Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nutrition > Nutrition Exam 1 Cards > Flashcards

Nutrition Exam 1 Cards Flashcards

1
Q

4 Goals of a nutritional evaluation

A

Asses quality and quantity of intake
Determine if nutrition therapy counseling is warranted
Evaluate effectiveness of interventions
Monitor changes in nutritional status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What part of the History is dietary information usually obtained in

A

The social history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

BMI normal weight range

A

18.5-24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BMI overweight range

A

25-29.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Waist circumference cutoffs for men and women

A

40 inches for men 35 inches for women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fat soluble Vitamins

A

ADEK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vitamin B1 Thiamine Roles (3)

A

Glucose metabolism, antioxidant, neuro metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vitamin B1 Thiamine Sources (4)

A

Pork, Fortified Grains, Seeds, Nuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is usually deficient in thiamin (B1)

A

Alcoholics or those with a poor or restricted diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What lab test do we run for B1 (Thiamine)

A

Whole blood thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thiamine deficiency
(2 types)

A

Beriberi:

Wet - Cardiovascular symptoms, increased HR, edema, SOB
Dry - Neuro symptoms, Neuropathy, Wernike’s encephalopathy, Korsakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vitamin B3 Niacin role in the body

A

Creates NAD and NADP and runs general metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dietary sources of B3 niacin (7)

A

Meat, eggs, dairy, legumes, nuts, seeds, fortified grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Those at risk for Niacin B3 deficiency (4)

A

Alcoholics, Anorexics, HIV+, Malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vitamin B3 deficiency (Hint 3 Ds)

A

Pellagra: photosensitive dermatitis, Diarrhea and dementia in advanced cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vitamin B6 Pyridoxine role

A

Protein and neurotransmitter metabolism, gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dietary sources of B6 pyridoxine (2)

A

Fish, Poultry, Potatoes, Fortified Grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Those at risk to be deficient in pyridoxine B6 (3)

A

CKD, GI diseases such as IBD and celiac, autoimmune pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Symptoms of pyridoxine deficiency (4)

A

Anemia, dermatitis, depression, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Role of vitamin B9 folate(3)

A

amino and nucleic acid metabolism, cell division, in utero neural tube development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

4 Sources of B9 folate

A

Leafy greens, broccoli, asparagus, grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Those usually deficient in folate (5)

A

Alcoholics, smokers, poor diet, malabsorption, MTHFR gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lab tests for folate (2)

A

serum folic acid or homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Symptoms of folate deficiency

A

Anemia, Glossitis, GI upset, Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Role of B12 Cobalamin (2)

A

Nucleic acid metabolism, conversion of folate to its active form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sources of B12 (5)

A

Meat, dairy, shellfish, eggs, fortified grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

4 Causes of B12 deficiency

A

Vegan diet. GI malabsorption including Gastric Bypass, PPI use, H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lab tests for B12 (3)

A

B12, Methylmalonic acid (MMA, more reliable but more expensive), Homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 symptoms of B12 deficiency

A

Anemia, Peripheral Neuropathy, Cognitive defects, Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Role in the body of Ascorbic Acid Vitamin C

A

Antioxidant, gene expression, Production of proteins including collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dietary sources of Ascorbic acid vitamin C

A

Fruits (esp. citrus), bell peppers, tomatoes, green leafy vegetables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Those at risk for a vitamin C ascorbic acid deficiency (4)

A

Alcoholics, Smokers, Poor Diet, Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Role of Vitamin A - Retinoids in the body

A

Key component in rods and cones, epithelial cell production, Bone teeth repro and immune functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dietary sources of vitamin A (4)

A

Organ meats, egg yolks, fortified milk, orange foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2 lab tests for vitamin A

A

Vitamin A or Beta carotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Symptoms of vitamin A deficiency (4)

A

Night blindness, Blurry vision, xerosis, keratomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin A toxicity (4)

A

Altered mental state, seizures, headache, blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Active form of vitamin D

A

Calcitriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Role of Vitamin D in the body

A

Needed for absorption of calcium in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dietary sources of vitamin D(4)

A

Fatty fish, egg yolks, fortified dairy, mushrooms (D2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

People usually deficient in Vitamin D Calciferol(5)

A

Low sunlight or dark skinned individuals, Renal or liver disease, breastfed newborns, Poor diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 Tests for vitamin D

A

Vitamin D, Calcitriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Symptoms of vitamin D deficiency (3)

A

Fatigue, Bone Pain, Muscle weakness or cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symptoms of vitamin D toxicity

A

Same as deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Role of vitamin E in the body (2)

A

Antioxidant, cells membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 dietary sources of vitamin E

A

Vegetable oils, Seeds, Nuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

People usually deficient in VItamin E

A

Malnourished or Fat malabsorption - RARE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin E deficiency(4)

A

Ataxia, Muscle weakness, fatigue, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms of vitamin E toxicity (4)

A

Bleeding, weakness, fatigue, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Role of Vitamin K in the body

A

Blood clotting, Bone and Kidney metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

2 Sources of vitamin K

A

Leafy and cruciferous vegetables, Can be made by gut flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

3 people deficient in Vitamin K

A

Newborns, Fat malabsorption, Warfarin pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

3 symptoms of vitamin K deficiency

A

Bleeding, Hemmorhage, Bone malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sources of Heme and Non-Heme Iron

A

Heme: Meat, Poultry, Seafood

Non-Heme: Green Leafy Veggies, Legumes, Nuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

People at risk for iron deficiency

A

Plant based diets, women, chronic blood loss pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

4 signs of iron deficiency

A

Anemia, Fatigue, Cognitive difficulties, impaired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Function of iodine in the body

A

Mostly used in thyroid hormone to regulate metabolic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sources of dietary iodine (4)

A

Seaweed, fish, shellfish, salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Symptoms of iodine deficiency

A

Goiter
In pregnancy - Pregnancy loss, retardation and cretinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Sources and deficiency symptoms of calcium

A

Sources: Dairy, leafy green vegetables
Deficiency: Neuro/MSK symptoms including weakness and muscle spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sources (3) and deficiency of magnesium

A

Dairy, green leafy vegetables, whole grains
Deficiency: Neuro/MSK symptoms - fatigue, weakness and muscle spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

2 drugs that can cause hypomagnesemia

A

Diuretics and PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

Nine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

2 Essential Fatty acids

A

linoleic and alpha linoleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

4 Sources of essential fatty acids

A

Vegetable oils, linseed oil, flaxseed oil, seafood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where is essential fatty acid deficiency most common?

A

Patients on total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Energy densities of the three macronutrients

A

Carbs and Protein - 4cal/gram
Fat - 9cal/gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Carbohydrate

A

Contains Carbon and Water in a 1:1 ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Percent of carbohydrates in most diets

A

40-70% (recommendation is 45-65%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

6 functions of carbohydrates

A

Fuel for metabolic processes
Prevent use of protein for energy
Enable fat metabolism/oxidation
Taste and Variety
Healthy gut
Help form important cellular structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

3 monosaccharides

A

Glucose, Fructose, Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

3 disaccharides

A

sucrose, lactose, maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Composition of maltose, sucrose and lactose

A

Maltose= 2 glucoses
Sucrose=Glucose and fructose
Lactose=Glucose and Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Difference between soluble and insoluble fiber

A

Soluble - dissolves in water to form a gel-like substance
Insoluble - Stays intact and increases stool bulk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Recommended fiber intake for males and females

A

30-38 g/d for males; 21-25 g/d for females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Basic digestion of carbohydrates - 3 steps

A

Amylase begins carbohydrate breakdown
Monosaccharides are absorbed in the small intestine
Liver changes all sugars into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Impact of insoluble carbs on glycemic uptake

A

Although they cannot be absorbed, fiber slows the absorption of simpler sugars and flattens the blood sugar spike out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Glycemic index/Glycemic load

A

Evaluates the 2hr postprandial curve for blood glucose with reference to a standard
Glycemic load is similar but takes into account a standard serving size of that food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

4 Clinical pearls for carbohydrate related pt. counseling

A

Less processed is generally more healthy
Eat carbs WITH protein and fat
The type of carb is more important than the amount
Avoid sugary beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Recommended percentage of calories from fat

A

20-35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

7 functions of dietary fat

A

Store energy, Absorption of vitamins, Provide essential fatty acids, Component of body structures, insulation, cushioning for viscera, add to food flavor and palatability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Trans fats in food

A

Are banned as a food additive but can still be formed during food processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Digestion of Fats - 3 steps

A

Triglycerides broken down to fatty acids by lipase
Bile salts emulsify fatty acids
Liver packages fats for delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

3 Factors that effect fat absorption

A

Infancy - must have HUMAN milk b/c it contains lipase and other milks don’t
Capacity decreases with age
IBF or Gastric resections can result in fat malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Suggested amount of saturated fats per day

A

less than 10% total calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

4 clinical pearls for dietary fat intake

A

Less processed=more healthy
Don’t replace fats with carbs
Type is more important than amount
Elimination of fat is not as important as maintaining balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Macronutrients by highest to lowest satiety index - calorie for calorie how filling is it?

A

Protein
Carbs
Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Major functions of proteins - 2

A

Structural and Functional
Can be used for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Semi-Essential Amino Acids - What are they (don’t list)

A

AAs that are normally produced by the body but may be limited by prematurity or severe stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Role of pepsin in breaking down proteins

A

Begins to break proteins into amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Two proteases produced by the pancreas and small intestine

A

Trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Recommended protein percent of caloric intake

A

10-35%

93
Q

Protein requirements for 0-6, 19 up, and pregnancy

A

0-6 needs 1.52 g/kg/d
19+ needs 0.80 g/kg/d
Pregnant needs 1.0 g/kg/d

94
Q

What happens if one eats too much protein?

A

It may get stored as fat

95
Q

Marasmus

A

Starvation resulting from failure to obtain ALL of the macronutrients

96
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

Lack of adequate protein in the presence of other nutrients

97
Q

Gender, Ethnicity, and Financial status risk factors for obesity

A

Female
Black, Native American, Mexican American
Lower income

98
Q

Underweight BMI

A

Less than 18.5

99
Q

Normal BMI range

A

18.5-24.9

100
Q

Overweight BMI

A

25-29.9

101
Q

Obese BMI

A

Over 30

102
Q

3 Classes of Obese BMI

A

I - 30-34.9
II - 35-39.9
III - 40+

103
Q

Morbid obesity

A

BMI of 40+ or BMI of 35+ with an obesity related condition present

104
Q

More and less concerning fat distribution

A

Truncoabdominal fat is more concerning than glutealfemoral fat

105
Q

Waist circumference and waist to hip ratios that are concerning for women and men

A

MEN
WC over 40in WHR over 1.0
WOMEN
WC over 35in WHR over .88

106
Q

Healthy and Unhealthy body shape

A

Pear is healthy
Apple is unhealthy

107
Q

Percent of obesity cases in which genetics are thought to play a significant role

A

40-70%

108
Q

3 psychiatric medications linked to obesity

A

Antipsychotics, Mood Stabilizers, Antidepressants

109
Q

3 factors affecting obesity in women and 2 affecting obesity in men

A

Women - Pregnancy, COntraceptives, Menopause

Men - Lifestyle and Testosterone

110
Q

3 behavioral factors that can influence obesity

A

Physical activity (TV watching), Sleep deprivation, Smoking cessation

111
Q

5 metabolic syndrome criteria and how many a patient must meet

A

Central obesity
Low HDL
Hypertension
Hyperglycemia
Hypertriglyceridemia

Must meet 3 of the criteria

112
Q

4 labs to check in an obese patient

A

Fasting glucose
Lipid profile
Thyroid function
HbA1C

113
Q

Qualification for minimal risk of obesity and corresponding intervention

A

20-25 minimal gained greater than 10 kg since age of 18 or high waist circumference

114
Q

Qualification for low risk of obesity and corresponding intervention

A

BMI of 25-29.9 with NO CVD or obesity related comorbidities
Counsel on avoiding weight gain, diet advice, physical activity recommendations

115
Q

Criteria for moderate risk of obesity and corresponding interventions

A

BMI 25-29.9 with CVD risk or BMI 30-34.9
Dietary changes, Activity increase, Pharmacotherapy

116
Q

Criteria for high risk of obesity and interventions

A

BMI 35 or over, specific diet and exercise plans, behavioral intervention, pharmacotherapy, bariatric surgery

117
Q

Patients can benefit with as little as what percent weight reduction?

A

5%

118
Q

Weight loss expected with just lifestyle change, lifestyle and medication changes, and bariatric surgery

A

Just lifestyle 5-7%
Lifestyle and meds 5-10%
Bariatric surgery 15-20%

119
Q

Minimum recommendation for exercise

A

30 minutes a day, 5 days a week

120
Q

What should be done before diving into activity changes

A

Assess MSK, Cardiovascular, and pulmonary health

121
Q

4 general diet principles

A

Minimize or eliminate caloric beverages
Control portion sizes
Self monitor
View diet changes as lifelong

122
Q

Calorie recommendation usually aimed for in patients trying to loose weight

A

1000-1500 calories per day
(May consider 800-1200)

123
Q

Age, duration, and weight restrictions for anti-obesity medications

A

Often only for adult use and BMI over 30 or 27 if they have comorbid conditions
Usually short term

124
Q

MOA of Phentermine (Adipex)

A

Stimulates norepinephrine release

125
Q

Route of Phentermine and doses per day

A

PO 1-2 times per day

126
Q

7 Side effects of phentermine (remember its a sympathomimetic)

A

HTN, Tachycardia, Insomnia, Agitation, Palpitations, Constipation, Dry mouth

127
Q

4 contraindications and pregnancy considerations for phentermine

A

CV disease, hyperthyroidism, agitated state, substance use hx

Contraindicated in pregnancy

128
Q

4 drug interactions for phentermine

A

Psych meds, antihypertensive, antihistamines, insomnia meds

129
Q

Efficacy of phentermine

A

7-8 kg

130
Q

Old weight loss drug now associated with cancer

A

Locaserin (Belviq)

131
Q

Relationship between Alli and Xenical (brand names for Orlistat)

A

Alli is half the strength

132
Q

Efficacy of orlistat

A

5-10 kg

133
Q

MOA of orlistat

A

Inhibits intestinal lipase, ends up blocking absorption of 25-30% of fat

134
Q

Route and times a day for orlistat

A

PO, 3 times per day

135
Q

7 side effects from orlistate (remember it’s a lipid uptake inhibitor)

A

Borborygmi, cramps, flatus, oily spotting, fecal incontinence, decreased uptake of fat soluble vitamins, Rare reports of liver injury

136
Q

4 contraindications for Orlistat

A

Pregnancy, Cholelithiasis/Cholestasis, hx of calcium oxalate stones, chronic malabsorption syndrome

137
Q

4 Drug interactions of Orlistat

A

Multivitamins, fat soluble vitamins, warfarin, levothyroxine

138
Q

Efficacies of Lira- and Sema- Glutide - How much weight loss

A

Lira - 7-8 kg
Sema - 10-15 kg

139
Q

MOA of Lira and Sema Glutide

A

GLP-1 agonists
Originally developed for diabetes
Increase insulin release and decrease glucagon release as well as slowing gastric emptying

140
Q

Route and frequency of Lira and Sema Glutide

A

Both SQ in abdomen, thigh, or upper arm
Lira - daily
Sema - weekly

141
Q

2 common and 3 rare side effects of Sema and Lira glutide as well as tirzapetide

A

Common
N/V/D, Hypoglycemia
Rare: Pancreatitis, Gallbladder, Kidney disease

Associated with thyroid tumors in animals but NOT humans

142
Q

Pregnancy and Sema or Lira Glutide

A

Contrindicated

143
Q

3 Drug interactions for Lira and Sema Glutide as well as tirzapetide

A

Other hypoglycemic agents, serotonergic drugs, thiazides

144
Q

MOA and route of Tirzapetide (Mounjaro)

A

Agonist of GLP-1 and GIP receptors increases insulin and decreases glucagon

Given Sub-Q

145
Q

Efficacy of tirzapetide (mounjaro)

A

7-20kg

146
Q

Tirzapetide (Mounjaro) and pregnancy

A

COntrindicated

147
Q

Cellulose and Hydrogel MOA and frequency

A

PO twice daily

Stegosaurus sponge drug - considered a medical device

148
Q

Side effect of cellulose and hydrogel

A

GI - Abdominal distension and pain with diarrhea

149
Q

Cellulose and hydrogel and pregnancy

A

Contraindicated

150
Q

MOA and Route of Naltrexone SR/Buproprion SR (Contrave)

A

opioid antagonist/norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor - unclear how it works but seems to reduce apatite

Start PO QAM move to PO, BID

151
Q

Efficacy of Naltrexone/Buproprion

A

5-10% weight loss

152
Q

5 side effects for Naltrexone/Buproprion

A

Nausea, Constipation, HA, Agitation, Suicidality

153
Q

Pregnancy and Naltrexone/Buproprion

A

Contraindicated

154
Q

4 drug interactions of Naltrexone/Buproprion

A

ETOH, psych meds, opiates, metoprolol

155
Q

MOA of phentermine/topiramate (Qsyma)

A

Stimulates NE release/anticonvulsant
Supresses appetite and causes satiety
Schedule 4 med
PO

156
Q

Efficacy of Phentermine/Topiramate (Qsyma)

A

8-10 kg

157
Q

3 side effects of phentermine/topiramate

Try to remember one of the three BONUS ones

A

Dry mouth, constipation, paresthesia

Also, altered taste, depression, brain fog

158
Q

2 contraindications of phentermine/topiramate (Qsyma)

A

Substance us hx and pregnancy

159
Q

6 Drug interactions for phentermine/topiramate

A

ETOH, psych rx, anti-HTN rx, insomnia rx, loop diuretics, metformin

160
Q

Human Chorionic Gonadotropic as a weight loss drug

A

Usually given with a vary low calorie diet and not upheld by clinical trials

161
Q

Weight loss supplements

A

Not supported by trials, may have strange additives and questionable efficacy - not recommended for weight loss

162
Q

BMI eligibility threshold for bariatric surgery

A

BMI over 40
OR
BMI over 35 with 1 or more comorbidities (ie. HTN or T2DM)
OR
Sometimes BMI over 30 with a SEVERE comorbid condition

163
Q

2 things a patient must do before receiving bariatric surgery

A

Participate in medically guided weight loss usually for 6 months prior
Undergo a preop assessment

164
Q

3 contraindications for bariatric surgery

A

Not obese, Under 18 or over 65, Depression or eating disorder

165
Q

2 main mechanisms by which bariatric surgeries work

A

Restriction and Malabsorption

166
Q

Roux en Y Gastric Bypass

A

A 30mL gastric pouch is anastomosed to the small bowel - restrictive and malabsorptive

Can cause nutritional deficiencies

167
Q

Effects of a RYGB

A

Promotes GLP-1 and decreases Ghrelin - typically 70% of excess weight is lost

168
Q

Sleeve Gastrectomy

A

Removal of Greater curvature of the stomach, making it a tube. Easier than RYGB, but more GERD

Can lead to some nutritional deficiencies

169
Q

Effect of Sleeve Gastrectomy (4)

A

Slows GI mostility, Increases GLP-1, Decreases Ghrelin, 60% loss of excess weight

170
Q

5 vitamin deficiencies that you might see with a Gastric Bypass

A

Iron
B12
Folate
Calcium
D

171
Q

Laparoscopic Adjustable Gastric Banding

A

Uses a restrictive adjustable band on the stomach - less popular because of modest results and potential for weight regain

172
Q

Liposuction

A

Cosmetic removal of fat tissue only, does not fix underlying comorbidities

173
Q

Aspiration therapy

A

Patient’s can empty eaten food from stomach into the toilet via a percutaneous gastrostomy tube

174
Q

Biliopancreatic Diversion with Duodenal Switch

A

For severely obese patients (50+ BMI)
High rates of anemia and diarrhea
Also a variant that uses a sleeve gastrectomy

175
Q

Intragastric balloon

A

Saline filled balloon placed endoscopically for max 6 month period - only loose 30% of excess weight

176
Q

Malnutrition - 3 definitions

A

Not having enough to eat, not eating enough of the right things, or being unable to use the things one does eat

177
Q

3 causes of malnutrition

A

Poor intake, poor absorption, Increased metabolic needs

178
Q

Percent of US adults who do not consume adequate nutrients on a regular basis to support optimal health

A

85%

179
Q

Percent of US households with “low” or “very low” food security

A

10%

180
Q

Subjective Global Assesment Malnutrition Screening

A
  • Combines hx, ROS, and PE findings
    -Categorizes pt as well nourished, mild/moderately malnourished, or severely malnourished
181
Q

Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool

A

Utilizes BMI, unintentional weight loss, and effects of acute disease to determine risk for malnutrition
Offers recommendations based on risk level

182
Q

Malnutrition Screening Tool

A

Simple, 2 question screen to determine RISK of malnutrition

183
Q

2 metrics we can use to screen for malnutrition in children

A

body length and head circumference

184
Q

Stunting

A

Low height for age

185
Q

Wasting

A

Low weight for age

186
Q

Best imaging screening for malnutrition assessment

A

Dual energy x-ray absorpitometry (DEXA/DXA)

187
Q

3 Visceral proteins that can be used to assess for malnutrition and their half lives

A

Albumin - 20 days
Prealbumin - 2 days
Transferrin - 8-10 days

188
Q

DRI

A

Dietary reference intake
nutrient reference values developed by the Institute of Medicine to quantify recommended levels of a given nutrient necessary for optimal health

189
Q

RDA

A

Recommended dietary allowance - average daily dietary nutrient level sufficient to mee the nutrient requirement of nearly al healthy individuals

190
Q

AI

A

Adequate intake - recommended average daily intake levels based on approximations or estimates of nutrient intake

191
Q

UL

A

Tolerable upper intake

192
Q

EAR

A

Estimated average requirement - average daily intake that is good enough for half of the population

193
Q

EER

A

EAR specifically used for energy

194
Q

BMR

A

Basal metabolic rate - energy expenditure necessary to maintain metabolic activities and organ functions

195
Q

RMR

A

Resting metabolic rate - Similar to BMR but takes into account additional energy expenditure needed for digestion and physical activity

196
Q

BMR modifiers for Little, Light, Moderate, Heavy and Very Heavy exercise (think of primes and odd numbers)

A

1.2,1.375, 1.55,1.725,1.9

197
Q

General appearance of a marasmus patient

A

Head appears larger than normal, Staring eyes, Shrunken arms and buttocks

198
Q

General appearance of a kwashiorkor patient

A

Classic edematous appearance, Bradycardia and hypothermia, Look for pitting edema

199
Q

Cachexia

A

Cannot be fully reversed, loss of muscle without fat loss, Often seen in cancer and AIDS patients

200
Q

Enteral tube used for long term feeding

A

PEG tube

201
Q

Parenteral nutrition indications

A

LAST RESORT only if the gut is not working
TPN or PPN (Total or Partial Parenteral Nutrition)

202
Q

Why do we prefer enteral nutrition therapy

A

Fat overload causes coagulation, fever and hepatosplenomegaly
Associated with bone metabolism disease
Poor weight gain outcomes

203
Q

4 suggestions for low appetite patients

A

Spacing of small meals
Energy dense foods
Powdered/liquid supplementation
Add calories and nutrition to preferred foods

204
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

Sweating, flushing, dizziness and tachycardia associated with large amounts of food being moved through the body from a tube feeding

205
Q

Megastrol acetate

A

Appetite stimulant - AIDS and Cancer cachexia, can cause insomnia and rash

206
Q

Cyproheptadine w/ 2 side effects and 3 contraindications

A

Appetite stimulant - 1st gen antihistamine, can cause dizziness and drowsiness contraindicated in MAOI therapy, urinary or gastric obstruction, AC glaucoma

207
Q

Dronabinol and its 3 contraindications

A

Appetite stimulant - THC derived, Schedule III drug, Can cause euphoria. CI with metronidazole, alcohol, and sesame oil

208
Q

3 reasons fad diets can be problematic

A

Restrictive
Unrealistic
Costly

209
Q

Composition of a keto meal

A

75% Fat, 20% protein, 5% carbs

210
Q

Goal of a ketogenic diet

A

Go into ketosis and don’t burn glucose, lets fat be released from cells because insulin is low

211
Q

Benefits of Keto diet

A

Can be beneficial for T2DM and epilepsy loose 5-10 lbs. in 1 month

212
Q

Risks of Keto diet

A

Hard on liver and kidneys, Constipation, High in saturated fat, Keto Flu

213
Q

Meal composition of a paleo diet

A

40% fat, 30%protein,30%carbs

214
Q

Goal of a paleolithic diet

A

Eat only things that would have been available to hunter gatherer ancestors with plentiful water drinking and physical activity

215
Q

Benefits of paleo diet

A

Average of 5-10 pounds weight loss
Improved glucose tolerance, BP control, Triglycerides, and appetite management

216
Q

Risks of a paleo diet

A

Nutrient deficiencies (ie. calcium, fiber, vitamin D)
Altered gut flora
Not sustainable for weight loss
Overconsumption of meat products

217
Q

Meal composition of a raw food diet

A

No set standard, food can not be subjected to any form of heat processing including drying above 118 F

218
Q

Goal of Raw diet

A

emphasize plant based foods, supplements are discouraged can be Raw Vegan, Raw Vegetarian, or Raw Omnivore

219
Q

Benefits of a raw diet

A

8-10 lbs lost in first month
Lower all-cause mortality
Better appetite management

220
Q

Risks of a raw food diet (4)

A

Risk of nutritional deficiencies, Risk of foodborne illness, High workload, Theory not supported by science

221
Q

Meal composition of mediterranean diet

A

30-35% Fat, 15-20% protein, 50% carbs

222
Q

Goal of a Mediterranean diet

A

Emphasizes plant based foods and unsaturated fats
Limits sugar and red meat and encourages a healthy lifestyle

223
Q

Benefits of a Mediterranean diet

A

Sustainable diet, less risk of DM, lower cancer risk and aging, short and long term weight loss (8-10 lbs first month)

224
Q

Risks of a mediterranean diet

A

Can still overeat, Partial adoption, Counting Mediterranean restaurant food, nutrient deficiencies are possible

225
Q

4 types of intermittent fasting regimens

A

5:2 - Five days a week eat normally, 2 be restrictive
Time restrictive - choose a time frame when you can eat
Alternate day fasting
Periodic fasting - abstain for several days

226
Q

Goal of intermittent fasting

A

Keep insulin levels down between meals so that we can burn more fat

227
Q

Benefits of intermittent fasting (4)

A

Effective for weight loss
Increases lifespan
May be more sustainable
Better chronic disease outcomes

228
Q

Risks of intermittent fasting

A

Risk of nutritional deficiencies
Not good for those with eating disorders or who are actively growing
Not good for diabetics
Difficult adjustment for some

Nutrition (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions