Nursing Care of Patients with Coronoary Vascular Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

A hollow, muscular organ located in the center of the thorax occupying the space between the lungs (mediastinum) and rests on the diaphragm

A

Heart

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2
Q

Pumps blood to the tissues, supplying them with oxygen and other nutrients

A

Heart

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3
Q

Heart weighs approximately _____ ; the weight and size of the heart are influenced by age, gender, body weight, extent of physical exercise and conditioning, and heart disease

A

300 grams

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4
Q

the inner layer, consists of endothelial tissue and lines the inside of the heart and valves

A

Endocardium

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5
Q

the middle layer, made up of muscle fibers and is responsible for the pumping action

A

Myocardium

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6
Q

composed of specialized cells called _____ forming an interconnected network of muscle fibers encircling the heart in a figure-of-eight pattern that facilitates a twisting and compressive movement of the heart that begins in the atria
and moves to the ventricles as controlled by the cardiac conduction system

A

Cardiomyocytes

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7
Q

the exterior layer encased in a thin, fibrous sac called the pericardium

A

Epicardium

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8
Q

adheres to the epicardium

A

Visceral Pericardium

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9
Q

envelopes the visceral pericardium

A

Parietal Pericardium

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10
Q

a tough fibrous tissue that attaches to the great vessels, diaphragm, sternum, and vertebral column and supports the heart in the mediastinum

A

Visceral Pericardium

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11
Q

the space between these two layers normally filled with about 20 ml of fluid

A

Pericardial Space

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12
Q

the space between these two layers (visceral & parietal pericardium) normally filled with about _____ of fluid

A

20 ml

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13
Q

lubricates the surface of the heart
and reduces friction during systole

A

Pericardial Fluid

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14
Q

Thickness varies due to workload required by each chamber.

A

Heart Chambers

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15
Q

The myocardial layer of both atria is much _____ than that of the ventricles because there is little resistance as blood flows out of the atria and into the ventricles during diastole.

A

Thinner

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16
Q

Ventricular walls are much _____ than the atrial walls for it must overcome resistance to blood flow from the pulmonary and systemic circulatory systems during ventricular systole.

A

Thicker

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17
Q

The left ventricle is _____ more muscular than the right ventricle. It must overcome high aortic and arterial pressures, whereas the right ventricle contracts against a low-pressure system within the pulmonary arteries and capillaries.

A

2-3x

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18
Q

receives venous blood returning to the heart from the superior vena cava (head, neck, and upper extremities), inferior vena cava (trunk and lower extremities), and coronary sinus (coronary circulation)

A

Right Atrium

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19
Q

distributes venous blood (deoxygenated blood) to the lungs via the pulmonary artery (pulmonary circulation) for oxygenation

A

Right Ventricle

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20
Q

receives oxygenated blood

A

Left Atrium

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21
Q

from the pulmonary circulation via four pulmonary veins

A

Left Atrium

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22
Q

distributes oxygenated blood to the remainder of the body via the aorta (systemic circulation)

A

Left Ventricle

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23
Q

results from the ventricle’s close proximity to the chest wall, creating the pulsation created during normal ventricular contraction

A

Point of Maximal Impulse

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24
Q

Point of Maximal Impulse is located at the _____ of the left chest wall and the _____

A

Intersection of Midclavicular Line, Fifth Intercostal Space

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25
Q

allows flow of blood in only one direction

A

Valves of the Heart

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26
Q

composed of thin leaflets of fibrous tissue, open and close in response to the movement of blood and pressure changes within the chambers

A

Valves of the Heart

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27
Q

composed of thin leaflets of fibrous tissue, open and close in response to the movement of blood and pressure changes within the chambers

A

Valves of the heart

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28
Q

separates the atria from the ventricles

A

Atrioventricular valves

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29
Q

opens during diastole allowing the blood in the atria to flow freely into the relaxed
ventricles and closes when the ventricles contract and blood flows upward into the cusps of the tricuspid and mitral valves as ventricular systole begins

A

Atrioventricular valves

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30
Q

valve closes by _____ and the _____ preventing the backflow of blood into the atria (_____) as blood is ejected out into the pulmonary artery and aorta

A

Papillary Muscles, Chordae Tendinae, Regurgitation

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31
Q

composed of 3 cusps or leaflets

A

Tricuspid Valve

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32
Q

separates the left atrium from the left ventricle

A

Bicuspid/Mitral Valve

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33
Q

separates the right atrium from the right ventricle

A

Tricuspid Valve

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34
Q

composed of 2 cusps or leaflets

A

Bicuspid/Mitral Valve

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35
Q

composed of 3 leaflets, shaped like half moons

A

Semilunar Valves

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36
Q

closed during diastole and forced open during ventricular systole as blood is
ejected from the right and left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and aorta, respectively

A

Semilunar Valves

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37
Q

separates the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

A

Pulmonic Valve

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38
Q

separates the left ventricle and the aorta

A

Aortic Valve

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39
Q

supplies arterial blood to the heart originating from the aorta just above the aortic valve leaflets

A

Coronary Arteries

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40
Q

Coronary arteries perfused during _____ unlike other arteries, thus a heart rate of 60-80 bpm provides an ample time during diastole for myocardial perfusion

A

Diastole

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41
Q

courses down the anterior wall of the heart

A

Left Anterior Descending Coronary Artery

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42
Q

circles around to the lateral left wall of the heart

A

Circumflex Artery

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43
Q

travels to the inferior wall of the heart

A

Right coronary artery

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44
Q

supplies the posterior wall of the heart

A

Posterior Descending Coronary Artery

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45
Q

located superficially to the coronary arteries

A

Coronary Veins

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46
Q

blood returns to the heart primarily through the coronary sinus located posteriorly in the
right atrium

A

Coronary Veins

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47
Q

generates and transmits electrical impulses that stimulate contraction of the myocardium

A

Cardiac Electrophysiology

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48
Q

Cardiac Electrophysiology first stimulates contraction of the _____ and then the _____

A

Atria, Ventricles

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49
Q

synchronization of the atrial and ventricular events allows the ventricles to fill completely before ventricular ejection, thereby maximizing cardiac output by two specialized
electrical cells: _____ and _____

A

Nodal Cells, Parkinje Cells

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50
Q

3 Characteristics of the Two Specialized Electrical Cells

A

Automaticity
Excitability
Conductivity

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51
Q

ability to initiate an electrical impulse

A

Automaticity

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52
Q

ability to respond to an electrical impulse

A

Excitability

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53
Q

ability to transmit an electrical impulse from once cell to another

A

Conductivity

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54
Q

the primary pacemaker of the heart composed of nodal cells located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium

A

Sinoatrial Node

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55
Q

SA node inherent firing rate of _____ impulses/beats per minute but may change the rate changes in response to the metabolic demands of the body

A

60 - 100

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56
Q

initiated electrical impulses are conducted along the myocardial cells of the atria via specialized tracts called _____ causing electrical stimulation and subsequent contraction of the atria and conducted to the AV Node

A

Internodal pathways

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57
Q

the secondary pacemaker of the heart composed of nodal cells located in the right atrial wall near the tricuspid valve

A

Atrioventricular node

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58
Q

coordinates the incoming electrical impulses from the atria and after a slight delay (allowing the atria time to contract and complete ventricular filling) relays the impulse to the ventricles

A

Atrioventricular node

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59
Q

AV Node inherent firing rate of ____ impulses/beats per minute

A

40-60

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60
Q

AV nodes conducts impulses through a bundle of specialized conducting tissue (_____) that divides into the _____ (conducting impulses to the right ventricle) and the _____ (conducting impulses to the left ventricle). The left bundle branch will further branch out into the _____
and _____ bundle branches

A

Bundle of His, Right Bundle Branch, Left Bundle Branch, Left Anterior, Left Posterior

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61
Q

Impulses travel through the bundle branches to reach the terminal point in the conduction system, the _____.

A

Purkinje Fibers

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62
Q

the terminal point in the conduction system

A

Purkinje fibers

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63
Q

composed of Purkinje cells that rapidly conduct impulses throughout the thick walls of
the ventricles stimulating the ventricular myocardial cells to contract

A

Purkinje Fibers

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64
Q

Purkinje Fibers inherent firing rate of _____ impulses/beats per minute

A

30-40

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65
Q

non-invasive graphic recording of the heart’s electrical activity

A

Electrocardiogram

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66
Q

recording electrical impulse that travels through the heart can be viewed by means of _____

A

Electrocardiography

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67
Q

Electrocardiogram reflects the _____ in specific waveforms on the screen of a cardiac monitor or on a strip of ECG graph paper

A

Phases of the Cardiac Cycle

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68
Q

1 small box - Amplitude _____ mV

A

.1

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69
Q

1 small box - Height _____ mm

A

1

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70
Q

1 small box - Duration _____ seconds

A

0.04

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71
Q

1 large box - Amplitude _____ mV

A

.5

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72
Q

1 large box - Height _____ mm

A

5

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73
Q

1 large box - Duration _____ seconds

A

.20

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74
Q

1 large box - _____ small boxes

A

25

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75
Q

Standard height _____ mm (_____ small boxes)

A

10, 10

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76
Q

Standard Amplitude _____ mV (_____ small boxes)

A

1, 10

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77
Q

1 second strip _____ small boxes / _____ large boxes

A

25, 5

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78
Q

6 second strip _____ large boxes / _____ small boxes

A

30, 150

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79
Q

represents the electrical impulse starting in the SA node and spreading through the atria (atrial depolarization)

A

P Wave

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80
Q

P Wave Height _____ mm or less (_____ small boxes)

A

2.5, 2 1/2

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81
Q

P Wave Duration _____ seconds or less (_____ small boxes)

A

.11, <3

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82
Q

reflects ventricular depolarization

A

QRS Complex

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83
Q

QRS Complex Duration _____ seconds (_____ small boxes)

A

<.12, <3

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84
Q

Not all _____ have all three waveforms

A

QRS Complex

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85
Q

QRS Waveforms are _____, small letters are used (q,r,s) if QRS waveforms are _____, capital letters are used (Q,R,S)

A

less than 5 mm, more than 5 mm (?)

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86
Q

first negatively deflecting waveform after P wave

A

Q wave

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87
Q

Less than 25% of the R wave amplitude

A

Q wave

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88
Q

Q wave Duration _____ seconds (_____ small box)

A

<.04, <1

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89
Q

first positively deflecting waveform after P wave

A

R wave

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90
Q

first negatively deflecting waveform after R waveform

A

S wave

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91
Q

represents ventricular repolarization (simultaneously with atrial repolarization but is not visible on the ECG)

A

T wave

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92
Q

follows the QRS complex and is usually the same direction (deflection) as the QRS complex

A

T wave

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93
Q

represent the repolarization of the Purkinje Fibers

A

U wave

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94
Q

follows the T wave and is smaller than the P wave

A

U wave

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95
Q

a rare waveform, but may sometime appear in patients with hypokalemia, hypertension, or heart disease

A

U wave

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96
Q

represents the time needed for sinus node stimulation, atrial depolarization, and conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization

A

PR Interval

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97
Q

measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex

A

PR Interval

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98
Q

PR Interval normal duration _____ seconds (_____ small boxes)

A

.12-.20, 3-5

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99
Q

represents early ventricular repolarization

A

ST segment

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100
Q

lasts from the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave

A

ST segment

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101
Q

represents the total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization

A

QT interval

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102
Q

measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

A

QT interval

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103
Q

QT normal duration _____ seconds (_____ small boxes);

A

.32 - .40, 8-10

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104
Q

normal duration for QTc: males _____ seconds; females: _____ seconds)

A

.39 - .45, .39 - .46

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105
Q

measured from the end of the T wave to the beginning of the next P wave (isoelectric period)

A

TP Interval

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106
Q

TP Interval preferred reference for the _____

A

Isoelectric line

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107
Q

the period when no electrical activity is detected, the line on the graph remains flat

A

Isoelectric line

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108
Q

compared with ST segment to detect any changes

A

Isoelectric line

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109
Q

measured from the beginning of one P wave to the beginning of the next P wave

A

PP interval

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110
Q

PP wave used to determine _____ rate and rhythm

A

atrial

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111
Q

measured from one QRS complex to the next QRS complex

A

RR interval

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112
Q

RR wave used to determine _____ rate and rhythm

A

ventricular

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113
Q

a brief change in voltage (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells

A

Cardiac Action Potential

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114
Q

stimulates the myocytes causing contraction due to exchange of electronically charged
particles

A

Cardiac Action Potential

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115
Q

the repeated cycle of depolarization and repolarization

A

Cardiac Action Potential

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116
Q

return of ions to its resting state

A

repolarization

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117
Q

exchange of ions causes a positively charged intracellular space and a negatively charged extracellular space

A

depolarization

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118
Q

Depolarization _____ enters the cells; _____ exits the cells

A

NA+ & CA++, K+

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119
Q

Repolarization _____ enters the cells; _____ exits the cells

A

K+, NA+ & CA++

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120
Q

Initiated cellular depolarization; Na+ enters the cell

A

Phase 0

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121
Q

Early repolarization begins; K+ exits the cell

A

Phase 1

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122
Q

Rate of repolarization slows: Ca++
enters the cell

A

Phase 2/ Plateau Phase

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123
Q

Repolarization completed; Cell returns to resting state

A

Phase 3

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124
Q

Resting phase before the next depolarization

A

Phase 4

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125
Q

the brief period immediately following the response especially of a muscle or nerve before it recovers the capacity to make a second response

A

Refractory Period

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126
Q

the cell is completely unresponsive to any electrical stimulus; it is incapable of initiating an early depolarization

A

Effective Refractory Period

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127
Q

Effective Refractory Period corresponds to _____ of the cardiac action potential

A

Phase 0 to middle of Phase 3

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128
Q

in this period, if an electrical stimulus is stronger than normal, the cell may depolarize prematurely causing premature contractions, placing the patient at risk for dysrhythmias

A

Relative Refractory Period

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129
Q

the physical study of flowing blood and of all the solid structures (such as through which it flows

A

Cardiac Hemodynamics

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130
Q

refers to the events that occur in the heart from the beginning of one heartbeat to the next

A

Cardiac Cycle

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131
Q

number of cycles depends on the number of _____

A

heart rate

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132
Q

composed of major sequential events cause blood to flow through the heart due to
changes in chamber pressures and valvular function during diastole and systole

A

Cardiac Cycle

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133
Q

the total amount of blood ejected by one of the ventricles in liters per minute

A

Cardiac Output

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134
Q

resting adult is _____ L/min but varies greatly depending on the metabolic
needs of the body

A

4-6

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135
Q

Cardiac Output is computed by multiplying the _____ (the amount of blood ejected from one
of the ventricles per heartbeat. The average resting is about 60 to 130 mL) by the _____

A

Stroke Volume, Heart Rate

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136
Q

Too much effort will result in fatigue, sometimes leading to a complete collapse, with the need to slow down substantially or even to stop.

A

Contractility

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137
Q

the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole

A

Preload

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138
Q

an intrinsic property of myocardial cells is that the force of their contraction depends on the length to which they are stretched: the greater the stretch (within certain limits), the greater the force of contraction - preload value will eventually be reached at which cardiac output will no longer increase

A

Frank Starling or Starling Law

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139
Q

the force against which the ventricles must act in order to eject blood, and is largely dependent on the arterial blood pressure and vascular tone

A

Afterload

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140
Q

has an inverse relationship with stroke volume, is increased by arterial

A

Afterload

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141
Q

vasoconstriction, which leads to decreased stroke volume. The opposite is true with arterial vasodilation, in which case it is reduced because there is less resistance to ejection, and stroke volume increases

A

Afterload

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142
Q

specific enzymes released from myocardial cells that become necrotic from prolonged ischemia or trauma that leaks into the interstitial spaces of the myocardium and are carried by the lymphatic system into general circulation, resulting to abnormally high levels of in serum blood samples

A

Cardiac Biomarkers

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143
Q

a protein which becomes elevated with any muscle damage

A

Myoglobin

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144
Q

Myoglobin elevates within ____ hours from damage, peaks at _____ hrs, and returns to normal within _____ days

A

1-4, 6-12, 1-2

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145
Q

not specific to the myocardium or cardiac muscle so it could be indicative
of other muscle damage

A

Myoglobin

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146
Q

isoenzyme released in the presence of ischemia within muscle tissue

A

CK-MB

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147
Q

not specific to cardiac muscle, but is more specific than myoglobin and highly likely to be elevated with cardiac ischemia

A

CK-MB

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148
Q

CK-MB begins to elevate within _____ hours, peaks at _____ hrs, and a _____ days to return to normal

A

6-12, 12-24, few

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149
Q

an enzyme specific to cardiac muscle that is released with ischemia and damage

A

Troponin I

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150
Q

the most consistently specific to cardiac muscle and, due to it’s trend timing, is the most reliable

A

Troponin I

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151
Q

Troponin I begins to rise within _____ hours, peaks at _____ hrs, and takes a couple of _____ to return fully to normal

A

4-6, 18, weeks

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152
Q

a lipid required for hormone synthesis and cell membrane formation

A

Cholesterol

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153
Q

calculated by adding the HDL, LDL, and 20% of the triglyceride level

A

Cholesterol

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154
Q

the primary transporter of cholesterol and triglycerides into the cell

A

Low Density Lipoprotein

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155
Q

results to deposition on the walls of arterial vessels

A

Low density Lipoprotein

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156
Q

transports cholesterol away from the tissue and cells of the arterial wall to the liver for excretion

A

High density Lipoprotein

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157
Q

composed of free fatty acids and glycerol, are stored in the adipose tissue and are a source of energy

A

Triglycerides

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158
Q

increase after meals and are affected by stress. Diabetes, alcohol use, and obesity can elevate triglyceride levels. These levels have a direct correlation with LDL and an inverse one with HDL

A

Triglycerides

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159
Q

a neurohormone that helps regulate BP and fluid volume

A

Brain Natriuretic Peptide

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160
Q

primarily secreted from the ventricles in response to increased preload with
resulting elevated ventricular pressure

A

Brain Natriuretic Peptide

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161
Q

increases as the ventricular walls expand from increased pressure, making it a
helpful diagnostic, monitoring, and prognostic tool in the setting of HF

A

Brain Natriuretic Peptide

162
Q

a protein produced by the liver in response to systemic inflammation that plays a role in the development and progression of atherosclerosis

A

C-reactive Protein

163
Q

elevation places patient at risk for developing CVD

A

C-reactive Protein

164
Q

an amino acid, is linked to the development of atherosclerosis because it can damage the endothelial lining of arteries and promote thrombus formation

A

Homocysteine

165
Q

elevation is thought to indicate a high risk for CAD, stroke, and peripheral vascular disease, although it is not an independent predictor of CAD

A

Homocysteine

166
Q

a graphic representation of the electrical currents of the heart

A

Electrocardiography

167
Q

obtained by placing disposable electrodes in standard positions on the skin of the
chest wall and extremities

A

Electrocardiography

168
Q

a standard ECG is composed of _____ leads or _____ different views, although it is possible
to record _____ leads

A

12, 12, 15 or 18

169
Q

used to diagnose dysrhythmias, conduction abnormalities, and chamber enlargement, as well as myocardial ischemia, injury, or infarction. It can also suggest cardiac effects of electrolyte disturbances (high or low calcium and potassium levels) and the effects of antiarrhythmic medications

A

Electrocardiography

170
Q

obtained to determine the size, contour, and position of the heart

A

Chest Xray

171
Q

reveals cardiac and pericardial calcifications and demonstrates physiologic
alterations in the pulmonary circulation

A

Chest Xray

172
Q

can help diagnose some complications and placement of pacemakers

A

Chest Xray

173
Q

an x-ray imaging technique that allows visualization of the heart on a screen

A

Fluoroscopy

174
Q

shows cardiac and vascular pulsations and unusual cardiac contours

A

Fluoroscopy

175
Q

useful aid for positioning transvenous pacing electrodes and for guiding the insertion
of arterial and venous catheters during cardiac catheterization and other cardiac procedures

A

Fluoroscopy

176
Q

detects abnormalities in cardiovascular function during times of increased demand or stress

A

Cardiac Stress Testing

177
Q

Cardiac Stress Testing determines the ff:

A

▪ presence of CAD
▪ cause of chest pain
▪ functional capacity of the heart after an MI or heart surgery
▪ effectiveness of antianginal or antiarrhythmic medications
▪ occurrence of dysrhythmias
▪ specific goals for a physical fitness
program

178
Q

Cardiac Stress Testing Contraindications

A

▪ acute MI within 48 hours
▪ unstable angina
▪ uncontrolled dysrhythmias
with hemodynamic compromise
▪ severe aortic stenosis
▪ acute myocarditis or pericarditis ▪ decompensated HF

179
Q

the patient walks on a treadmill (most common) or pedals a stationary bicycle wherein exercise intensity progresses according to established protocols

A

Exercise Stress Testing

180
Q

protocol selected for the test is based on the purpose of the test and the physical fitness level and health of the patient

A

Exercise Stress Testing

181
Q

Exercise Stress Test is terminated when the target heart rate is achieved or if the patient experiences signs of _____

A

Myocardial Ischemia

182
Q

indicated for patients who are cognitively impaired and unable to follow directions or physically disabled or deconditioned

A

Pharmacologic Stress Resting

183
Q

Pharmacologic Stress Testing drug of choice: _____ (Persantine), _____ (Adenocard), or _____ (Lexiscan) that mimic the effects of exercise by maximally dilating normal coronary arteries

A

Dipyridamole, Adenosine, Regadenoson

184
Q

Pharmacologic Stress Testing Antidote

A

IV Aminophylline

185
Q

Pharmacologic Stress Testing Alternative Medication

A

Dobutamine

186
Q

noninvasive ultrasound test that measures the ejection fraction and examine the size, shape, and motion of cardiac structures

A

Transthoracic Echocardiography

187
Q

useful for diagnosing pericardial effusions; determining chamber size and the etiology of heart murmurs; evaluating the function of heart valves, including prosthetic heart valves; and evaluating ventricular wall motion

A

Transthoracic Echocardiography

188
Q

involves transmission of high-frequency sound waves into the heart through the chest wall and the recording of the return signals though a handheld transducer applied to the front of the chest

A

Transthoracic Echocardiography

189
Q

a common invasive procedure used to diagnose structural and functional diseases of the heart and great vessels

A

Cardiac Catheterization

190
Q

guides treatment decisions to manage structural defects of the valves or septum

A

Cardiac Catheterization

191
Q

involves percutaneous insertion of radiopaque catheters into a large vein and an
artery using catheters through the right and left heart with the aid of fluoroscopy

A

Cardiac Catheterization

192
Q

Before Cardiac Catheterization, Instruct patient to fast, usually for _____ hours, before the procedure

A

8-12

193
Q

Patient remains on bed rest for up to hours with the affected leg straight and the head of the bed elevated no greater than 30°

A

Femoral Artery Approach

194
Q

The patient may be turned from side to side with the affected extremity straight for comfort.

A

Femoral Artery Approach

195
Q

Check local nursing care standards and anticipates that the patient will have fewer activity restrictions

A

Use of Percutaneous Vascular Closure Device or Patch

196
Q

Use of Percutaneous Vascular Closure Device or Patch, Patient may be permitted to ambulate within _____

A

2 hours

197
Q

Patient remains on bed rest for 2 hours or until the effects of sedation have dissipated

A

Radial Artery Approach

198
Q

A hemostasis band or pressure dressing may be applied over the catheter access site.

A

Radial Artery Approach

199
Q

Radial Artery Approach, Patients are instructed to avoid sleeping on the affected arm for _____
hours.

A

24

200
Q

Radial Artery Approach, Avoid repetitive movement of the affected extremity for _____
hours.

A

24-48

201
Q

a term used to describe conditions that affect the arteries that provide nutrients, blood, and oxygen to the heart

A

Coronary Artery Disease

202
Q

commonly caused by atherosclerosis

A

Coronary Artery Disease

203
Q

Atherosclerosis comes from two Greek words: _____, meaning “fatty mush”, and _____, meaning “hard”

A

athere, skleros

204
Q

an abnormal accumulation of lipid, or fatty substances, and fibrous tissue in the lining of arterial blood vessel walls

A

Atherosclerosis

205
Q

the major cause of CAD commonly referred to as the hardening of the arteries → implies that atherosclerosis begins as soft deposits of fat that harden with age

A

Atherosclerosis

206
Q

Nonmodifiable Risk Factors of Atherosclerosis

A
  • Increasing age
  • Gender
  • Ethinicity
  • Genetic predisposition and family history of heart disease
207
Q

Coronary Artery Disease Modifiable Risk Factors

A
  • Serum Lipids
  • Blood Pressure
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Tobacco Use
  • Physical Inactivity
  • Obesity
208
Q

Contributing Factor for Coronary Artery Disease

A
  • Fasting blood glucose > 100 mg/dL
  • Psychosocial risk factors
  • elevated homocysteine levels
209
Q

Disease process of coronary artery disease starts with _____ or the accumulation of fatty deposits along the coronary blood vessel walls

A

atheroma formation

210
Q

Atheroma starts to develop as a result of damage or injury to the inner lining of the artery, the _____

A

endothelium

211
Q

_____ damage facilitates accumulation of cholesterol, fats, lipoproteins at the site of injury in the wall or intima of the artery.

A

Endothelial

212
Q

High concentrations of low density lipoprotein (LDL) penetrate the damaged endothelium and undergo a chemical process called _____ that attracts white blood cells or leukocytes to migrate towards the vessel wall.

A

oxidation

213
Q

As macrophages appear, they engulf the lipoproteins and become foam cells. These foam cells give rise to the earliest visible form of an atheromatous lesion called the _____

A

fatty streak.

214
Q

Once the fatty streak is formed, it then attracts the smooth muscle cells to the site, where they multiply and start to produce extracellular matrix comprising of collagen and proteoglycan that forms a large portion of the atherosclerotic plaque. This turns the fatty streak into a _____

A

fibrous plaque.

215
Q

The lesion then starts to bulge into the inner wall of the blood vessel causing a significant narrowing of the _____

A

luminal space

216
Q

As the _____ grows, continued inflammation can result in plaque instability, ulceration, and rupture.

A

fibrous plaque

217
Q

Once the integrity of the artery’s inner wall is compromised, platelets accumulate in large numbers, leading to a _____.

A

thrombus

218
Q

refers to chest pain that is brought about by myocardial ischemia caused by significant coronary atherosclerosis

A

Angina Pectoris

219
Q

_____ may show left ventricular hypertrophy, ST-T changes, arrhythmias, and possible Q waves.

A

Resting ECG

220
Q

_____ with or without perfusion studies shows ischemia.

A

Exercise stress testing

221
Q

_____ shows blocked vessels.

A

Cardiac catheterization

222
Q

FITT formula

A

Frequency
Intensity
Type
Time

223
Q

Medical Management of CAD

A

Physical Activity
Nutritional Therapy
Pharmacologic Therapy

224
Q

Nutritional Therapy - Decrease in _____and _____ and an increase in _____

A

saturated fat and cholesterol, complex carbohydrates

225
Q

_____ reduce the risks associated with CAD when eaten regularly.

A

Omega-3 fatty acids

226
Q

For individuals without CAD, the AHA recommends eating fatty fish _____ a week because fatty fish such as salmon and tuna contains two types of omega- 3 fatty acids: eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA).

A

twice

227
Q

_____ medications (nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, calcium channel blockers, and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors) to promote a favourable balance of oxygen supply and demand.

A

AntiAnginal

228
Q

_____ medications to decrease blood cholesterol and tricglyceride levels in patients with elevated levels. DOC: Simvastatin

A

AntiLipid

229
Q

_____ agents to inhibit thrombus formation. DOC: Aspirin

A

Antiplatelet

230
Q

_____ and _____ to reduce homocysteine levels.

A

Folic acid & B complex vitamins

231
Q

a minimally invasive procedure to open blocked or stenosed coronary arteries allowing unobstructed blood flow to the myocardium

A

Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty or Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

232
Q

improves coronary blood flow by inserting a balloon-tipped catheter inflated once the catheter has been placed into the narrowed area of the coronary artery, compressing the fatty tissue in the artery and makes a larger opening inside the artery

A

Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty or Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

233
Q

circumvents an occluded coronary artery with an autogenous graft, thereby restoring blood flow to the myocardium

A

Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting

234
Q

uses healthy blood vessels from another part of the body (arteries from the arm or chest, or veins from the legs) and connects them to blood vessels above and below the blocked artery, creating a new route for blood to flow that bypasses the narrowed or blocked coronary arteries

A

Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting

235
Q

a minimally invasive surgical procedure employed for the treatment of patients with severe angina

A

Transmyocardial Revascularization

236
Q

a minimally invasive surgical procedure employed for the treatment of patients with severe angina

A

Transmyocardial Revascularization

237
Q

an alternative treatment for patients who are not a candidate for surgery due to factors such as risk of procedure failure, ill-health, advanced age, advanced heart disease, and other health conditions

A

Transmyocardial Revascularization

238
Q

uses a special carbon dioxide laser to shoot tiny pinholes or channels through the heart muscle and into the heart’s lower left chamber (left ventricle) improving the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle, reducing the effects of angina

A

Transmyocardial Revascularization

239
Q

a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg or higher

A

Hypertension

240
Q

elevated BP without an identified cause

A

Primary Hypertension

241
Q

accounts for 90% to 95% of all cases of hypertension

A

Primary Hypertension

242
Q

elevated BP with a specific cause that often can be identified and corrected

A

Secondary Hypertension

243
Q

accounts for 5% to 10% of hypertension

A

Secondary Hypertension

244
Q

blood pressure is between, less than 120 mmHg and less than 80 mmHg.

A

Normal

245
Q

from 120 mmHg to 129 mmHg for systolic blood pressure and less than 80 mmHg for diastolic pressure.

A

Elevated

246
Q

starts when the patient has a systolic pressure of 130 to 139 mmHg and a diastolic pressure of 80 to 89 mmHg.

A

Stage 1 Hypertension

247
Q

Stage 2 starts when the systolic pressure is already more than or equal than 140 mmHg and the diastolic is more than or equal than 90 mmHg.

A

Stage 2 Hypertension

248
Q

Causes of Hypertension

A
  • Increased sympathetic nervous system activity
  • Increase renal reabsorption
  • Increased RAAS activity.
  • Decreased vasodilation of the arterioles.
249
Q

Excessive sodium intake is linked to the start of hypertension. A high sodium intake may activate a number of pressor mechanisms and cause water retention.

A

Water and Sodium Retention

250
Q

High plasma renin activity (PRA) results in the increased conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Any rise in BP inhibits the release of renin from the renal juxtaglomerular cells.

A

Altered Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone Mechanism

251
Q

Psychologic and physiologic responses to stress results in a prolonged increase in SNS activity producing increased vasoconstriction, increased HR, and increased renin release.

A

Stress & Increased Sympathetic Nervous System Activity

252
Q

Increased renin activates the RAAS, leading to elevated BP. People exposed to high levels of repeated psychologic stress develop hypertension to a greater extent than those who experience less stress.

A

Stress and Increased Sympathetic Nervous System Activity

253
Q

High insulin levels stimulate SNS activity and impair nitric oxide–mediated vasodilation. Additional pressor effects of insulin include vascular hypertrophy and increased renal sodium reabsorption.

A

Insulin Resistance and HyperInsulinemia

254
Q

The red blood cells carrying oxygen is having a hard time reaching the brain because
of constricted vessels, causing _____.

A

headache

255
Q

due to the low concentration of oxygen that reaches the brain

A

Dizziness

256
Q

due to decreased oxygen levels.

A

Chest Pain

257
Q

due to too much constriction in the blood vessels of the eye that red blood cells carrying
oxygen cannot pass through.

A

Blurred Vision

258
Q

_____ may show small perfusion defects.

A

Position emission tomography

259
Q

_____ shows wall motion abnormalities and ejection fraction.

A

Radionuclide ventriculography

260
Q

Medical Management: Prevention

A
  • Weight reduction
  • Adopt DASH
  • Dietary sodium retention
  • Physical activity
  • Moderation of alcohol consumption
261
Q

DASH

A

Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension

262
Q

_____ and _____ for uncomplicated hypertension.

A

Diuretics & Beta blockers

263
Q

_____ diuretics decrease blood volume, renal blood flow, and cardiac output.

A

Thiazide

264
Q

are competitive inhibitors of aldosterone binding.

A

ARBs

265
Q

block the sympathetic nervous system to produce a slower heart rate and a lower blood pressure.

A

Beta blockers

266
Q

inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and lowers peripheral resistance.

A

ACE Inhibitors

267
Q

Stage 1 Hypertension pharmacologic management

A

Anti hypertensive

268
Q

Stage 2 Hypertension pharmacologic management

A

Diuretics & Antihypertensive

269
Q

term used to indicate either a hypertensive urgency or emergency

A

Hypertensive Crisis

270
Q

occurs more often in patients with a history of hypertension who have not adhered to their medication regimens or who have been undermedicated

A

Hypertensive Crisis

271
Q

a situation in which a patient’s BP is severely elevated (usually above 180/110 mm Hg), but there is no clinical evidence of target organ disease

A

Hypertensive Urgency

272
Q

Hypertensive Urgency develops over _____

A

Days to Weeks

273
Q

a situation in which a patient’s BP is severely elevated (often above 220/140 mm Hg) with clinical evidence of target organ disease

A

Hypertensive Emergency

274
Q

Hypertensive Emergency develops over _____

A

Hours to Days

275
Q

can cause encephalopathy, intracranial or subarachnoid hemorrhage, acute left
ventricular failure, MI, renal failure, dissecting aortic aneurysm, and retinopathy

A

Hypertensive Emergency

276
Q

clinical manifestations: severe headache, nausea, vomiting, seizures, confusion, and coma

A

Hypertensive Emergency

277
Q

the initial goal is to decrease MAP by no more than 20%-25%, or to decrease MAP to 110-115 mmHg by gradual titration of medications.

A

Decrease Mean Arterial Pressure

278
Q

Formula for MAP

A

SBP + 2DBP/3

279
Q

IV for Decreasing MAP

A

Nicardipine Drip

280
Q

Pharmacologic Management for Hypertensive Emergency

A
  • IV vasodilators
  • IV adrenergic inhibitors
  • IV ACE inhibitor
  • IV calcium channel blockers
281
Q

used to describe patients who have either unstable angina or an acute myocardial infarction

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

282
Q

believed that the atherosclerotic plaque in the coronary artery ruptures, resulting in platelet
aggregation (“clumping”), thrombus (clot) formation, and vasoconstriction

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

283
Q

amount of disruption of the atherosclerotic plaque determines the degree of coronary artery obstruction (blockage) and the specific disease process

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

284
Q

artery has to have at least 40% plaque accumulation before it starts to block blood flow

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

285
Q

Categories of Acute Coronary Syndrome

A

Unstable Angina
ST-elevation Myocardial Infarction
Non ST-elevation Myocardial Infarction

286
Q

chest pain or discomfort that occurs at rest or with exertion and causes severe activity limitation

A

Unstable Angina

287
Q

an increase in the number of attacks and in the intensity of the pressure indicates _____

A

Unstable Angina

288
Q

pressure may last longer than 15 minutes or may be poorly relieved by rest or nitroglycerin

A

Unstable Angina

289
Q

present with ST changes on a 12-lead ECG but will not have changes in troponin or creatine kinase (CK) levels

A

Unstable Angina

290
Q

patient who has his or her first angina symptoms, usually after exertion or other increased demands on the heart

A

New Onset Angina

291
Q

chest pain that occurs in the days or weeks before an MI

A

Pre-Infarction Angina

292
Q

most serious acute coronary syndrome, often referred to as acute MI

A

Myocardial Infarction

293
Q

can result from undiagnosed or untreated angina

A

Myocardial Angina

294
Q

occurs when myocardial tissue is abruptly and severely deprived of oxygen

A

Myocardial Infarction

295
Q

have ST and T-wave changes on 12-lead ECG indicating myocardial ischemia.

A

Non ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)

296
Q

cardiac enzymes may be initially normal but elevate over the next 6 to 12 hours

A

Non ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)

297
Q

have ST elevation in two contiguous leads on a 12-lead ECG indicating myocardial
infarction/necrosis and requires immediate treatment

A

ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

298
Q

the initial area of infarction, often in the subendocardial layer of cardiac muscle

A

Zone of Necrosis

299
Q

Zone of Necrosis ECG Changes

A

Abnormal Q waves

300
Q

the tissue that is not injured, but is necrotic

A

Zone of Injury

301
Q

Zone of Injury ECG changes

A

ST Elevation

302
Q

Zone of Ischemia ECG changes

A

T Wave Inversion

303
Q

tissue that is oxygen deprived

A

Zone of Ischemia

304
Q

_____ is a dynamic process that does not occur instantly. Rather, it evolves over a period of several hours.

A

Infarction

305
Q

deficient oxygen delivery for given oxygen demand

A

Ischemia

306
Q

Ischemia ECG changes

A

T wave inversion and ST depression

307
Q

abrupt significant interruption of blood supply

A

Injury

308
Q

Injury ECg changes

A

ST elevation in involved area

309
Q

irreversible cell necrosis and death

A

Infarction

310
Q

Infarction ECG changes

A

Pathologic Q waves
- any Q wave in V2 or V3 > 0.04 secs and >2 mm in amplitude, deeper than 2 small squares

311
Q

ST segment Acute changes appear within _____

A

minutes to hours

312
Q

ST Segment Recent changes remain _____ after the event

A

Days to Weeks

313
Q

ST segment may or may not have returned to baseline

A

Recent

314
Q

abnormal Q waves, QS complexes, or regression of R

A

Old

315
Q

ST segments are isoelectric

A

Old

316
Q

Old ST segment T wave inversion may _____

A

persist indefinitely

317
Q

Hallmark of Myocardial Infarction

A

Severe, immobilizing chest pain

318
Q

the first-line diagnostic tool for the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome and should be
obtained within 10 minutes of the patient’s arrival in the emergency department

A

Electrocardiogram

319
Q

ST elevation in two contiguous leads:
✓Greaterthan _____ mm in men younger than 40 years, greater than _____ mm in men older than 40 years, or greater than _____ in women in leads V2-V3 and/or
✓Greater than _____ mm in all other leads

A

5, 2, 1.5, 1

320
Q

ST segment depression in two contiguous leads

New horizontal or down-sloping ST-segment depression greater than _____ mm in 2 contiguous leads

A

5

321
Q

T-wave changes in two contiguous leads:

T inversion greater than _____ mm in two contiguous
leads with prominent R waves or R/S ratio of greater than 1

A

1

322
Q

a protein which becomes elevated with any muscle damage

A

Myoglobin

323
Q

indicated when ECG and serum cardiac markers do not confirm MI

A

Stress Testing

324
Q

Initial Management for MI

A

Morphine
Oxygen
Nitroglyceride
Aspirin

325
Q

Morphine is for ____ and ____

A

Blood Pressure and Respiratory Rate

326
Q

Aspirin is for

A

Thrombus Formation

327
Q

Nitroglyceride is for

A

Vasodilation

328
Q

Oxygen is for

A

Ischemia

329
Q

Dual antiplatelet therapy (e.g., aspirin and ticagrelor) and heparin (UH or LMWH) is
recommended

A

Ongoing angina and negative cardiac markers

330
Q

Coronary angiography with possible PCI is considered once the patient is stabilized and angina is controlled, or if angina returns or increases in severity.

A

Ongoing angina and negative cardiac marker

331
Q

to salvage as much myocardial muscle as possible, _____ is initiated

A

Reperfusion Therapy

332
Q

first line of treatment for patients with confirmed MI

A

Emergent PCI

333
Q

Emergenct PCI - to open the blocked artery within _____ minutes of arrival to a facility that has an interventional cardiac catheterization laboratory

A

90

334
Q

should be given as soon as possible to stop the infarction process by dissolving the thrombus in the coronary artery and reperfusing the myocardium

A

Thrombolytic Therapy

335
Q

Thrombolytic Therapy is given ideally within _____ minutes upon arrival to a facility without interventional cardiac catheterization laboratory and preferably within the first 6 hours after the onset of symptoms

A

30

336
Q

Thrombolytic Therapy: mortality is reduced by _____ if reperfusion occurs within 6 hours

A

25%

337
Q

used in the initial treatment of the patient with ACS

A

IV Nitroglyceride

338
Q

goal: to reduce anginal pain and improve coronary blood flow

A

IV Nitroglyceride

339
Q

side effects of IV Nitroglyceride _____ and _____

A

Hypotension and Tolerance

340
Q

the drug of choice for chest pain that is unrelieved by NTG

A

Morphine Sulfate

341
Q

decreases cardiac workload by lowering myocardial oxygen consumption, reducing contractility, and decreasing BP and HR

A

Morphine Sulfate

342
Q

Morphine sulphate nursing management: Monitor patients for signs of ____ or ____ ,

A

Bradypnea, Hypotension

343
Q

decrease myocardial oxygen demand by reducing HR, BP, and contractility

A

Beta adrenergic Blockers

344
Q

should be started within the first 24 hours and continued indefinitely in patients recovering from STEMI of the anterior wall, with heart failure, or an EF of 40% or less

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors

345
Q

Other Pharmacologic Management for MI

A

Antidysrhythmic Drugs
Lipid-lowering Drugs
Stool Softeners

346
Q

Antidysrhythmic Drug

A

Digoxin

347
Q

Stool Softener

A

Lactulose

348
Q

Nursing Management for MI: Provide NTG, morphine, and supplemental oxygen as needed to eliminate or reduce _____.

A

chest pain

349
Q

a chronic condition in which partial or total arterial occlusion (blockage) deprives the lower extremities of oxygen and nutrients

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease / PAOD

350
Q

the narrowing or blockage of the vessels that carry blood from the heart to the legs as a result of systemic atherosclerosis

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease / PAOD

351
Q

obstructions involving the distal end of the aorta and the common, internal, and external iliac arteries – above the inguinal ligament

A

Inflow Obstruction

352
Q

obstructions involve the femoral, popliteal, and tibial arteries and are below the superficial femoral artery (SFA)

A

Outflow Obstruction

353
Q

a classic leg pain wherein patient can walk only a certain distance before a cramping, burning muscle discomfort or pain forces them to stop and relieves after rest

A

Intermittent Claudication

354
Q

a numbness or burning sensation, often described as feeling like a toothache that is severe enough to awaken patients at night and is relieved by placing feet dependently

A

Rest Pain

355
Q

usually located in the toes, the foot arches, the forefeet, the heels, and, rarely, in the calves or ankles

A

Rest Pain

356
Q

Discomfort in the lower back, buttocks, or thighs - for patient with _____ disease.

A

Inflow

357
Q

Burning or cramping in the calves, ankles, feet, and toes - for patient with _____ disease.

A

Outflow

358
Q

painful and develop on the toes (often the great toe), between the toes, or on the upper aspect of the foot

A

Ulcer Formation

359
Q

small and round with a “punched out” appearance and well-defined borders

A

Ulcer Formation

360
Q

may be done if stenting of the narrowed vessel is planned or to determine the exact amount of narrowing or occlusion before peripheral bypass surgery

A

Arteriography of the Lower Extremity

361
Q

involves injecting contrast medium into the arterial system and has serious risks including hemorrhage, thrombosis, embolus, and death

A

Arteriography of the Lower Extremity

362
Q

an inexpensive, noninvasive method of assessing PAD using a doppler probe

A

Segmental Systolic Blood Pressure Measurement of the Lower Extremities

363
Q

blood pressure readings in the thigh and calf are lower than the brachial pressure
(blood pressure readings are higher in the former than the latter)

A

Segmental Systolic Blood Pressure Measurement of the Lower Extremities

364
Q

used to assess blood flow in the peripheral arteries

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

365
Q

evaluates arterial flow in the lower extremities

A

Plethysmography

366
Q

provides graphs or tracings of arterial flow in the limb

A

Plethysmography

367
Q

waveforms are decreased to flattened, depending on the degree of occlusion if an
occlusion is present

A

Plethysmography

368
Q

most commonly used to increase arterial blood flow in an affected limb

A

Arterial Revascularization

369
Q

Surgical bypass of femoropopliteal and femorotibial arterial occlusions (_____ obstruction)

A

outflow

370
Q

Surgical bypass of aortoiliac, aortofemoral, and axillofemoral arterial occlusions (_____ obstruction)

A

inflow

371
Q

may improve arterial blood flow to the affected leg through buildup of the collateral
circulation

A

Exercising and Positioning

372
Q

Encourage patients to prevent exposure of the affected limb to the _____.

A

cold

373
Q

_____ is a hemorheologic agent that increases the flexibility of red
blood cells. It decreases blood viscosity by inhibiting platelet aggregation and
decreasing fibrinogen and thus increases blood flow in the extremities.

A

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

374
Q

_____, such as aspirin and clopidogrel (Plavix), are commonly used. Aspirin 325 or 81mg daily may be recommended for patients with chronic PAD. However, clopidogrel is better than aspirin for reducing the risk for myocardial
infarction (MI), ischemic stroke, and vascular death.

A

Antiplatelet agent

375
Q

opens blood vessel and improves arterial blood flow through an arterial puncture in the
patient’s groin and dilates one or more arteries with a balloon catheter advanced through a cannula, which is inserted into or above an occluded or stenosed artery

A

Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA)

376
Q

a nonatherosclerotic, segmental, recurrent inflammatory disorder of the small- and medium-sized arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities

A

Buerger’s Disease

377
Q

cause is unknown although there is a strong association with tobacco smoking and is typically identified in young adult men who smoke.

A

Buerger’s Disease

378
Q

muscle pain caused by an inadequate blood supply of the arch of the foot

A

Claudication

379
Q

Diagnostic Studies in Buerger’s Disease - diminished or absent compared with those for opposite leg

A

Doppler Ultrasonography

380
Q

shows an unfilled segment of the vein in an otherwise completely filled vein with its connecting collaterals

A

Phlebography

381
Q

superficial skin vessels are constricted and blanching of the extremity occurs, followed
by cyanosis and returns to becoming reddened when the vasospasm is relieved

A

Reynaud’s Disease

382
Q

attacks are intermittent and can be aggravated by cold or stress

A

Reynaud’s Disease

383
Q

the unilateral spasm of small arteries causes episodes of reduced blood flow to end arteriole of the upper and lower extremities

A

Reynaud’s Phenomenon

384
Q

Reynaud’s Disease occurs in people older than _____ years

A

30

385
Q

the bilateral spasm of small arteries causes episodes of reduced blood flow to end arteriole of the upper and lower extremities

A

Reynaud’s Disease

386
Q

Reynaud’s Disease can occur between the ages of ____

A

17-50 years

387
Q

Reynaud’s Disease is more common in

A

women

388
Q

Vasospasm induced color changes of fingers, toes, ears, and nose (_____, _____ and _____)

A

White, Blue, Red

389
Q

decreased perfusion results in pallor (white). The digits then appear cyanotic (bluish
purple). These changes are followed by rubor (red), caused by the hyperemic
response that occurs when blood flow is restored

A

Vasospasm

390
Q

Coldness and numbness

A

vasoconstriction phase

391
Q

Throbbing, aching pain, tingling,and swelling in the hyperaemic phase

A

Vasodilation st age

392
Q

Pharmacologic therapy of Buerger’s Disease

A

Relief from vasoconstriction

393
Q

Surgical Management for Reynaud’s Disease indicated for severe symptoms not reduced by drugs

A

Lumbar Sympathectomy

394
Q

cutting surgically the sympathetic nerve fibers that cause vasoconstriction of blood
vessels in the legs

A

Lumbar Symathectomy

395
Q

cutting surgically the sympathetic nerve fibers that cause vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the upper extremities

A

Symapathetic Ganglionectomy

396
Q

Drugs that promote vasodilation

A

Nifedipine

397
Q

Blood thinner, decrease cardiac output

A

Streptokinase

398
Q

Excessive Sweating

A

Diaphoresis

399
Q

If all nodes does not function, what will happen

A

Cardiac Arrest

400
Q

X - _____
Y - _____

A

Amplitude, Height, Voltage
Duration, Time