,000 mg in any 24-hour period.

Rationale:Clients should avoid taking more than 4,000 mg of acetaminophen daily to avoid hepatic damage. Acetylcysteine is an antidote for overdose, and there is no need to avoid grapefruit juice. GI upset is rare, so there is no particular need to take it with food.

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8
Q

Gold compounds are commonly used as first-line therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

A) FALSE

B) TRUE

A

A) FALSE

Rationale:Gold compounds are used for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who does not respond to the usual antiinflammatory agents and the conditions worsen despite weeks or months of standard pharmacologic treatment.

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9
Q

A client is receiving auranofin as treatment for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should expect this drug to be given by which route?

A) Intramuscular

B) Subcutaneous

C) Oral

D) Intravenous

A

C) Oral

Rationale:Auranofin is administered orally. Aurothioglucose and gold sodium thiomalate are given IM. Auranofin is not given via the subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous routes

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10
Q

A client with acute joint inflammation tells the nurse, “I’ve been taking acetaminophen as it’s ordered on the bottle, but my swelling and inflammation doesn’t seem to be getting better.” What should the nurse teach the client?

A) “Acetaminophen’s only clinical use is for pain treatment.”

B) “It takes some people a few weeks to feel a difference.”

C) “Keep taking it as ordered, and watch for any signs of bleeding.”

D) “Acetaminophen has no effect on inflammation.”

A

D) “Acetaminophen has no effect on inflammation.”

Rationale:Acetaminophen has antipyretic and analgesic properties, but no antiinflammatory properties. Acetaminophen does not increase a person’s risk for bleeding. Relief of pain and fever occurs quickly.

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11
Q

A client is alarmed to be prescribed celecoxib, stating, “I heard on TV that celecoxib causes heart attacks.” How should the nurse best respond?

A) “A final decision from the FDA on whether celecoxib is safe will be released in a few years.”

B) “As long as you take your heart medications, you’ll be fine.”

C) “That was a scare that was entirely created by the media.”

D) “This drug hasn’t been definitively proven to be unsafe, so it’s still available.”

A

D) “This drug hasn’t been definitively proven to be unsafe, so it’s still available.

Rationale:Celecoxib remains on the market despite a 2 to 3 times increase in CV events because further research called into question these findings and the drug continues to be monitored. There is no promise of when or if a final decision will be released by the FDA. The media played a role in the public response, but it did not wholly create the controversy.

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12
Q

Which conditions would contraindicate the use of gold salts? Select all that apply.

A) Uncontrolled diabetes

B) Hypertension

C) Blood dyscrasias

D) Asthma

E) Cardiac arrhythmias

A

A) Uncontrolled diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Blood dyscrasias

Rationale:Gold salts are contraindicated in the presence of severe diabetes, congestive heart failure, severe debilitation, renal or hepatic impairment, hypertension, blood dyscrasias, recent radiation treatment, history of toxic levels of heavy metals, and pregnancy or lactation. Gold salts are not contraindicated in the presence of asthma or cardiac arrhythmias.

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13
Q

A client has developed a fever. What aspect of the client’s health history would contraindicate the safe and effective use of acetaminophen?

A) The client had an allergic reaction to penicillin during a previous admission.

B) The client has hepatitis C and abuses alcohol.

C) The client’s most recent hospital admission was because of seizures, which were treated with benzodiazepines.

D) The client was prescribed diclofenac for back pain and did not experience pain relief.

A

B) The client has hepatitis C and abuses alcohol.

Rationale:Liver disease and alcoholism contraindicate the use of acetaminophen. An allergy to penicillin would not pose a problem. Similarly, a history of seizures, benzodiazepine use, and diclofenac would not rule out the use of acetaminophen.

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14
Q

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is relieved to have less pain and inflammation since a change in medications. The nurse is aware that the new medication inhibits phagocytosis and prevents the release of lysosomal enzymes. What medication classification is this client receiving?

A) Salicylates

B) DMARDs

C) Gold salts

D) NSAIDs

A

C) Gold salts

Rationale:Gold salts inhibit phagocytosis. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Salicylates block prostaglandin activity. DMARDs act by a variety of mechanisms to address inflammation but do not inhibit phagocytosis.

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15
Q

A child with juvenile arthritis has been prescribed auranofin 0.125 mg/kg/day PO. The client weighs 88 lbs. How many milligrams of auranofin should the nurse administer each day?
____________mg

A

5 mg

A child with juvenile arthritis has been prescribed auranofin 0.125 mg/kg/day PO. The client weighs 88 lbs. How many milligrams of auranofin should the nurse administer each day?
mg

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16
Q

A client’s history reveals an allergy to sulfonamides. The nurse understands that which drug would be contraindicated?

A) Diclofenac

B) Celecoxib

C) Ibuprofen

D) Naproxen

A

B) Celecoxib

Rationale:Celecoxib is contraindicated for use in clients who are allergic to sulfonamides. Ibuprofen, naproxen, and diclofenac are not contraindicated in the client with a sulfonamide allergy

17
Q

A client with a history of chronic pain is scheduled to undergo a colonoscopy. What health education should the nurse provide the client?

A) “Some clients have some discomfort during a colonoscopy, but the provider will likely give you an antiinflammatory before it.”

B) “It’s very important that you write down every drug that you’re allergic to and bring it to your appointment.”

C) “Make sure not to take any Tylenol for at least 3 days before the day of the procedure.”

D) “Confirm with your provider, but you’ll likely have to stop taking aspirin 1 week before the procedure.”

A

D) “Confirm with your provider, but you’ll likely have to stop taking aspirin 1 week before the procedure.”

Rationale:Salicylates are contraindicated for clients who have had surgery or invasive procedures within 1 week because of the risk for increased bleeding. Thus the nurse would inform the client that they can resume taking the aspirin after 1 week. There is no need to avoid Tylenol, and the client’s allergies do not necessarily need to be written down by the client. Antiinflammatories may or may not be given before the procedure.

18
Q

What salicylates would be appropriate for treating inflammation in a client with ulcerative colitis? Select all that apply.

A) Olsalazine

B) Balsalazide

C) Aspirin

D) Mesalamine

E) Salsalate

A

A) Olsalazine
B) Balsalazide
D) Mesalamin

Rationale:Salsalate is used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation in adults but is not indicated for use as ulcerative colitis treatment. Balsalazide can be used to treat mild to moderate acute ulcerative colitis in adults. Olsalazine and mesalamine are used to treat ulcerative colitis and other inflammatory bowel diseases in adults. Aspirin would be inappropriate because of the risk for GI bleeding.

19
Q

A neonate born at 28 weeks’ gestation has been diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosis. The nurse should anticipate what action?

A) Administration of indomethacin IV

B) IV administration of naproxen

C) Meloxicam administration

D) Intramuscular injection of ketorolac

A

A) Administration of indomethacin IV

Rationale:Patent ductus arteriosis can be treated with IV indomethacin in premature neonates. Ketorolac and meloxicam are not used for this purpose. Naproxen does not treat this health problem and is only administered orally.

20
Q

A client with intractable rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed a gold salt. What medication should the nurse look for on the client’s medication administration record?

A) Celecoxib

B) Anakinra

C) Mesalamine

D) Auranofin

A

D) Auranofin

Rationale:Auranofin is a gold salt. Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor. Mesalamine is a salicylate. Anakinra is an interleukin-1 receptor antagonist.

21
Q

A client is to receive etanercept. What characteristic of the client may contraindicate the use of this medication?

A) Occasional dysphagia

B) Fear of injections

C) Employment involving heavy machinery

D) Lack of social support

A

B) Fear of injections

Rationale:Etanercept can only be administered subcutaneously. Because it is given subcutaneously, dysphagia is not a problem. CNS effects are unlikely, so operating machinery is not dangerous. A client’s lack of social support must be addressed, but does not necessarily preclude treatment.

22
Q

A client with dysmenorrhea has been prescribed naproxen 1,250 mg PO b.i.d. What is the nurse’s best action?

A) Assess the client’s baseline renal and hepatic status.

B) Question the prescriber about the frequency.

C) Question the prescriber about the dose.

D) Question the prescriber about the route

A

C) Question the prescriber about the dose.

Rationale:For adults, naproxen is given 250 to 500 mg PO b.i.d. As a result, the nurse should question the prescriber about the dose before proceeding.

23
Q

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed penicillamine. What should the nurse teach the client about this medication?

A) Improvement in symptoms may take 2 to 3 months

B) Monthly injections are necessary

C) The client should avoid acetaminophen during treatment

D) Weekly injections are necessary

A

A) Improvement in symptoms may take 2 to 3 months

Rationale:It may take 2 to 3 months before a response to penicillamine is noted. It is given orally, and there is no contraindication with Tylenol.

24
Q

The nurse would question the physician who prescribed NSAIDs for which client?

A) The client diagnosed with peptic ulcers

B) The client diagnosed with psoriasis

C) The postpartum woman who had a vaginal birth

D) The client diagnosed with diabetes

A

A) The client diagnosed with peptic ulcers

Rationale:The client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease is at risk for further GI irritation and bleeding if given NSAIDs, so the nurse would question the physician who ordered this drug. Clients with diabetes and psoriasis may take NSAIDs safely and the nurse would not question the order. NSAIDs are often ordered for pain control for clients following vaginal birth, and this order need not to be questioned.

25
Q

Blockage of COX-2 receptors results in sodium retention and increased blood pressure.

A) FALSE

B) TRUE

A

A) FALSE

Rationale:Blockage of COX-1 receptors leads to sodium retention and increased blood pressure. COX-2 is active at sites of trauma or injury when more prostaglandin is needed. Recent studies suggest that they may block some protective responses in the body, such as vasodilation and inhibited platelet clumping, which is protective if vessel narrowing or blockage occurs; blocking this effect could lead to cardiovascular problems

26
Q

A client with chronic pain has been prescribed a salicylate. The nurse should expect what medication on this client’s medication administration record?

A) Diflunisal

B) Piroxicam

C) Celecoxib

D) Indomethacin

A

A) Diflunisal

Rationale:Diflunisal is an example of a salicylate. Indomethacin, piroxicam, and celecoxib are examples of NSAIDs.

27
Q

African Americans are at lower risk for developing GI adverse effects with NSAIDs.

A) TRUE

B) FALSE

A

B) FALSE

Rationale:African Americans have an increased risk of developing GI adverse effects with any antiinflammatory agent.

28
Q

An adult client has been admitted to the emergency department after deliberately overdosing on approximately 50 g of Tylenol. The nurse should prepare for what intervention?

A) Administration of acetylcysteine as prescribed

B) Watchful waiting

C) Intravenous administration of Lactated Ringer’s

D) Administration of naloxone as prescribed

A

A) Administration of acetylcysteine as prescribed

Rationale:Acetylcysteine is the antidote to acetaminophen overdose. Naloxone treats opioid overdoses. Given the high dose of acetaminophen, watchful waiting would be inadequate. Lactated Ringer’s would not be therapeutically beneficial.

29
Q

A client who is taking salicylates comes to the emergency department for evaluation. What assessment findings should lead the nurse to suspect acute salicylate toxicity? Select all that apply.

A) Tinnitus

B) Diarrhea

C) Muscle spasms

D) Agitation

E) Respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute

A

C) Muscle spasms
D) Agitation
E) Respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute

Rationale:Signs of acute salicylate toxicity include tachypnea, excitement, and tetany (muscle spasms). Diarrhea and tinnitus are not expected.