Nursing Exam Flashcards by Jahnita Kati

A prescribed drug of 400 mg is to be infused at a rate of 100 ml over 15 minutes. What is the amount that would be infused in an hour.

A. 400 ml
B. 4 ml
C. 250 ml
D. 125 ml

A. 400 ml

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A resident in an aged care facility frequently apologies for being so much trouble to the staff. Your best response would be to?

A. Talk to them about something else to distract them
B. Listen to them and acknowledge their concerns
C. Contact their family to visit them and keep them company
D. Tell them they don’t need to apologies because they are no trouble.

B. Listen to them and acknowledge their concerns.

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Ondansetron 2mg has been prescribed for a child who weighs 13.6kg. The safe dose if this drug is 0.15mg/kg. Is 2mg a safe dose?
A. No, a safe dose would be 0.3mg
B. No, a safe dose would be 0.6mg
C. No, a safe dose would be 1.02mg
D. Yes, 2mg is a safe dose

D. Yes, 2mg is a safe dose

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A patient tells you they do not want to have the prescribed enoxaparin sodium injection. You respond by?

A. Informing them they must have the injection as it has been prescribed
B. Reassuring them that it is prescribed for everyone who has a surgical procedure
C. Saying it is their choice, which you will respect
D. Asking what concerns them about having the injection

D. Asking what concerns them about having the injection

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A person with asthma arrives at the emergency department and is visibly distressed, coughing and with audible wheeze. Why are they prescribed Salbutamol (beta-adrenergic agonist)?

A. To dilate the airways
B. To reduce secondary infections
C. To decrease postnasal drip
D. To reduce airway inflammation

A. To dilate the airways

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A child weighs 22.4kg, and the prescription is for 24mg/kg of body weight. The medication comes at the strength of 50mg/ml. How many mL (to one decimal place) of the medication should the child receive?

A. 7.5 mL
B. 8.5 mL
C. 9.8 mL
D. 10.8 mL

D. 10.8 mL

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A relative arrives at the hospice and is informed their family member has died. They are angry and ask why they were not informed. You should?

A. Acknowledge their distress but indicate that the confidentiality policy prevented sharing information.
B. Acknowledge their feelings and show support for their distress.
C. Suggest they make an appointment to talk to the doctor because they are the most appropriate person to discuss this
D. Listen to them but say that the death was unexpected

B. Acknowledge their feelings and show support for their distress

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Prior to surgery a patient is to have nothing to eat or drink. This is necessary to?

A. Assist in the proper absorption of the anesthetic
B. Prevent nausea and vomiting immediately after surgery
C. Avoid the danger of inhaling the stomach contents
D. Avoid incontinence during surgery

C. Avoid the danger of inhaling the stomach contents

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One of your responsibilities when caring for a patient in the post- operative phase is to observe for signs if haemorrhage. The type of shock resulting from haemorrhage is?

A. Hypovolemic
B. Vasogenic
C. Neurogenic
Cardiogenic

A. Hypovolemic

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A patient is prescribed 250mg of antibiotics in 200 mL if intravenous fluid over 30 minutes. The correct rate in mL per hour to set the infusion device is.

A.100mL per hour
B. 200mL per hour
C. 400mL per hour
D. 500mL per hour

C. 400mL per hour

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An analgesic medication has been prescribed for a persistent headache. The prescriber has not signed the chart. You should?

A. Double check the analgesic with the nurse manager
B. Contact the prescriber to sign the prescription
C. Give the analgesic, sign for it and inform the nurse manager
D. Phone the prescriber to ensure the prescription is correct and then give it

B. Contact the prescriber to sign the prescription

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What may a person experience in a hypomanic phase of bipolar mood disorder?

A. Hallucinations, fatigue, anhedonia
B. Social withdrawal, decreased self- esteem, obsessive thoughts
C. Elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, irritability
D. Increased activity, increased need to for sleep, pressured speech

C. Elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, irritability

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You are visiting a person at their home. A neighbour stops you and askes for information about the person’s condition. Your best response is to?

A. Tell them how the person is, then inform the person you have talked to their neighbour
B. Tell them how the person is, as long as the disclosure is not contrary to the person’s wishes
C. Ask the person to contact their neighbour so they can give them an update
D. Explain that you can’t disclose any information for privacy reasons.

D. Explain that you can’t disclose any information for privacy reasons

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The best position to assist with gaseous exchange for a person experiencing an asthma attack is?

A. In a supine position
B. Sitting upright
C. Reclining on the left side
D Resting with the chest extended

B. Sitting upright

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A patient’s intravenous normal saline infusion of 1000mL is to be completed in 8 hours’ time. The drop factor is 15 drops per mL. How many drops per minute (dpm) are required to finish the infusion on time?

A. 11dmp
B. 15dmp
C. 31dpm
D. 35dpm

C. 31dpm

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Which of these is a legal right of a person admitted under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act 1992?

A. Right to refuse treatment and care
B. Right to receive information about their status
C. Right to self-discharge against medical advice
D. Right to choose their healthcare provider and clinician

B. Right to receive information about their status

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While admitting a patient for a surgical procedure, they ask you why they need to be weighed. Your best reply would be:

A. Surgery is not carried out on people above the ideal body weight
B. We need to compare your weight on admission with that on your discharge
C. Some drug doses are calculated according to body weight
D. It is routine for all admissions to this unit

C. Some drug doses are calculated according to body weight

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A person’s response to surgery is influenced by many factors. When a person is admitted for surgery, you should explore?

A. Their perceptions and expectations for admissions
B. The risk they exposed to during surgery
C. The reason for the surgery instead of more conservative treatment
D. How psychological stress affects their long-term prognosis

A. Their perceptions and expectations for admission

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A patient experiences major post-operative bleeding. After you ring the bell for help you should?

A. Lay the patient in a prone position
B. Raise the head of the patient’s bed
C. Lower the head of the patient’s bed
D. Ensure the patient’s airway is clear

A. Ensure the patients airway is clear

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A patient tells you they are worried about their surgery. You can most effectively help to relieve their concerns by?

A. Explaining what will happen before the surgery
B. Explaining how pain will be controlled after the operation
C. Encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation
D. Explaining how post-operative complications can be prevented

C. Encouraging them to discuss their perceptions of the operation

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While at work you answer a phone call from a person who is very distressed but won’t give you their name. You should?

A. Tell them to ring back whey are less upset
B. Introduce yourself and tell them to talk properly
C. Explain that you need to see them to talk properly
D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information

D. Establish a rapport to obtain useful information

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What is 400 mcg in g?

A. 0.004
B. 0.04
C. 0.4
D. 0.0004

D. 0.0004

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Jack is prescribed Rivotril 8 mg daily. He weighs 68 kg. The initial dose for 2–3 days should not exceed 0.01 mg/kg/day. Your nursing responsibility is to: 8 mg exceeds the initial safe dose limit of 0.68 mg/day, the correct nursing responsibility would be?

A. Observe for any side effects after giving the drug
B. Contact the doctor to reassess the dose prescribed
C. Consider his weight loss and administer the dose prescribed
D. Check with the charge nurse prior to administration

B. Contact the doctor to reassess the dose prescribed

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Under what circumstances must
permission from the court be sought to treat a minor

A. When the parent or guardian refuses treatment
B. In the case of parental absence, abandonment or incompetence
C. When the minor is seriously injured
D. In the case of parental separation

A. When the parent or guardian refuses treatment

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A person is admitted to the emergency room with trauma and has an estimated blood loss of 1200 to 1400 mL, has a blood pressure of 110/70mmg and a heart rate of 120 beats minute. The best explanation for these observations would be that? A. The person's actual blood loss was less than the originally estimated loss B. The person was normally hypertensive and hence did not have as great a drop in blood pressure as a normotensive person C. The cause of the bleeding is now under control and the increased heart rate is due to anxiety D. An increase in heart rate is compensating for the loss of blood volume

D. An increase in heart rate is compensating for the loss of blood volume

1. Which class of Antipsychotic emerged in the 1960s? A. Anxiolytic B. Typical Antipsychotics C. Atypical Antipsychotics D. Mood Stabilisers

B. Typical Antipsychotics

Which of the following would support a diagnosis of chickenpox A. Chills, headache, malaise B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea C. Koplik's spots, photophobia, fever D. Sore throat, chills, fever

A. Chills, headache, malaise

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that Mrs. T has a patent airway. The next assessment the nurse makes includes? a) The level of consciousness b) Observation for external bleeding c) The status of the patient's respiration d) The rate and character of carotid or femoral pulse

C. The status of the patient's respiration

The role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand is? A. To protect the unregulated and regulated health workforce. B. To regulate doctors to protect public safety. C. To regulate nursing to protect public safety. D. To protect the nursing workforce.

C. To regulate nursing to protect the public safety

For eight hours following surgery your patient has had an intravenous infusion running but they are having difficulty passing urine. Your most appropriate action would be to A. Offer adequate analgesia so that they are able to use their abdominal muscles. B. Assist the patient to stand and pass urine. C. Increase oral fluids to counteract any dehydration. D. Contact the house surgeon and prepare a tray for catheterisation.

B. Assist the patient to stand and pass urine.

To form a basis of trust in your professional relationship with a patient it is essential for you to? a) show an interest in the patient’s problems. b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient. c) make a special time each day to meet with the patient. d) be open to any activity that the patient wishes to be involved in.

b) be honest and authentic when interacting with the patient.

A patient’s partner is worried that the patient is not getting enough to eat. They want to feed them. Your most appropriate response is? a) “I’m sure your partner would appreciate you doing this for them.” b) “What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?” c) “We want to encourage your partner’s independence.” d) “I will discuss your partner’s dietary needs with the dietician.”

b) What makes you think they are not getting enough to eat?

A patient has been prescribed morphine 8 mg 2-3 hourly PRN for pain. Unit stock of morphine is 10 mg in 1 mL. How much morphine should be drawn up for the patient? a) 0.08 mL. b) 0.25 mL c) 0.75 mL. d) 0.80 mL.

d) 0.80 mL

A patient is given morphine sulfate. What is the most important action? A. Come back every shift to check IV site B. Assess patients heart rate C. Observe patient's blood pressure D. Document all medications given and time given in patients notes

C. Observe patient's blood pressure

You have received a handover from the night nurse, what is your priority? A. Patient who is going for a mega surgery later in the morning B. post-op patient with oozing wound C. post-op patient who is transferring to another hospital D. Patient who had difficulty breathing on the shift before

D. Patient who had difficulty breathing on the shift before

A patient has a painful left calf and coughing blood sputum; what signs are these of? A. Fat embolism B. Pulmonary embolism C. Cellulitis D. DVT

B. Pulmonary embolism

An EN is working with you. You delegate a task to the EN. What must you do as the RN? A. Follow up with the EN B. Ensure task are done satisfactorily C. Note down the task then check if all tasks have been done D. Don’t need to check as EN is responsible enough

B. Ensure task are done satisfactorily

Michael aged 25 is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in a treatment clinic with moderate lacerations to both wrists. Accompanied with broken glass he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should the nurse approach Michael initially a) Enter the room quietly and move beside Michael to assess his injuries b) Call for staff backup before entering the room and restraining Michael c) Move as much glass away from Michael as possible and quietly sit next to his d) Approach Michael slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling his name and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

D. Approach Michael slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling his name and telling him that the nurse is here to help him ???

What is the first action of the nurse who is about to give an 8-year-old, his pre-medication when she notices crumbs around his mouth a) Check for any food in his locker b) Ask him when he last had something to eat c) Give the pre medication and then report your observation Report your observation before giving the pre medications d) Report your observations before giving the pre medication

b) Ask him when he last had something to eat

Mrs. Adams suffers from dementia and requires a dressing to a shin wound. The nurse suspects the wound is the result of a non-accidental injury. What is the main cause of non-accidental injury in an elderly person suffering from dementia a) A dependent person being more prone to injury b) A long-standing pattern of domestic violence c) The home not being a suitable place for a dependent person d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home

d) The increased stress in caring for a dependent person at home

During the last days of life, vitals sign monitoring should be: A) Discontinued B) prescribed by a medical officer C) Continued at 4 hourly intervals D) Discuss with the patient's family?

D) Discuss with the patient's family

A patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is your best response? A) Leave them in a room alone B) Tell them this was unacceptable and set boundaries C) Get them to express how they are feeling D) Give PRN medication.

C) Get them to express how they are feeling

What is an advance directive? A. A legal document that states what the patient wants in care when they cognitively decline B. A document detailing emergency contact information C. A plan for diet and exercises D. A legal document for financial planning

A. A legal document that states what the patient wants in care when they cognitively decline

What does DNR mean? A. No comfort cares B. Do not actively resuscitate C. Do not refer D. Do not relocate

B. Do not actively resuscitate

A student nurse is told to conduct oral care on a dementia patient but declines. What do you do? A. The patient has the right to refuse B. Go back and offer when they feel more comfortable C. Force the patient to accept care D. Ignore the refusal and proceed

B. Go back and offer when they feel more comfortable

What is an early warning sign of increased ICP (Intracranial Pressure) A. Loss of consciousness B. Severe headache C. Nausea and vomiting D. Dilated pupils

What are the signs and symptoms of hypoxia? A. Cyanosis, confusion, shortness of breath B. High blood pressure, dry skin, fever C. Vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain D. Excessive sweating, rapid pulse, headache

A. Cyanosis, confusion, shortness of breath

Exacerbation of COPD: What signs and symptoms should you expect? A. Increased breathlessness, wheezing, chest tightness B. Fever, chills, cough with phlegm C. Sudden weight gain, swollen ankles, fatigue D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

A. Increased breathlessness, wheezing, chest tightness

What is dabigatran? A. Anticoagulants B. Antihypertensives C. Antibiotics D. Antidepressants

A. Anticoagulants

A child who is very sick with a temperature of 39.2°C and their whanau wants to hold a spiritual meeting. What is your best response? A. Move the patient to a single room B. Ask the family if they need anything / ask the whanau what they need for the spiritual meeting C. Take the whanau to the whanau room D. Tell the whanau only two people are allowed

B. Ask the family if they need anything / ask the whanau what they need for the spiritual meeting

Parents of a terminally ill Māori child would like to assist with the care of their child. You can best support them by? A. Allowing them to stay by the bedside B. Offering food and drinks during their stay while they care for their child C. Teaching them how to administer subcutaneous pain relief D. Advising them to rest and leave the care to the nurses

A child has no ID bracelet before administering meds. What should you do? A. Ask the parents for the child’s name and date of birth B. Contact the prescriber C. Administer the medication and update the ID later D. Refuse to administer the medication

What are the side effects of ceftriaxone? A. Vomiting and diarrhea B. Hypertension and headache C. Rash and itching D. Dry mouth and blurred vision

A. Vomiting and diarrhea

A patient is getting discharged from the MH unit, the dad wants his son to stay at home, but the patient wants to go flatting. What is your best response? A. Tell the patient he has the right to be independent B. Encourage the patient to discuss with his dad about his living options C. Help the patient look for a flat D. Advise the patient to listen to his father

B. Encourage the patient to discuss with his dad about his living options

40 mmol of potassium in 1000ml over 8 hours; the patient develops phlebitis, and you stop the infusion after 2.5 hours. How much potassium was used? A. 12.5 mmol B. 10 mmol C. 20 mmol D. 15 mmol

A. 12.5 mmol

A reaction during a blood transfusion where the patient begins to itch? A. Increase the infusion rate B. Stop the infusion C. Continue and monitor D. Administer antihistamines and continue

B. Stop the infusion

What do you expect from a pre-surgery patient regarding perceptions and expectations of surgery? A. Anxiety and fear B. Excitement and eagerness C. Apathy and disinterest D. Joy and happiness

A. Anxiety and fear

What is a vacuum drain wound dressing? A. A dressing that uses suction to remove fluid and promote healing B. A dressing that seals the wound with glue C. A dressing that keeps the wound dry D. A dressing that applies pressure to stop bleeding

A. A dressing that uses suction to remove fluid and promote healing

A child in PACU wants their parents. What should you do? A. Offer a phone call B. Ignore the request C. Tell the child to wait D. Sedate the child

A. Offer a phone call

The patient needs an urgent procedure, has signed the consent form but doesn't understand the procedure. What would you do? A. Reassure them they need to go immediately B. Send them to theatre and rush them off C. Explain what informed consent is D. Explain the procedure in detail

D. Explain the procedure in detail

What are the precautions for MRSA pneumonia? A. Protective B. Contact C. Droplet D. Isolated

If a child in the care of Oranga Tamariki needs a blood transfusion, who do you gain consent from? A. Legal Guardian of the child B. OT caregivers C. Doctor D. Parent

A. Legal Gurdian of the child

What are commonly expressed symptoms in someone diagnosed with schizophrenia? A. Hallucinations, delusions, disorganised thinking B. Fever, chills, muscle aches C. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision D. Cough, chest pain, shortness of breath

A. Hallucinations, delusions, disorganised thinking

What is the purpose of folic acid? A. Prevent neural tube defects B. Improve bone density C. Enhance muscle strength D. Increase iron levels

A. Prevent neural tube defects

Pre-eclampsia management? A. Provide them with a urine spec and check BP before contacting LMC or doctor B. Immediate administration of insulin C. Encourage fluid intake D. Monitor blood sugar levels

A. Provide them with a urine spec and check BP before contacting LMC or doctor

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea? A. Discharge, pain during urination, pelvic pain B. High fever, chills, cough C. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea D. Rash, itching, dry skin

A. Discharge, pain during urination, pelvic pain

Signs and symptoms of asthma? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Increased appetite C. Skin rash D. High fever

A. Bronchoconstriction

Mother of a child encounters their child with impetigo (school sores). What should they do? A. Avoid sharing bedding and towels B. Use a humidifier C. Increase fluid intake D. Avoid physical activity

A. Avoid sharing bedding and towels

What is a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)? A. Bleeding on the brain B. Occurs within 24 hours C. More severe symptoms and outcome than a TIA D. Minor symptoms resolving quickly

C. More severe symptoms and outcome than a TIA

Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding? A. Increased respiratory rate, decreased heart rate B. Decreased respiratory rate, increased heart rate C. Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate D. Decreased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate

C. Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate

Blood transfusion to a child whose family is Jehovah's Witness. What do you do? A. Under no circumstances will they receive blood B. Only use donor plasma C. Can get a court order in an emergency D. Do nothing and respect their wishes

A patient is post-op and internally bleeding. What are the signs of internal bleeding? A. Increased respiratory rate and increased pulse B. Increased respiratory rate and decreased pulse C. Decreased respiratory rate and increased pulse D. Decreased respiratory rate and decreased pulse

A. Increased respiratory rate and increased pulse

Post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy, what is something to look out for? A. Delayed hemorrhage B. Increased appetite C. Enhanced sense of taste D. Improved sleep patterns

A. Delayed hemorrhage

What is pneumonia? A. Infected mucus sitting in bronchioles B. Blood infection C. Inflammation of the liver D. Kidney infection

A. Infected mucus sitting in bronchioles

Why do you teach deep breathing post-op? A. To prevent lung complications and promote oxygenation B. To reduce nausea C. To increase appetite D. To help with digestion

A. To prevent lung complications and promote oxygenation

Which blood group would match with B+? A. B+ and O+ B. A+ and AB+ C. O- and A- D. AB- and B-

A. B+ and O+

How to prevent DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) post-op? A. Early mobilisation B. Increase fluid intake C. Avoid physical activity D. High-protein diet

A. Early mobilisation

Why can't you take insulin orally? A. Because insulin doesn't come in pill form B. Takes longer in pill form C. It would be broken down by digestive enzymes D. It has an unpleasant taste

C. It would be broken down by digestive enzymes

Signs and symptoms of type 1 diabetes? A. Increased thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss B. Rash, itching, dry skin C. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Increased thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss

How does diabetes differ from type 2 diabetes? A. Type 1 is usually diagnosed in childhood and requires insulin B. Type 1 is less severe C. Type 2 is usually diagnosed in childhood D. Type 1 is managed with diet alone

A. Type 1 is usually diagnosed in childhood and requires insulin

Development of a 2-year-old child: How many words are they expected to know? A. 50-100 words B. 200-300 words C. 500-600 words D. 700-800 words

B. 200-300 words

A patient in PACU has a respiratory rate of 8 and low BP. Do you give morphine? A. Withhold morphine and contact the anesthetist B. Administer morphine as prescribed C. Give a lower dose of morphine D. Increase the rate of morphine

A. Withhold morphine and contact the anesthetist

What increases the risk of cardiovascular disease? A. Smoking, high cholesterol, high blood pressure B. Low-fat diet C. Regular exercise D. Moderate alcohol consumption

A. Smoking, high cholesterol, high blood pressure

A patient complains of hip pain and has non-blanchable erythema. What is your priority? A. Reposition and give pain relief B. Increase fluid intake C. Apply a cold compress D. Administer antibiotics

A. Reposition and give pain relief

A normal bowel motion for a baby on its 4th day would be? A. Small and dark green B. Pale yellow and smell slightly offensive C. Soft bright yellow and a tinge of green D. Black, tarry and soft

C. Soft bright yellow and a tinge of green???

You witness a nurse humiliate a patient. After ensuring the patient is okay, what must you do? A. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager B. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, if this continues you will have to report it to the nurse or manager C. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable and that they should inform the charge nurse D. Don't do anything as the patient must have provoked it

A. Tell the nurse their behavior was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager

Repeated strep A infection can cause? A. Rheumatic fever B. High blood pressure C. Diabetes D. Asthma

A. Rheumatic fever

Why is monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance important in children? A. Because they are at risk for dehydration B. To ensure they get enough vitamins C. To monitor their calorie intake D. To prevent obesity

A. Because they are at risk for dehydration

You are a circulating nurse, and you notice the scrub nurse has broken the sterile field. What do you do? A. Notify the nurse B. Notify the surgeon C. Do nothing D. Ignore the incident

B. Notify the surgeon

An older adult says his family is financially abusing him. What do you do? A. Validate the finding and refer to the appropriate agency B. Inform the police C. Do nothing as it’s a family matter D. Advise him to talk to his family

A. Validate the finding and refer to the appropriate agency ?

Common side effects of morphine? A. Nausea, constipation, drowsiness B. High blood pressure, headache, blurred vision C. Rash, itching, dry skin D. Fever, chills, muscle aches

A. Nausea, constipation, drowsiness

The doctor calls you over the phone and informs you that he would like to give a verbal order of a prescription. Your next action would be to? A. Ask the doctor to wait while you get a second nurse to receive the verbal order with you B. Tell the doctor you cannot accept the verbal order until he has assessed the patient himself C. Receive the verbal order and administer the medication as prescribed D. Inform the patient immediately

A. Ask the doctor to wait while you get a second nurse to receive the verbal order with you

Features of anorexia nervosa? A. Intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, severe weight loss B. High blood pressure, headaches, blurred vision C. Increased appetite, weight gain, fatigue D. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

A. Intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, severe weight loss

You are assisting a patient to mobilise for the first time post abdominal surgery. What actions would you take? A. Sit them up on the bedside and explain to them how to hold their abdomen when mobilising B. Give pain relief and oxygen C. Provide support with a pillow to hold the abdomen and guide them in taking slow, controlled steps D. Encourage deep breathing and assess for signs of dizziness or discomfort during mobilization

A. Sit them up on the bedside and explain to them how to hold their abdomen when mobilising

The symptoms of early stage shock (compensatory) are: a. Hypotension, pale, clammy b. Normal or abnormal blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnoea c. Irritability, hypotension, diarrhea d. Increased thirst, confusion, weak pulse

b. Normal or abnormal blood pressure, tachycardia, tachypnoea

You are nursing a patient with COPD. The most effective recommendation to the patient would be? A. Reduce physical activity B. Stop smoking and vaping C. Monitor oxygen saturation level D. Use a bronchodilator before exercising

B. Stop smoking and vaping

A patient was admitted to ED due to dairy allergy. To prevent the patient going into anaphylactic shock, you would? A. Document all food and medication they are allergic to B. Have adrenaline ready C. Ask the family member what they had eaten all day D. Access a list of the patient’s known allergies from the medical records

B. Have adrenaline ready

Hypoglycemic signs and symptoms include? A. Fever and lethargy B. Dizziness, sweating, confused C. Warm, dry and flushed skin D. Rapid heart rate and trembling

B. Dizziness, sweating, confused

When teaching a patient about caring for their stoma bag, which appearance would warrant a visit to the GP? A. Regular fully formed stools B. Regular loosely formed stools C. Stoma appears pale, dusky, or discolored D. Stoma appears swollen and inflamed

C. Stoma appears pale, dusky, or discolored

Side effects of Cephalexin include: A. Low libido and tachycardia B. Vomiting and diarrhea C. Hypotension and altered level of consciousness D. Rash and itching

B. Vomiting and diarrhea

A patient just had a right total hip replacement surgery. What is the best position to place them in during recovery? A. On their back and avoiding the right leg crossing over the midline B. Have both legs extended at a 90-degree angle C. On their right side with a pillow between the legs D. On their right side with the left leg crossed over the midline

A. On their back and avoiding the right leg crossing over the midline

A patient who just had surgery only passed 20mls of urine in the past two hours. What is your next crucial step? A. Wait another hour and see if the patient passes 50mls of urine B. Inform the doctor C. Commence a bag of IV fluids D. Give the patient a cup of water

B. Inform the doctor

Which is the correct statement about a TIA? A. It is more serious than a stroke B. It can last no more than 24 hours C. It is caused by bleeding in the brain D. It is caused by a blood clot in the vein

B. It can last no more than 24 hours

A patient is requiring an urgent blood transfusion, but you noticed the initials of the blood type are incorrect. What is your next immediate step? A. Give the blood and monitor for signs of allergy B. Withhold and document the incident C. Withhold the infusion and contact the blood bank to get another bag that is a match D. Inform the charge nurse to find out whether it should be withheld or not

C. Withhold and contact the blood bank to get another bag that is a match

What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Increase heart rate and decreased respiration rate B. Decreased heart rate and increased respiration rate C. Decreased heart rate and decreased respiration rate D. Increased heart rate and increased respiration rate

D. Increased heart rate and increased respiration rate

How does an osmotic laxative work? A. Increases peristalsis B. Draws fluid into the large intestine to soften stool C. It lubricates the large intestine D. Increases fluid absorption in the colon

B. Draws fluid into the large intestine to soften stool

What is the purpose of giving a low-dose anticoagulant? A. To help treat pain B. To prevent infection in the body C. To prevent exacerbation of asthma D. To prevent thrombus formation

D. To prevent thrombus formation

What is the primary mechanism of asthma? A. Collection of fluid in the pleural space B. Destruction of alveoli C. Bronchiole dysplasia D. Bronchi muscle spasm

D. Bronchi muscle spasm

When administering medication, you must be aware of: A. The half-life and rate of excretion B. Drug action and what the body does to the drug C. The patient's diet and fluid intake D. The time of day the medication should be taken

B. Drug action and what the body does to the drug

Angina is caused by? A. Complete obstruction of coronary arteries B. Restricted blood flow to the coronary arteries C. Partial obstruction of coronary vein D. Reduced blood flow to coronary vein

B. Restricted blood flow to the coronary arteries

What is the correct way of taking off PPE (doffing)? A. Gown, eyewear, mask, gloves B. Gloves, gown, eyewear, mask C. Gown, mask, gloves, eyewear D. Eyewear, mask, gown, gloves

B. Gloves, gown, eyewear, mask

A patient tells you they had a fall in the shower. What do you do? A. Document the fall in their nursing notes B. Do nothing C. Assess the patient for injuries and continue monitoring for the next 24 hours D. Immediately inform the doctor without assessing the patient

C. Assess the patient for injuries and continue monitoring for the next 24 hours

A patient appears to have lost consciousness on arrival to the hospital, what is your first action? A. Call for help and commence CPR B. Assess for responsiveness and call for help C. Check for pulse and commence CPR D. Maintain airway

B. Assess for responsiveness and call for help

What is important to note down during a seizure? A. Timing and frequency of limb movements B. Limb positions C. Vital signs and position D. Any changes in skin color or breathing pattern

A. Timing and frequency of limb movements

A 16-year-old patient is admitted to the mental health inpatient unit for psychosis. He expresses he thinks he has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) as he had unprotected sex. He tells you he does not want his parents to know. What is your next action? A. Keep his confidentiality B. Say I have to tell your parents C. Book him into the sexual health clinic D. Admit him under the MHA for assessment and treatment

A. Keep his confidentiality

A patient on a mental health inpatient unit appears irritable and isolating himself in his room. He keeps shouting “they are out to get me; they are going to come hurt me”. Your most appropriate response would be? A. Ask him who is out to get him and how are they planning to hurt him B. Tell him that he is safe here and no one is going to hurt him C. Tell him that you can see that he is upset and ask him if he would like to talk more about it D. Tell him that he is safe and offer him his PRN medication

C. Tell him that you can see that he is upset and ask him if he would like to talk more about it

A patient you are caring for is exhibiting signs of alcohol withdrawal 24 hours after admission. After completing your vital observations, your next most appropriate action would be to? A. Inform the doctor B. Commence a bag of IV fluids C. Take an electrocardiogram (ECG) reading and monitor their fluid balance D. Commence alcohol withdrawal scale

D. Commence alcohol withdrawal scale

The most common feature of Benzodiazepine is that? A. Taking it too long can cause dependence B. Taking it too long can cause tolerance C. It is safe to take it as long as the patient does not use alcohol to self-medicate D. It does not cause dependence or tolerance

A. Taking it too long can cause dependence

A mental health patient is recovering well with their condition and is about to be discharged into the community. When creating a wellness plan with them, you must take into consideration: A. Where they will live B. Their strengths and personal resources C. Their employment status and support network D. Their medical history and current medications

B. Their strengths and personal resources

A mental health patient who is under the MHA with mania is disruptive and starting to annoy other patients. What is the best response? A. Reestablish acceptable behavior standards B. Take them to a quiet, low-stimulus room and stay with them C. Get them to express their feelings and thoughts D. Leave them alone or give PRN medication (I can’t remember which one)

B. Take them to a quiet, low-stimulus room and stay with them ?? Or A?

How soon after birth can a woman experience postnatal depression? A. Within the first week B. Within the first 6 months C. Within 1 year D. Within the first 3 months

D. Within the first 3 months The signs and symptoms of postnatal depression usually appear in the first one to three months following delivery, but onset can occur at any time in the first year. The early postpartum checks provide an opportunity for practitioners to screen and identify most cases of postnatal depression. https://bpac.org.nz

What age can you introduce complementary (solid) foods to a child? A. When the child is 1 years old B. 4 months after delivery C. When the child is able to sit up independently D. 6 months after delivery

D. 6 months after delivery

What is the best advise to give parents to avoid otitis media? A. Encourage a smoke free home B. Use nasal decongestants regularly C. Place toddler in supine position when feeding D. Avoid other children with otitis media

A. Encourage a smoke free home

A parent asks you for advice on how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome. What would be your advice? A. Place baby in the same bed as the parents B. Place baby in prone position in the cot C. Place baby in supine position in the cot with no coverings and pillows and ensure the room is smoke-free D. Use a baby monitor and ensure the baby sleeps with a nightlight on

C. Place baby in supine position in the cot with no coverings and pillows and ensure the room is smoke-free

An elderly patient at an aged care facility has gone missing. After looking for the patient in the surroundings of the facility, your next appropriate action would be to: A. Call the elderly’s family and tell them that he is missing B. Document the incident and call the police C. Follow the facility’s protocol and guidelines for missing patients D. Conduct a full search of the facility before informing others

C. Follow the facility’s protocol and guidelines for missing patients

A patient you are looking after is a high falls risk. What would be your first nursing intervention? A. Adjust the bed to the lowest position B. Place a sensor mat next to the bed C. Do regular intentional rounding D. Offer the patient a walking aid

A. Adjust the bed to the lowest position

What is the importance of vitamin D for elderly in the prevention of falls? A. It helps increase absorption of calcium B. It helps increase absorption of iodine C. It helps increase absorption of magnesium D. It helps increase absorption of potassium

A. It helps increase absorption of calcium

What is the most important information when assessing the falls risk of an elderly? A. Hypertension B. Genetic factors C. Having had a fall in the last 12 months D. Use of medication that affects balance

C. Having had a fall in the last 12 months

An elderly person with memory impairment was recently admitted to your aged care facility. After introducing yourself, your next most appropriate step would be to? A. Introduce the elderly to the other residents B. Ensure the elderly person has their belongings so they can make their room look more familiar C. Explain the facility’s meal times and arrangements in detail D. Introduce the elderly person to the facilities weekly activities

B. Ensure the elderly person has their belongings so they can make their room look more familiar

An elderly patient is refused their nighttime medication. What would be your most appropriate nursing response? A. Leave it on their bedside table so they can take it when the feel like it B. Document their reason for refusing the medication and dispose of the medication C. Tell them they must take it as it is their prescribed medication D. Reassure them that the medication is safe, and they must take it as it is prescribed

B. Document their reason for refusing the medication and dispose of the medication ?

An elderly patient with dementia keeps mistaking you for their relative. What would be your best response? A. Continue pretending that you are and ask questions B. Reiterate that you are not C. Say “your relative would be upset if they knew you were saying this” D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

D. Give plenty of reassurance and engage in an activity

Elderly patients are more prone to post-surgical complications because they have? A. Increased immune response B. Decreased muscle mass and mobility C. Increased cardiovascular resilience D. Reduced renal function and slower drug metabolism

B. Decreased muscle mass and mobility

What signs are indicative of Alzheimer's disease in an elderly patient? A. Short-term memory loss, impaired cognition, impaired executive function B. Memory loss, increased paranoia, increased delusional thinking C. Ataxia and akathisia D. Difficulty with speech, disorientation, and mood swings

A. Short-term memory loss, impaired cognition, impaired executive function

A 10-week pregnant woman visits your clinic, stating that her neighbor’s daughter has rubella. What would you advise her to do? A. Advise her to get the rubella vaccine as soon as possible B. Stay away from the daughter C. Advise her to book an appointment with her midwife to discuss this

C. Advise her to book an appointment with her midwife to discuss this

The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis is? A. Emotional stress B. Infection C. Inadequate insulin intake D. Inadequate food intake

C. Inadequate insulin intake

Diabetes affects the metabolism of? A. Carbohydrates only B. Protein and fats only C. Carbohydrates and fats only D. Carbohydrates, protein and fats

D. Carbohydrates, protein and fats

What is Glycosuria? A. A blood glucose test done 6 hours after fasting B. An absence of glucose in the urine after eating C. The amount of filtered glucose that exceeds the kidney’s absorption rate

C. The amount of filtered glucose that exceeds the kidney’s absorption rate

How is hepatitis B spread? A. Eating food that is not cooked properly B. Not washing hands thoroughly C. Through blood and bodily fluids of an infection person

C. Through blood and bodily fluids of an infection person

After rinsing a burn wound with cool water, what first aid dressing would you use? A. Dry gauze B. Cling film (gladwrap) C. Hydrocolloid dressing D. Tubi grip

B. Cling film (gladwrap)

A woman came to your clinic to receive her human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Afterwards, she asked you where the still needs a pap smear even though she has received the vaccine. What would be your response? A. You should book an appointment at the sexual health clinic and speak to the doctor or nurse there about it B. No, a pap smear is no longer needed once you are vaccinated C. Yes, you still need to have pap smears as there are different strains of HPV virus

C. Yes, you still need to have pap smears as there are different strains of HPV virus

Text messages between nurse and patient? A. Is appropriate when delivering bad news B. Can only be done by doctors C. Are never appropriate D. Are appropriate in a professional manner

D. Are appropriate in a professional manner ?

There is a fire on the unit, and you are asked to evacuate the patients. What is the correct procedure? A. Move all the patients from the fire zone to the adjacent non-fire zone B. Ask the mobile patients to help move the non-mobile patients to the non-fire zone C. Move the immobile patients first and ask the mobile patients to evacuate themselves D. Leave the immobile patients for the fire service to rescue them

C. Move the immobile patients first and ask the mobile patients to evacuate themselves

At a social gathering, a former patient comes up to you and tells you that they did not understand their diagnosis when they discharged him from the hospital. He gave you his NHI number and asked you to access his records so you can explain it to him. Your most appropriate action would be? A. Access his records and give them to him B. Give them his records and ask him to see his GP to explain the diagnosis C. Advise him to make an application to the ward to retrieve his records

C. Advise him to make an application to the ward to retrieve his records

What is a multidisciplinary team meeting? A. A meeting to improve patient safety on the ward B. A meeting between doctors and nurses going over individual cases C. A meeting between doctors and whanau going over individual cases D. A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases

D. A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases

You come across a nurse who is accessing records of a patient in a different clinical area. What do you think of this situation? A. Only Doctors can access patient records in a different clinical area B. This breaches professional standards and practice C. This is appropriate as long as the nurse knows the patient

B. This breaches professional standards and practice

A patient says that’s a different colour to my usual tablet. What would be your next action? A. Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back B. Tell the patient that sometimes the pharmacist substitutes brands but it is the same medication C. Reassure the patient that it is the same medication as prescribed by the doctor D. Tell the patient that there is nothing to worry about

A. Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back

How do you know if a patient fully understands their treatment plan or surgery? A. They are able to repeat what they understood using their own words B. They repeat what you said word for word C. They ask multiple questions about the plan or surgery D. They express confidence in the plan, even without asking questions

A. They are able to repeat what they understood using their own words

A patient tells you that they do not want “young female nurses” to care for them. What would be your most appropriate response? A. Tell them that they cannot choose who cares for them B. Ask them about their preference and accommodate them as best you can C. Assign them the most senior nurse to care for them

B. Ask them about their preference and accommodate them as best you can

Who determines when culturally safe care has been delivered? A. The patient and/or their whanau B. The nurse C. The doctor D. Hospital policy and guidelines

A. The patient and/or their whanau

A Māori patient who has just finished his surgery arrives at the post anesthetic care unit. He tells you that his whanau are waiting outside the unit, and he would like to come see him. Your most appropriate action would be? A. Offer to call them on the phone and let him speak to them B. Tell him that there is no room on the unit C. Tell him that it breaches the confidentiality of the other patients D. Tell him that they can visit him when he is on the ward

D. Tell him that they can visit him when he is on the ward

A Māori patient in a mental health setting expresses to you that the is immersed in his Maoritanga. How would you best provide support to meet his needs? A. Ask kaumatua about Maoritanga values B. Ask a Māori colleague to assist with his needs C. Follow the hospital’s tikanga best practices

C. Follow the hospital’s tikanga best practices

A patient has been given a terminal diagnosis. They are struggling to cope and ask you “am I going to die?”. Your most appropriate nursing response would be? A. Everything will be fine B. Let me get the doctor for you to discuss your diagnosis C. Acknowledge the concern and encourage to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis

C. Acknowledge the concern and encourage to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis

A recently diagnosed diabetic patients tells you that they are scared about giving themselves an injection. What would be your best response? A. Don’t worry, you will get used to it B. What is it about the injection that concerns you?

B. What is it about the injection that concerns you?

You and a student nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient. The student expresses to you that they have not come across a dying patient before and do not know what to do. Your most appropriate nursing response would be to? A. Tell the student that it is a normal part of the job B. Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect C. Tell the student that you have never come across this situation before and don’t know what to do yourself

B. Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect

A client recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis asks the nurse how acidosis occurs. The best response by the nurse is that? A. Excess glucose in the blood is metabolized by the liver into acetone, which is acidic in nature B. An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of triglycerides, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones C. Insufficient insulin leads to cellular starvation, and as cells rupture they release acids into the blood stream D. When an insulin deficit causes hyperglycaemia then proteins are destroyed by the liver, causing acidic by-products

B. An insulin deficit promotes metabolism of triglycerides, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones

Following the delivery of a shock with the AED the immediate nursing action is to. a) Reassess for a pulse b) Do chest compressions only c) Resume CPR d) Do ventilation only

C) Resume CPR

When the nurse performs oral hygiene for josie, whilst she is still unconscious, which of the following actions would be most appropriate? A. Use manual instead of mechanical ventilation B. Keep suction apparatus available C. Place josie in a prone position D. Wear sterile gloves

B. Keep suction apparatus available

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks’ gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of? a) Gestational hypertension b) Pre-eclampsia c) Eclampsia d) Elevated liver enzymes

B. Pre-eclampsia

Which of the following represents a positive change of pregnancy? a) Morning sickness b) Quickening c) Positive pregnancy test d) Foetal heart beat auscultated with Doppler

b) Quickening

Newly expectant parents, ask the nurse how they can prepare their 3yr old preschool daughter for the new baby. All of the following would be useful except? a) Tell the child about the pregnancy as soon as mother begins to look pregnant b) Arrange for a few sleepovers with the person who will care for the child at the time of the birth c) Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby d) Introduce their child to preschool as soon as possible

c) Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby

Which of the following statements can be used as a guideline for planning diets during pregnancy? a) An increase of 300 calories per day beginning in the first trimester b) A ten percent increase in protein above daily requirements c) Iron supplementation is recommended for women whose diets are lacking in iron d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent

d) The requirement for folic acid is increased by 50 percent

Which of the following represents a recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a) 6-11 kgs b) 11-16 kgs c) 13-18 kgs d) 18-20 kgs

b) 11-16kgs

Larry and Mary Smith had planned their first pregnancy for some time, but when it is confirmed, Mary feels conflicting emotions. She comes to the clinic for her first prenatal (antenatal) visit at ten weeks gestation. Mary shares her mixed feelings about the pregnancy with the midwife. The midwifes best response would be to? a) Encourage her to consider abortion counselling b) Encourage her to seek support from Larry c) Reassure her that when she feels the baby move, her mixed feelings will disappear completely d) Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned

d) Reassure her that most women experience some mixed feelings in early pregnancy, even when their pregnancies are planned

Mary's last menstrual period was 11 April. Her EDD (expected date of delivery) would be? a) 4 January b) 18 January c) 25 January d) 4 February

b) 18 January

Tui is 22 years old and has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms she is pregnant. This is her first pregnancy. Tui can expect to experience all the following signs in the early stages of her pregnancy except a) Chadwick‟s sign b) Goodell's sign c) Homans sign d) Frequency of micturition

c) Homans sign

During Tui’s sixth week of pregnancy she experienced a small episode of vaginal bleeding. You should suspect a) Placenta previa b) Urinary tract infection c) Threatened abortion d) Abruption placenta

c) Threatened abortion

Four purposes of chromosomal studies, amniocentesis is most commonly performed a) Anytime in early pregnancy b) Usually not until after the 12th week c) Usually not until after the 20th week d) Anytime during pregnancy

b) Usually not until after the 12th week

Traditional Māori health practices were outlawed by which of the following acts of parliament? a) Suppression of rebellion act 1860 b) Native lands act 1865 c) Suppression of tohunga act 1908 d) Constitution act 1852

c) Suppression of tohunga act 1908

You are a public health nurse, who has completed a project on diabetes involving Māori clients. You are to visit the local marae to share the results. You are working in a bicultural relationship with the local Māori health initiative on diabetes. Which statement would best describe your role within this initiative? a) To set up a structure that allows access to funds b) To teach the Māori initiative about health reforms c) To provide resource materials and information d) To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health

d) To promote partnership, protection and participation in Māori health

You have invited Raewyn your supervisor to attend. As part of the preparation for the visit what is essential for Raewyn to know? a) Learn Māori greetings so she can communicate with the marae committee b) Learn about the Treaty of Waitangi so she can be culturally safe c) Learn about marae protocol, so she can behave appropriately d) Learn about the history of the marae

c) Learn about marae protocol, so she can behave appropriately

A home care nurse begins caring for a 25 year old female called Lydia who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).Lydia asks the nurse, ‘how could this have happened?” the nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is? a) Hugging an HIV positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions b) Inhaling cocaine or other recreational drugs c) Sharing a drink bottle with an HIV positive person d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

d) Sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

The physician prescribes zidovudine (AZT) a drug that acts to help? a) Destroy the virus b) Enhance the bodys antibody production c) Slow replication of the virus d) Neutralise toxin; produced by the causative organism

c) Slow replication of the virus

The primary reason that a herpes simplex infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that herpes simplex? a) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness b) Is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy c) Can lead to cervical cancer d) Causes severe electrolyte imbalances

a) Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Ethics (2019) for healthcare professionals in New Zealand? A. To provide a framework for legal compliance in healthcare settings B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice C. To establish the educational requirements for nursing professionals D. To define the roles and responsibilities of healthcare administrators

B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice

What is the primary role of the Nursing Council of New Zealand (NCNZ) in relation to nursing practice? A. To provide direct patient care and treatment B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New Zealand C. To conduct research on nursing practices D. To manage healthcare facilities and resources

B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New Zealand

What is the primary purpose of the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act (HPCAA, 2003) in New Zealand? A. To establish a framework for the registration of health practitioners B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care C. To outline the ethical responsibilities of health practitioners D. To regulate the pricing of healthcare services

B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care

Newborns with heart disease are frequently brought to health professionals initially because the infant is having? a) Difficulty sleeping b) Irritability and restlessness c) Difficulty feeding d) Cyanotic spells

c) Difficulty feeding

According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development that generally characterises pre-school children is the? a) Preoperational stage b) Sensorimotor stage c) Oral stage d) Psychosocial stage

a) Preoperational stage

Pediculosis is common childhood infestation. It is commonly known as? a) Pin worms b) Foot eczema c) Head lice d) Scabies

c) Head lice

Generally, the child most likely to ingest a poison is? a) 10 months to 18 months b) 1 to 4 years c) 4 to 5 years d) 13 to 15 years

b) 1 to 4 years

Which of the following would the nurse explain to the mother of a child receiving digoxin (lanoxin) as the primary reason for giving this drug? a) To relax the walls of the hearts arteries b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat c) To prevent irregularities in ventricular contractions d) To decrease inflammation of the heart wall

b) To improve the strength of the heartbeat

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is? a) Haemophilus influenzae b) Staphylococcus bacteria c) Syncytial virus d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

The causative organism for rheumatic fever is? a) Haemophilus influenzae b) Staphylococcus bacteria c) Syncytial virus d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

d) Group A streptococcal bacteria

The most serious complication of rheumatic fever is? a) Endocarditis b) Pneumonia c) Arthritis d) Meningitis

a) Endocarditis

When preparing the teaching plan for the mother of a child with asthma, which of the following would the nurse include as signs to alert the mother that her child is having an asthma attack? a) Secretion of this, copious mucous b) Tight, productive cough c) Wheezing on expiration d) Temperature of 37.4C

c) Wheezing on expiration

An 8 year old child with asthma states, I want to play some sports like my friends. What can I do. The nurse responds to the child based on the understanding of which of the following? a) Physical activities are inappropriate for children with asthma b) Children with asthma must be excluded from team sports c) Vigorous physical exercise frequently precipitates an asthmatic episode d) Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled

d) Most children with asthma can participate in sports if the asthma is controlled

Male circumcision has been shown to? a) reduce transmission of HIV b) increase the risk of contracting a STI c) reduce sexual pleasure d) increase risk of UTI

a) reduce transmission of HIV

When teaching a mother to care for her newborn's umbilical cord, your instructions would be to? 1. keep it dry 2. wash it with soap and water 3. apply petroleum jelly to it daily 4. cover it with dry gauze

1. keep it dry

A primipara, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery, is to be discharged with a prescription for vitamins with iron because she is anaemic. To maximise absorption of the iron, the nurse instructs the client to take the medication with which of the following? 1. orange juice 2. herbal tea 3. milk 4. grape juice

1. orange juice

A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse understands that lisinopril belongs to which class of medications? A. Beta-blockers B. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) C. Calcium channel blockers D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

The best time frame for taking the Emergency Contraceptive Pill to achieve a 96-99% efficacy rate is? a) Within 1-12 hours b) Within 24 hours c) At 6 hourly intervals d) Within 72 hours

b) Within 24 hours

At what age can a child obtain contraception without consent from parents/caregivers? a) Any age b) Over the age of 16 years c) Over the age of 13 years d) Not at all

a) Any age

The importance of a cervical screen is to? a) Detect a sexually transmitted infection b) Detect abnormal cell changes c) To prevent infertility d) all of the above

b) Detect abnormal cell changes

The correct name for shingles is? a) herpes zoster virus b) herpes simplex type 1 c) herpes simplex type 2 d) fever blisters

a) herpes zoster virus

Another Mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with mononucleosis (glandular fever). She asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this illness occurring in her child? Which of the following would the nurse advise the mother to do? a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school b) Sterilise the child's eating utensils before they are reused c) Wash the child's linens separately in hot, soapy water d) Wear a mask when providing direct personal care

a) Advise her child not to share drink bottles at school

A father asks the nurse how he would know if his child had developed mononucleosis. The nurse explains that in addition to fatigue, which of the following would be most common? a) Liver tenderness b) Enlarged lymph glands c) Persistent non-productive cough d) A blush-like generalised skin rash

b) Enlarged lymph glands

You are asked by a student of a school you are visiting about the measles as they have heard there has been an outbreak in their area. The scientific name for measles is? a) Herpes Zoster b) Rubeola c) Pertussis d) Varicella

b) Rubeola

The student then asks you how measles is transmitted. The best response is? a) It is spread person to person by direct contact with body fluids particularly blood products. b) It is only transmitted in non-vaccinated communities. c) It is spread person to person through the air. d) It is only transmitted during the flu season when people sneeze and cough.

c) It is spread person to person through the air.

What is the infectious period for measles is. The correct information about the infectious period? a) Once the rash appears until the spots are no longer red and inflamed. b) 10 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 14 days after the rash appears. c) During the entire time the rash is evident. d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.

d) 5 days prior to the appearance of the rash until 5 days after the rash appears.

The student tells you her family doesn't believe in vaccinations. What is the most appropriate response to this statement? a) "Are you aware of the serious consequences of not vaccinating" b) "Do you have some questions about this decision?" c) "There are articles and pamphlets available about this. Would you like them?" d) "That seems like an irresponsible decision to make"

b) "Do you have some questions about this decision?"

How does the measles vaccination work. The correct response to this is? a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood. b) The vaccination introduces antibodies that will inactivate measles virus particles. c) The vaccination introduces the measles virus so the monocytes can learn to engulf them. d) The vaccination causes the person to produce antigens that recognise and destroy measles virus particles.

a) The vaccination causes the person to produce antibodies that will recognise and bind to measles virus particles in the blood.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted for treatment of cellulitis in her left leg. Her white cell count is abnormally high? When planning for this client, the nurse should expect to a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration b) see a decrease in the blood glucose concentration c) Decrease the insulin dosage d) Withhold all insulin

a) see an increase in the blood glucose concentration

What should you do first if someone has a blood glucose level of 1.5 mmol/L? a) Give glucose gel b) Increase insulin by 50% c) Give a sandwich for lunch d) Give six jellybeans

a) Give glucose gel

Type 1 diabetes differs from type 2 diabetes in that? a) Type 2 diabetes only affects the adult population b) Insulin is never required for type 2 diabetes c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease d) Type 1 diabetes is only acquired in childhood

c) Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease

After a stroke a client develops dysphasia. Which assessment finding most simplifies dysphasia? a) Arm and leg weakness b) Absence of gag reflex c) Difficulty with swallowing d) Inability to speak clearly

d) Inability to speak clearly

Mrs Khan is an 80-year-old female who lives with her son, his wife and their three children. She has had type 2 diabetes for many years, which used to be well-managed using oral hypoglycaemic medications, but now requires exogenous insulin. Her family report that she is requiring more assistance with her personal care. Why is insulin given as an injection, rather than orally? a) Gastric juices digest insulin b) Mucous membranes are sensitive to insulin c) It is slower acting if administered orally d) It is easiest to administer by injection

a) Gastric juices digest insulin

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about one of the ways oral hypoglycaemic medications act? a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells b) They stimulate glycogenolysis c) They increase insulin resistance in skeletal muscle and adipose cells d) They stimulate the release of glucagon to reduce blood glucose concentration

a) They assist the facilitated transport of glucose into skeletal muscle cells

Mrs Khan's blood glucose concentration is greater than 10 mmol/L, and when you test her urine it is positive for glucose. This is because? a) Kidney tubules secrete excess glucose. b) Antidiuretic hormone allows glucose to diffuse into the renal collecting ducts. c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough. d) Glucose diffuses directly from the capillaries' into the bladder.

c) Kidney tubules cannot resorb the glucose fast enough.

When visiting Mrs Khan at 0800 her son tells you she has been feeling unwell for the last hour, and that she is complaining of blurred vision, and a headache. Her son also states that she has been up to the toilet a number of times this morning. The potential problem here is? a) Hyperglycaemia b) Alcohol intake c) Hypoglycaemia d) Hypertension

a) Hyperglycaemia

Why do people with diabetes have an increased risk of getting urinary tract infections? a) They require increased amounts of fluids b) The loop of Henle is associated with the production of insulin in the body c) They have altered urine output d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction

d) Glucose in urine assists bacterial reproduction

Billy, aged 22 years is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. He periodically looks intently towards the ceiling and cocks his head to one side while tugging at his ear. In assessing this behaviour, the nurse should consider that Billy? a) Has peculiar mannerisms b) May be hearing voices c) Is avoiding the nurse d) Is daydreaming

b) May be hearing voices

Billy is prescribed Clozapine.(Clozaril) this is an atypical antipsychotic medication which acts on? a) positive symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA. b) positive symptoms related to decreased dopamine. c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine. d) negative symptoms related to excess dopamine and decreased GABA.

c) both positive and negative symptoms related to activity of both serotonin and dopamine.

Freda is admitted to your ward following the death of her mother 12 weeks ago. She is withdrawn and isolates herself in her bedroom, where she sits huddled on her bed and stares at the floor. You suspect that Freda is having suicidal ideation. What would be your best approach? a) Ask Freda directly about your concern b) Avoid direct questioning, but observe her carefully c) Institute suicide precautions and record these in Freda's notes d) Record your suspicion in Freda's notes

a) Ask Freda directly about your concern

B. To outline the ethical standards and principles guiding nursing practice

B. To oversee the registration and competence of nurses in New Zealand

B. To ensure health practitioners maintain their competence and provide safe care

Which principle of the NCNZ Code of Conduct emphasises the importance of recognizing and valuing the cultural identities and needs of health consumers in nursing practice? A. Maintaining professional boundaries B. Respecting cultural safety C. Ensuring informed consent D. Promoting health literacy

B. Respecting cultural safety

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Privacy Act (PA, 2020) in New Zealand's healthcare sector? A. To ensure that healthcare providers can share patient information without consent B. To establish guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information C. To mandate that all healthcare services are provided free of charge D. To regulate the qualifications required for healthcare practitioners

B. To establish guidelines for the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Conduct for nurses as established by the Nursing Council of New Zealand? A. To provide a framework for nurses to manage their personal finances effectively. B. To outline the expected professional behavior and ethical standards for nurses in their practice. C. To serve as a marketing tool for promoting nursing careers in New Zealand. D. To establish guidelines for the administration of medications in healthcare settings.

B. To outline the expected professional behavior and ethical standards for nurses in their practice.

In the context of nursing ethics, which principle emphasises the obligation of healthcare providers to act in the best interest of the patient while balancing potential benefits and harms? A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Justice D. Non-maleficence

B. Beneficence

Which of the following best describes the importance of recognizing the cultural backgrounds of health consumers in nursing practice? A. It ensures that all patients receive the same treatment regardless of their background. B. It allows healthcare providers to impose their own beliefs on patients for better outcomes. C. It fosters a therapeutic relationship by acknowledging and valuing individual cultural identities. D. It simplifies the healthcare process by standardising care for all patients.

C. It fosters a therapeutic relationship by acknowledging and valuing individual cultural identities.

What is the primary purpose of the NCNZ Strategic Plan 2022-2024? A. To establish new nursing schools across New Zealand B. To outline the Nursing Council's focus and intent during a two-year period C. To provide a detailed history of nursing practices in New Zealand D. To create a framework for international nursing collaborations

B. To outline the Nursing Council's focus and intent during a two-year period

What is a primary factor that contributes to maintaining health consumer trust in nursing practice? A. Providing care without any oversight B. Ensuring adherence to established safety and competency standards C. Minimising communication with health consumers D. Focusing solely on technical skills

B. Ensuring adherence to established safety and competency standards

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the NCNZ Code of Conduct (2012) for nurses in New Zealand? A. To outline the legal requirements for nursing practice in New Zealand B. To provide a framework for ethical decision-making in healthcare C. To specify the expected behaviors and standards for nurses D. To establish the educational requirements for nursing professionals

C. To specify the expected behaviors and standards for nurses

NCNZ requires a RN to demonstrate competence to practice in all four domains of the registered nurse scope of practice. Which of the below are correct: A. Interprofessional Skills, Professional Responsibility, Cultural Safety, Management of Nursing Care B. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Treaty of Waitangi and Collaboration with Colleagues C. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Interpersonal Relationships and Interprofessional Healthcare and Quality Improvement D. Professional Development, Cultural Safety, Interpersonal Relationships and Collaboration with Colleagues

C. Professional Responsibility, Management of Nursing Care, Interpersonal Relationships and Interprofessional Healthcare and Quality Improvement

What is the primary educational requirement for a Registered Nurse (RN) to practice in New Zealand? A. Completion of a Diploma in Nursing B. Successful completion of a Bachelor of Nursing degree C. Certification in First Aid and CPR D. Completion of a master's degree in nursing

B. Successful completion of a Bachelor of Nursing degree

How does the whakatauki 'Te tõia, tē haumatia' relate to effective nursing practice in New Zealand? A. It emphasises the need for nurses to work independently without collaboration. B. It highlights the necessity of having structured approaches and teamwork in delivering healthcare. C. It suggests that planning is less important than spontaneous decision-making. D. It indicates that nursing practice should focus solely on individual patient care without considering broader strategies.

B. It highlights the necessity of having structured approaches and teamwork in delivering healthcare.

One of society's expectations is ethical practice. What does that mean? A. That the nurse will provide care even under not customary conditions. B. That the profession will incorporate knowledge development from the humanities and scientific advances. C. That nursing and nurses will be accountable and responsible for practice, transparent when lapses occur, and engage in self-regulation and peer review. D. That the profession will promulgate, affirm, and uphold a code of ethics, to which individual nurses are expected to adhere.

D. That the profession will promulgate, affirm, and uphold a code of ethics, to which individual nurses are expected to adhere.

Which of the following best describes the role of nurses in collaborating with health consumers to improve health outcomes? A. Providing care without involving the patient in decision-making. B. Encouraging patients to take an active role in their own health management. C. Making unilateral decisions about patient care without consultation. D. Focusing solely on clinical tasks without considering patient preferences.

B. Encouraging patients to take an active role in their own health management.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Code of Health and Disability Services Consumers' Rights (1996) in New Zealand? A. To outline the responsibilities of healthcare providers in delivering services. B. To establish a framework for the ethical conduct of health practitioners. C. To provide a set of legal standards that protect the rights of health consumers. D. To regulate the licensing of health practitioners in New Zealand.

C. To provide a set of legal standards that protect the rights of health consumers.

Which of the following best describes the concept of ethics in the context of nursing practice? A. A set of personal beliefs that guide individual behavior. B. A framework of moral principles that govern professional conduct. C. A collection of laws that dictate healthcare regulations. D. An informal guideline based on cultural norms.

B. A framework of moral principles that govern professional conduct.

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of respecting the dignity and individuality of health consumers in nursing practice? A. Providing standardised care plans for all patients without considering their personal backgrounds. B. Engaging in open communication with patients to understand their unique needs and preferences. C. Prioritising efficiency over patient comfort during medical procedures. D. Assuming all patients have the same cultural beliefs and practices.

B. Engaging in open communication with patients to understand their unique needs and preferences.

What is personal morality? A. Those virtues, values, and character traits of who you are. B. Shared beliefs about values and duties of society. C. Religious and philosophical beliefs of social context. D. Laws, customs, and policies of the healthcare profession.

A. Those virtues, values, and character traits of who you are.

When initiating oral feedings for Barry West after his stroke, the registered nurse determines that Barry has an "intact gag reflex" and then: a. assesses Barry’s ability to move his tongue b. suctions Barry’s oral cavity to prevent aspiration of secretions. c. places Barry in a high-Fowler position with the head flexed forward. d. offers semi-solid food that is easiest for the patient to swallow

c. places Barry in a high-Fowler position with the head flexed forward.

How soon after birth can a woman experience postnatal depression? a. Within the first week b. Within the first 6 months c. Within 1 year d. Within the first 3 months

We all have different answers on this one so go with what you choose :)

What is the recommended time to receive the Boostrix during pregnancy? A. 20-30 weeks B. 16-26 weeks C. 13-18 weeks D. 30-40 weeks

B. 16-26 weeks Note: It can be given from 13 weeks but It is most effective when given from 16-26 weeks

What vaccine is recommended during pregnancy to protect against Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Whooping Cough? a) Flu Vaccine b) Tdap Boostrix c) MMR d) PCV13

b) Tdap Boostrix

At what age is the first dose of the Rotavirus vaccine (Rotarix) given? a) 3 months b) 6 weeks c) 5 months d) 9 months

b) 6 weeks

The Shingles vaccine (Shingrix) is recommended at what age? a) 9 years b) 11/12 years c) 45 years d) 65 years

d) 65 years

At what can a child have the flu vaccine? a) 9 months b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 12 months

c) 6 months

What vaccine is given at 6 weeks to protect against Pneumococcal infections? a) Hib b) Pneumococcal (PCV13) c) Rotavirus d) Meningococcal B

b) Pneumococcal (PCV13)

At what age is the chickenpox (Varicella) vaccine given? a) 12 months b) 15 months c) 3 months d) 6 weeks

b) 15 months

What is the primary purpose of the Hib vaccine? a) Protect against Haemophilus influenzae type B infections (which can cause meningitis) b) Protect against Whooping Cough c) Prevent Measles, Mumps, Rubella d) Prevent Meningococcal infections

a) Protect against Haemophilus influenzae type B infections (which can cause meningitis)

What are all the live vaccines in the immunisation schedule? a) MMR, Rotavirus, Varicella b) MMR, DTaP, Pneumococcal c) Rotavirus, Hepatitis B, Shingles d) HPV, DTaP, MenB

a) MMR, Rotavirus, Varicella

When is the Rotavirus vaccine given? a) 6 weeks and 5 months b) 3 months and 6 months c) 6 weeks and 3 months d) 6 weeks and 12 months

c) 6 weeks and 3 months

When is the DTaP vaccine given to children? (Purpose: Protects against Diphtheria, Tetanus, Whooping Cough (Pertussis), Polio, Hepatitis B, and Hib) a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months b) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 4 years c) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 5 months d) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 4 years

c) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 5 months

When is the Pneumococcal (PCV13) vaccine given? (Purpose: Protects against Pneumococcal disease, which can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections) a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months b) 3 months, 6 months, and 9 months c) 12 months, 4 years, and 9 years d) 6 weeks, 3 months, and 6 months

Answer: a) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months

When is the MenB vaccine given? (Purpose: Protects against Meningococcal B, which can cause serious infections like meningitis) a) 6 weeks and 12 months b) 3 months , 5 months and 12 months c) 6 weeks, 5 months, and 12 months d) 6 weeks, 9 months, and 4 years

b) 3 months , 5 months and 12 months

According to eriksons theory of emotional development, infants will develop a sense of trust when a) They can identify their mother and father b) They feel a sense of belonging, accepted as part of the family c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met d) Nutritional and hygiene needs are provided on a daily basis

c) They can predict what is coming and needs are consistently met

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with angina. When entering the room, the nurse should be most concerned about which finding? 1. Lunch tray unotuched 2. He is laughing loudly at a television program 3. He is transacting business with his computer while in bed 4. He is resting with eyes closed and TV on at moderate volume

3. He is transacting business with his computer while in bed

A 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia is admitted for exacerbation of psychotic symptoms. The patient is refusing medications and has a history of non-compliance. You are tasked with ensuring they receive treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action? a) Administer the medication against the patient’s will under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act. b) Assess the patient's decision-making capacity and provide education about the benefits of the medication. c) Notify the family and have them convince the patient to take the medication. d) Wait for the patient to request treatment voluntarily before administering the medication.

b) Assess the patient's decision-making capacity and provide education about the benefits of the medication.???

Why might Paracetamol be given alongside the MenB (Bexsero) vaccine in infants? A. To reduce nausea after the shot B. To manage fever that may occur C. To enhance immunity against meningitis D. To avoid allergic reactions to the vaccine

Answer: B. To manage fever that may occur

Which of the following is the most common STI in New Zealand? a) Gonorrhoea b) Syphilis c) Chlamydia d) Genital herpes

c) Chlamydia

What is the main way STIs are transmitted? a) Sharing food or drinks b) Sexual contact, including oral, vaginal, or anal sex c) Sneezing or coughing d) Using public toilets

b) Sexual contact, including oral, vaginal, or anal sex

Which STI can be prevented by vaccination in New Zealand? a) Chlamydia b) Human papillomavirus (HPV) c) Gonorrhoea d) Syphilis

b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Which of these STIs can cause long-term complications such as infertility if left untreated? a) Chlamydia b) Genital herpes c) Pubic lice d) HPV

a) Chlamydia

What is the standard treatment for gonorrhoea in New Zealand? a) Antiviral medication b) Antibiotics c) Surgery d) Vaccination

b) Antibiotics

What is a common symptom of trichomoniasis in females? a) Painful sores b) Frothy, greenish vaginal discharge c) Yellowing of the skin d) A painless ulcer

b) Frothy, greenish vaginal discharge

How can untreated HIV progress in the body? a) It causes no long-term issues b) It resolves on its own after a few years c) It can progress to AIDS d) It only affects the respiratory system

c) It can progress to AIDS

What is the government-subsidized programme in New Zealand for providing HPV vaccinations? a) Free Immunisation for All b) National Cervical Screening Programme c) HPV Immunisation Programme d) Vaccinate NZ

c) HPV Immunisation Programme

Nursing Exam Flashcards

(260 cards)