Nursing Care

Question 1

The nurse is preparing a client to treat macrocytic anaemia. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer the prescribed vitamin supplement.
B. Obtain a focused nutritional assessment.
C. Obtain a consultation with the nutritionist.
D. Review the laboratory results for baseline.

Answer 1

D. Review the laboratory results for baseline.

Question 2

The nurse is preparing to define quality in healthcare for a nursing student. Which statement should the nurse include?
A. “Quality refers to reducing the cost of healthcare for the client.”
B. “Quality refers to protecting clients from risk and harm while they are receiving care.”
C. “Quality refers to a nurse integrating morals and values into client care.”
D. “Quality refers to how well health services achieve the desired outcomes for a client or population.”

Answer 2

D. “Quality refers to how well health services achieve the desired outcomes for a client or population.”

Question 3

The nurse is creating a care plan for an 88-year-old female client on a medical unit for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which intervention(s) should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A. Instruct the health assistant to strain all urine
B. Communicate with the provider if the client becomes confused
C. Offer toileting with each client encounter
D. Put “high fall risk” signage on the client’s door
E. Communicate with the health assistant to record intake and output once per day

Answer 3

B. Communicate with the provider if the client becomes confused
C. Offer toileting with each client encounter
D. Put “high fall risk” signage on the client’s door

Question 4

The nurse is caring for a 95-year-old client with dementia and multiple pressure injuries of advanced stage. The client is being treated for sepsis related to her infected wounds. Which consult(s) should the nurse expect for this client? Select all that apply.
A. Psychiatry
B. Wound Care
C. Infectious Disease
D. Surgery
E. Nutrition

Answer 4

B. Wound Care
C. Infectious Disease
D. Surgery
E. Nutrition

Question 5

The nurse has chosen a quantitative research design for their study. Which information is correct regarding this design method? Select all that apply.
A. Quantitative research is used to answer more “what is” types of questions.
B. Data for a quantitative research design comes from a formal experiment.
C. Quantitative research aims to find the cause and effect relationship.
D. Quantitative research designs are systematic and objective.
E. Quantitative research shows a relationship between two or more variables.
F. Quantitative research designs are used to understand more about a population.

Answer 5

A. Quantitative research is used to answer more “what is” types of questions.
B. Data for a quantitative research design comes from a formal experiment.
C. Quantitative research aims to find the cause and effect relationship.
D. Quantitative research designs are systematic and objective.
E. Quantitative research shows a relationship between two or more variables.

Question 6

The nurse educator is preparing a presentation on the use of SBAR to improve the quality and safety of clients on the unit. When using the SBAR tool, the following “what led to the current situation,” is an example of which part of SBAR?

Answer 6

Background

Question 7

The nurse educator is preparing a presentation on the use of SBAR to improve the quality and safety of clients on the unit. When using the SBAR tool, the following “the nurse will provide a potential solution,” is an example of which part of SBAR?

Answer 7

Recommendation

Question 8

The post-anaesthesia care nurse has received a client from the operating room in the unit (PACU). Which activities should the nurse anticipate performing? Select all that apply.
A. Assess respiratory status
B. Perform surgical instrument counts
C. Assess Pain
D. Cardiovascular Assessment
E. Assess Urinary output
F. Obtaining surgical consent
G. Assess Level of Consciousness (LOC)
H. Assess temperature

Answer 8

A. Assess respiratory status
C. Assess Pain
D. Cardiovascular Assessment
E. Assess Urinary output
G. Assess Level of Consciousness (LOC)
H. Assess temperature

Question 9

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chronic stable angina. The client has a history of smoking, hypertension, and hyperlipidaemia. Which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority?
A. Ineffective health maintenance related to hyperlipidaemia
B. Decreased cardiac tissue perfusion related to coronary artery disease
C. Deficient knowledge related to lack of information regarding CAD
D. Risk for decreased cardiac output related to hyperlipidaemia

Answer 9

B. Decreased cardiac tissue perfusion related to coronary artery disease

Question 10

A pediatric client presents to the emergency department in no acute distress for a scaling rash with a gray coating and fever. After a nurse triages this client, what is the next most appropriate action?
A. Report the case to the board of health
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen
D. Move the client to a private room

Answer 10

D. Move the client to a private room

This client has signs of diphtheria, a contagious disease. The nurse should move this client to a private room and be sure to don appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) before further assessment or intervention in case the client has diphtheria.

Question 11

An experienced behavioral health nurse and psychiatrist are part of the care team for a client with bulimia nervosa. Which intervention is an appropriate task for the nurse to perform?
A. Diagnose the client with adjustment disorder
B. Add goals to the client’s plan of care
C. Prescribe mood stabilizing medications
D. Renew an order for constant observation

Answer 11

B. Add goals to the client’s plan of care

Question 12

The nurse reviews a list of pediatric clients scheduled to be seen in the clinic. Which client has the highest risk of contracting impetigo?
A. A 12-year-old presenting for a physical exam before attending an overnight camp.
B. A two-month-old infant diagnosed with croup is cared for at home.
C. An 18-month-old who requires immunizations before traveling out of the country.
D. A three-year-old presenting for a routine physical who attends day-care.

Answer 12

D. A three-year-old presenting for a routine physical who attends day-care.

A three-year-old child who attends day-care has the highest risk of contracting impetigo because it is commonly spread in a day-care setting.

Question 13

Which nursing diagnosis is most important to prioritize for a client diagnosed with a pressure injury?
A. Risk for electrolyte imbalance
B. Disturbed body image
C. Risk for infection
D. Disturbed sleep pattern

Answer 13

C. Risk for infection

Question 14

Which nursing diagnosis is the nurse’s priority when caring for a small child diagnosed with epiglottitis?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to decreased intake, fever, and increased work of breathing
B. Compromised parental coping related to sudden onset of child’s acute illness
C. Ineffective airway clearance related to airway inflammation
D. Anxiety related to sudden onset of acute illness

Answer 14

C. Ineffective airway clearance related to airway inflammation

Using the prioritization model of airway, breathing, circulation (ABC), protecting and maintaining clients’ airways is the main concern.

Question 15

Which assessment(s) is/are most important to include in the documentation for a client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE)? Select all that apply.
A. Frequency and amount of alcohol use
B. Cardiovascular assessment
C. Recent surgical history
D. Presence of adventitious breath sounds
E. Use of assistive devices
F. History of anticoagulant use

Answer 15

B. Cardiovascular assessment
C. Recent surgical history
D. Presence of adventitious breath sounds
F. History of anticoagulant use

Question 16

A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a 4-year-old child post-tonsillectomy. The child is crying, and the caregiver at the bedside refuses to hold the child, yelling at them to quiet down. After physical assessment of the client, the nurse notes multiple bruises in various stages of healing, on the face and abdomen. What initial action should the nurse take?
A. Obtain an order for patient-controlled anaesthesia (PCA)
B. Instruct the caregiver to wait in the waiting area until the child is calm
C. Notify the attending surgeon who performed the tonsillectomy
D. Report the incident to their direct supervisor

Answer 16

B. Instruct the caregiver to wait in the waiting area until the child is calm

When child abuse is suspected, the first thing the nurse should do is ensure a safe environment for the child. This may include separating the child from the abuser. In this case, instructing the caregiver to wait until the child is more calm may allow the nurse to comfort the child and report the incident to the proper authority.

Question 17

A new graduate nurse is caring for a client preparing to undergo a subtotal colectomy. The surgeon asks the nurse to assist with obtaining informed consent. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Confirming the client understands the information provided
B. Obtaining telephone consent without another nurse present
C. Explaining the procedure to the client
D. Telling the client about the risks of the procedure

Answer 17

A. Confirming the client understands the information provided

The nurse’s main role in obtaining informed consent is to “witness” the consent, which means that the nurse is confirming that the correct client is actually signing the consent at the date and time specified.

Question 18

The nurse is caring for a client who had an emergency caesarean section for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Which information should the nurse include regarding the early recovery period for the post-caesarean teaching plan?
A. Pain management
B. Dietary restrictions
C. Strict bed rest
D. Delayed breastfeeding

Answer 18

A. Pain management

Question 19

The nurse has admitted a client to the hospital with primary progressive multiple sclerosis. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
B. Implement fall precautions.
C. Obtain a physical therapy consultation.
D. Monitor intake and output.

Answer 19

B. Implement fall precautions.

Question 20

An experienced nurse on a medical surgical unit is aware that new research states there is no benefit to rotating intravenous access sites to reduce phlebitis in hospitalized patients. The nurse overhears a new graduate nurse telling a client that they are planning to insert another intravenous line in order to rotate the site. What is the most appropriate action for the experienced nurse to take?
A. Remind the new nurse that research findings should always be applied to practice
B. Teach the new nurse how to insert a peripheral intravenous line
C. Tell the new nurse that rotating the access site would cause the client harm
D. Ask the new nurse what they understand about the evidence for rotating sites

Answer 20

D. Ask the new nurse what they understand about the evidence for rotating sites

Question 21

The nurse is performing the assessment of a client diagnosed with leukemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider immediately?
A. Heart rate 90/min and pale skin
B. Weight gain of one pound in one week
C. Blood pressure 116/80 mmHg
D. New onset of crackles at the base of the lung

Answer 21

D. New onset of crackles at the base of the lung

A new onset of crackles at the base of the lungs indicates infection in the lungs. Clients with leukaemia are at an increased risk of respiratory, urinary, or integumentary infections due to the reduction of functional white blood cells

Question 22

The public health nurse is reviewing the schedule of client appointments for the day. The nurse knows there has been a recent outbreak of influenza in the community. Which client is most at risk for developing influenza?
A. A 60-year-old who was recently had a flu vaccine
B. An 80-year-old nursing home resident
C. A 45-year-old client with peripheral neuropathy
D. An 8-year-old client who attends school virtually

Answer 22

B. An 80-year-old nursing home resident

Question 23

A male client presenting with urethral discharge and dysuria tests positive for chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
A. Deficient knowledge related to chlamydia treatment and prevention
B. Acute pain related to urethritis
C. Impaired urinary elimination related to urethritis
D. Infection related to unsafe sexual practices

Answer 23

C. Impaired urinary elimination related to urethritis

Impaired urinary elimination related to urethritis is the priority nursing diagnosis. A client with impaired urinary elimination is at risk for injury to the bladder and infection.

Question 24

The nurse is working on a quality improvement committee to improve client safety. What statement does the nurse recognize as the best definition of safety?
A. “Safety refers to protecting clients from risk and harm while they are receiving care.”
B. “Safety refers to doing the right thing for the client.”
C. “Safety refers to upholding the healthcare organizations policies.”
D. “Safety refers to the nurse practicing within the scope of their practice.”

Answer 24

A. “Safety refers to protecting clients from risk and harm while they are receiving care.”

Question 25

The nurse manager is preparing to implement self-scheduling in the unit. Which action by the nurse manager reflects a democratic style of leadership?
A. Inform the staff that they can get together to decide whether they would like to pursue the change.
B. Provide the staff education about the plan for rolling out the change in scheduling.
C. Schedule a time to meet with the staff to discuss the proposed change and encourage them to help decide how the change will be implemented.
D. Inform the nursing staff when the exact changes and when they will be implemented.

Answer 25

C. Schedule a time to meet with the staff to discuss the proposed change and encourage them to help decide how the change will be implemented.

Question 26

The post anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse is caring for a client who underwent a radical mastectomy of the left breast. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the healthcare provider?
A. Small amount of serosanguineous drainage on dressing
B. Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
C. Blood pressure 122/78 mmHg
D. Unequal bilateral arm circumference

Answer 26

D. Unequal bilateral arm circumference

Bilateral arm circumference should be equal. An increase in arm circumference in the arm of the affected breast may indicate that clients are experiencing lymphedema.

Question 27

The nurse is preparing to assess a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea and chlamydia. Which clinical finding should the nurse immediately report to the healthcare provider?
A. Testicular swelling
B. Inability to void
C. Testicular pain
D. Mucopurulent penile discharge

Answer 27

B. Inability to void

Chlamydia and gonorrhoea can infect the urethral mucosa, causing inflammation known as urethritis. The inflammation can block the flow of urine, causing urinary retention, infection, and increasing the risk for injury to the bladder.

Question 28

A nurse in the emergency department triages a 75-year-old client with advanced pancreatic cancer. The client was brought to the emergency department by the client’s husband because the client has been experiencing increasing weakness in the lower extremities. The client’s husband tells the nurse that the client was put on hospice care two weeks ago. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client’s husband next?
A. “How many months left does the client have left to live?”
B. “Can you tell me what you understand about hospice care?”
C. “What is the client’s baseline mental status?”
D. “Does the client’s skin color appear more yellow to you than normal?”

Answer 28

B. “Can you tell me what you understand about hospice care?”

Question 29

The nurse is preparing an interdisciplinary plan of care for a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which is an appropriate task to delegate to a Health Assistant?
A. Performing a pain assessment
B. Obtaining blood pressure and pulse
C. Administer fluids through an intravenous (IV) line
D. Teaching the client about low sodium food choices

Answer 29

B. Obtaining blood pressure and pulse

Question 30

Josie, a 38 year old woman is admitted to the emergency room after being found unconscious at the wheel of her car in the hospital car park. Josie is comatose and does not respond to stimuli. A drug overdose is suspected
Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect that the coma is a result of a toxic drug overdose
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperpyrexia
C. Dilated pupils
D. Facial asymmetry

Answer 30

B. Hyperpyrexia

Question 31

The nurse has administered intramuscular penicillin G benzathine to a male client newly diagnosed with syphilis. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Obtain a sperm count
B. Notify the local and state public health authorities
C. Refer the client to a sexual health counsellor
D. Obtain a bacterial culture of the chancre

Answer 31

B. Notify the local and state public health authorities

Question 32

Following a client fall on the medical surgical unit, a student nurse asks the nurse who should complete the incident report. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. “It is the risk manager’s responsibility to file the incident report.”
B. “I will fill out the incident report since I witnessed the fall.”
C. “The charge nurse should file the incident report.”
D. “The healthcare provider is the one who will file the incident report.”

Answer 32

B. “I will fill out the incident report since I witnessed the fall.”

Question 33

A student nurse asks the nurse, “What is an incident report?” Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. “An incident report is a way for nurses to report ethical concerns on the unit.”
B. “This communication tool reports a cost variance in the unit.
C. “An incident report is a communication tool used to document safety event reporting.”
D. “An incident report is used to document nursing disciplinary action.”

Answer 33

C. “An incident report is a communication tool used to document safety event reporting.”

Question 34

The nurse is speaking with a newly graduated nurse about incident reports following a needlestick on the unit. Which statement by the newly graduated nurse indicates that additional education is needed?
A. “Incident reports help to develop best practice.”
B. “Incident reports help create safe processes for nurses and clients.”
C. “Incident reports help to identify areas which are more prone to safety issues.”
D. “Incident reports are used for disciplinary action.”

Answer 34

D. “Incident reports are used for disciplinary action.”

Question 35

The nurse has received a combative client in the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs. Which is the nurse’s priority intervention?
A. Administer diazepam 10 mg IV over two minutes
B. With the client’s head in a neutral position, elevate the head above the bed 30°
C. Implement fall and seizure precautions
D. Assess the client’s Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score

Answer 35

C. Implement fall and seizure precautions

When receiving a client with an acute head injury, the nurse should start by instituting fall and seizure precautions to prevent further injury.

Question 36

The nurse is caring for an elderly client hospitalized for a urinary tract infection (UTI). She is disoriented to place and time with an unsteady gait. The client is diagnosed with emphysema, osteoporosis, and rib fractures secondary to coughing. The daughter tells the nurse, “ My mother was so uncomfortable when she fractured her ribs. I want to make sure that doesn’t happen again.” Based on this information, which precautions should be the priority for the client’s care plan?
A. Bleeding precautions
B. Aspiration precautions
C. Isolation precautions
D. Fall precautions

Answer 36

D. Fall precautions

Question 37

The nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse who is caring for a client newly diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. The new graduate nurse is educating the client about preventing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which statement made by the new graduate nurse requires correction?
A. “Do not take your insulin or diabetic medication while you are feeling sick.”
B. “You might need to check your glucose more frequently when you are sick.”
C. “Go to the nearest Emergency Department if you are short of breath or if you cannot keep food or liquids down for 24 hours.”
D. “Even if you are feeling too sick to eat a full meal, you should aim to consume 50g of carbohydrates every four hours.”

Answer 37

A. “Do not take your insulin or diabetic medication while you are feeling sick.”

When clients are sick, they should continue to take their prescribed insulin or other diabetic medication.

Question 38

A client presents to the emergency department for leg pain. A nurse tells the client there are no beds available and he will have to wait in the waiting room until a provider can see them. The client points a finger in the nurse’s face and says, “Can you see I’m in pain? I’ll get seen when I say it! Which trait describes this client?
A. Aggressive
B. Psychotic
C. Benevolent
D. Flexible

Answer 38

A. Aggressive

Question 39

A nurse cares for several clients admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which client requires de-escalation techniques most urgently?
A. A client slams the door to their room and yells, “Make it stop!”
B. A client who approaches the nurse’s station asking for a cup of orange juice
C. A client is pacing around their room with clenched fists
D. A client asks the nurse, “When will it be time for lunch?”

Answer 39

A. A client slams the door to their room and yells, “Make it stop!”

A client slams the door to their room and yells, “Make it stop!”

Yelling and exhibiting loud, boisterous behaviours like slamming doors are signs of violence. If this behaviour occurs suddenly, it may be a sign that the client is irritable or confused. The nurse should urgently de-escalate this client because they are exhibiting signs of imminent violence.

Question 40

The nurse is creating a teaching plan for a client discharged post-head injury. Which statement(s) should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. “Avoid any alcohol intake.”
B. “Another person should remain in the home with you until the recovery is complete.”
C. “Notify your provider if you develop a severe headache.”
D. “Recovery from a head injury may take a couple of weeks.”

Answer 40

A. “Avoid any alcohol intake.”
C. “Notify your provider if you develop a severe headache.”
D. “Recovery from a head injury may take a couple of weeks.”

Question 41

The nurse has provided teaching to a client diagnosed with jaundice. Which client statement indicates further education is needed?
A. “I will use hot compresses on itchy areas of my skin.”
B. “I should maintain a comfortable temperature in my house.”
C. “I will put soft linens on my bed.”
D. “I can use calamine lotion to help prevent itching.”

Answer 41

A. “I will use hot compresses on itchy areas of my skin.”

Heat increases pruritus; therefore, clients with jaundice should be instructed to use cool compresses to help relieve this symptom.

Question 42

The nurse is preparing to educate a client recovering from anaphylaxis in order to prevent future occurrences. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching
A. “You do not need to dust your house on a regular basis.”
B. “You need to carry your EpiPen® with you at all times.”
C. “The antihistamine will prevent any symptoms from occurring.”
D. “Stop taking the corticosteroids when you feel better.”

Answer 42

B. “You need to carry your EpiPen® with you at all times.”

Question 43

The nurse has provided teaching to the family members of a client with dementia. Which family member statement indicates that additional education is required?
A. “I can expect my father will have an abnormal sleep pattern.”
B. “My father will have plenty of structured activities to participate in.”
C. “Dementia is a progressive disease that affects thinking, memory, language, and communication.”
D. “There will be a family member visiting my father daily.”

Answer 43

A. “I can expect my father will have an abnormal sleep pattern.”

Question 44

While at work you answer a phone call from a person who is very distressed but won’t give you their name. You should:
A. Tell them to ring back when they are less upset
B. Introduce yourself and tell them what you do.
C. Explain that you need to see them to talk to them properly.
D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information.

Answer 44

D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information.

Question 45

A person’s response to surgery is influenced by many factors. When a person is admitted for surgery you should explore:
A. Their perceptions and expectations for the admission
B. The risks they are exposed to during surgery
C. The reason for surgery instead of more conservative treatment
D. How psychological stress affects their long-term prognosis

Answer 45

A. Their perceptions and expectations for the admission

Question 46

While admitting a patient for a surgical procedure they ask you why they need to be weighed. Your best reply would be:
A. “Surgery is not carried out on people who are above the ideal body weight.”
B. “We need to compare your weight on admission with that on your discharge.”
C. “Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight.”
D. “It is routine for all admission to this unit.”

Answer 46

C. “Some drug dosages are calculated according to body weight.”

Question 47

Prior to surgery, a patient is to have nothing to eat or drink. This is necessary to:
A. Assist in the proper absorption of the anaesthetic
B. Prevent nausea and vomiting immediately after surgery
C. Avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents
D. Avoid incontinence during surgery

Answer 47

C. Avoid the danger of inhaling stomach contents

Question 48

One of your responsibilities when caring for a patient in the postoperative phase is to observe for signs of haemorrhage. The type of shock resulting from haemorrhage is:
A. Hypovolaemic
B. Vasogenic
C. Neurogenic
D. Cardiogenic

Answer 48

A. Hypovolaemic

Question 49

For eight hours following surgery, your patient has had an intravenous infusion running but they are having difficulty passing urine. Your most appropriate action would be to:
A. Offer adequate analgesia so that they are able to use their abdominal muscles
B. Assist the patient in standing and passing urine
C. Increase oral fluids to counteract any dehydration
D. Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation.

Answer 49

B. Assist the patient in standing and passing urine

Question 50

To form a basis of trust in your professional relationship with a patient it is essential for you to:
A. Show an interest in the patient’s problems
B. Be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient
C. Make a special time each day to meet with the patient
D. Be open to any activity that the patient wishes to be involved in

Answer 50

B. Be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient

Question 51

A patient’s partner is worried that the patient is not getting enough to eat. They want to feed them. Your most appropriate response is:
A. “I’m sure your partner would appreciate you doing this for them.”
B. “What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?”
C. “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.”
D. “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.”

Answer 51

C. “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.”

Question 52

A patient has been prescribed morphine 8 mg 2-3 hourly PRN for pain. The unit stock of morphine is 10 mg in 1 mL. How much morphine should be drawn up for the patient?

Answer 52

0.80 mL

Question 53

A patient has one litre of fluid running intravenously every 12 hours. The drop factor is 60 drops per mL. How many drops per minute should be given?
A. 68 drops per minute
B. 83 drops per minute
C. 96 drops per minute
D. 120 drops per minute

Answer 53

B. 83 drops per minute

Question 54

A child weighs 22.4 kg, and the prescription is for 24 mg/kg body weight. The medication comes at a strength of 50 mg/mL. Calculate how many mL (to one decimal place) of the medication the child should receive:

Answer 54

10.8 mL

Question 55

What is the alcoholic-induced dementia called?

Answer 55

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

Question 56

What is your first response to an acute spinal injury?
A. Immobilise the patient
B. Catheterisation
C. Stabilise airway
D. Pain relief

Answer 56

A. Immobilise the patient

Question 57

You working in a rest home, you come across a patient who has fallen in the shower, what is your first response?
A. Assess danger
B. Send for help
C. Stabilise airway
D. Responsiveness

Answer 57

A. Assess danger

Question 58

Why is insulin only given by injection and not as an oral drug?
A. Injected insulin works faster than oral drugs to lower blood glucose levels
B. Insulin is a small protein that is destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes
C. Insulin is a “high-alert drug” and could more easily be abused if it were available as an oral agent
D. Oral insulin has a high “first pass loss” rate in the liver and would require very high dosages to be effective.

Answer 58

B. Insulin is a small protein that is destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes

Question 59

A parent is coming in with their 15-month-old child for their immunisations. The dad is worried about how they will manage at home afterwards. What is the correct statement about paracetamol?
A. Don’t give paracetamol it doesn’t work
B. Give paracetamol prior to appointment and then 4 times over the next 24 hours
C. Only give if needed and no more than 4 times over 24 hour period

Answer 59

B. Give paracetamol prior to appointment and then 4 times over the next 24 hours

Question 60

How is Gonorrhoea treated?
A. Antivirals
B. Antibiotics
C. Antifungals
D. Nothing

Answer 60

B. Antibiotics

Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria and therefore can be treated with antibiotics. Anyone infected with gonorrhoea should be treated immediately to reduce the chance of spreading the infection further and getting complications.

Question 61

A 16-year-old is admitted to a mental health facility for psychosis, he expresses he thinks he has a sexually transmitted infection as he had unprotected sex, he tells you he does not want his parents to know. What is your next action?
A. Keep his confidentiality
B. Say I have to tell your parents
C. Book him into the sexual health clinic
D. Admit him under the MHA assessment and treatment

Answer 61

A. Keep his confidentiality

Question 62

A patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is your best response?
A. Leave them in a room alone
B. Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries
C. Get them to express how they are feeling
D. Give PRN medication

Answer 62

B. Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries

Question 63

There is a dementia patient who keeps thinking you’re their relative. What is your response?
A. Pretend you are and ask question
B. Keep telling them you’re not
C. Say “Your relative would be upset if they knew you were saying this”
D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

Answer 63

D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

Question 64

An elderly patient is refusing their nightly sedation medication, what is your best response?
A. Leave it on their table
B. Document on the medication chart that they have refused and the reason why
C. Tell them they must have it as it’s prescribed
D. Reassurance that this is a safe medication to take, and you must take it as its prescribed

Answer 64

B. Document on the medication chart that they have refused and the reason why

Question 65

What is the correct position for hip replacement?
A. Don’t let them cross their right leg over their body
B. Sit them up in semi-fowlers at 90 degrees
C. Supine
D. Lying on their right ride

Answer 65

C. Supine

The Anterior Supine Procedure uses a 3- to 6-inch incision on the front of your leg. This allows your surgeon to have an optimized view of your hip joint during surgery. This procedure also allows your surgeon to preserve the tissue that keeps your joint tight, which reduces the risk of dislocation after surgery.

Question 66

What is the importance of vitamin D?

Answer 66

Helps absorb calcium

Question 67

What is some advice you can give an elderly patient to help promote bone density?
A. Take a supplement that’s high in calcium and vitamin D
B. Encourage more physical activity
C. Weight-bearing activities
D. Eat more protein

Answer 67

A. Take a supplement that’s high in calcium and vitamin D

Question 68

A whanau and their tamariki want to attend a hui. However, their tamariki has measles, what is your best response?
A. Acknowledge the significance of attending but also provide information on the risks of measles
B. Tell them they shouldn’t go
C. They can go if everyone is immunised
D. Advice them that it’s alright to go even if everyone isn’t immunised

Answer 68

A. Acknowledge the significance of attending but also provide information on the risks of measles

Question 69

Why are people who are immobilised at more risk of pneumonia?
A. The secretions that are built up in the lungs turn into infection
B. The gravity helps with the viscosity of the mucus
C. Unsure of the other options

Answer 69

A. The secretions that are built up in the lungs turn into infection

Question 70

A patient presents with a red painful calf, struggling to breathe and producing pink sputum what do you think is happening?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Cellulitis
C. Fat embolism
D. DVT

Answer 70

A. Pulmonary embolism

Question 71

What is the correct statement about a TIA?
A. It’s more serious than a stroke
B. Only lasts up to 24 hours
C. Results in paralysis of the body
D. None of the above

Answer 71

B. Only lasts up to 24 hours

Question 72

A patient has right-sided hemiplegia what does this present as?
A. Right-sided paralysis
B. Left-sided paralysis
C. Shoulder weakness
D. Full body paralysis

Answer 72

B. Left-sided paralysis

Question 73

What does an osmotic laxative do?
A. Increase peristalsis
B. Draw fluid into the large intestines to soften stool
C. Draw fluid into the lubricate the large intestines

Answer 73

B. Draw fluid into the large intestines to soften stool

Question 74

The patient has expressed he would like to make a complaint about his psychiatrist. What is your next step?
A. Tell them that is normal not to like them
B. Tell them they need to discuss this with their psychiatrist
C. Discuss with your doctor
D. They have the right to complain so you give them the complaint form

Answer 74

D. They have the right to complain so you give them the complaint form

Question 75

A child under Oranga Tamariki care needs a blood transfusion who can legally sign off on this?
A. Oranga Tamariki caregiver
B. Guardian
C. Doctor/prescriber
D. Parent

Answer 75

B. Guardian