o Flashcards
(247 cards)
1
Q
Autotrophic cells can use energy:
A
chemical
2
Q
Ribosomes:
A
have a size of several dozen nanometres
are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
in prokaryotic cells are smaller than in eukaryotic cells
3
Q
The mitotic apparatus is composed of:
A
centrioles
filaments of the mitotic spindle
4
Q
Phospholipids in the biomembrane are arranged:
A
into a bilayer in which protein molecules are incorporated
into two layers
5
Q
Protein synthesis takes place:
A
on ribosomes
on ribosomes in the cytoplasm
on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
6
Q
How many biomembrancs cover the nucleus:
A
two in eukaryotic cells
in eukaryotic cells by two membranes
in prokaryotic cells it has no membrane
7
Q
Nucleus:
A
may contain a nucleolus
in eukaryotic cells has two membranes
its main component in eukaryotic cells are chromosomes
is the control centre of the cell
8
Q
Nucleus:
A
may contain a nucleolus
in eukaryotic cells has two membranes
its main component in eukaryotic cells are chromosomes
is the control centre of the cell
9
Q
Glycogen is:
A
animal cell polysaccharide
animal starch
10
Q
DNA replication in a cell occurs in:
A
cell nucleus
chloroplasts
mitochondria
11
Q
DNA replication in a cell occurs in:
A
cell nucleus
chloroplasts
mitochondria
12
Q
A cell cycle phase in which nuclear DNA replication and duplication of nuclear
chromosomes occurs is called:
A
‘S phase
synthetic phase
13
Q
The phases of mitosis include:
A
prophase
c) telophase
anaphase
g) metaphase
14
Q
Indicate which substances are osmotically the most effective:
A
electrolytes
substances whose molecules dissociate to ions
15
Q
The cell uses osmotic energy:
A
to transfer of substances through cell membranes
to transport of electrolytes through cell membranes
16
Q
The nucleolus consists of:
A
proteins and RNA
ribonucleic acid and proteins
17
Q
The cell in meiosis is divided:
A
twice
twice with one DNA replication
18
Q
According to tho cocentlarty, cells can be divided into:
A
prokaryotic and eukaryotic
19
Q
The oxidative phosphorylation enzyme system is located in:
A
mitochondria
20
Q
Blastomeres are:
A
cells generated by the mitotic zygote division
cells generated by “cleavage” of the zygote
21
Q
In the anaphase of mitosis:
A
the microtubules of the mitotic spindle are shortened and thus attract the chromosomes
to centrioles
chromosomes are attracted to centrioles
the diploid count of chromosomes is located around centrioles
22
Q
In telophase of mitosis:
A
the mitotic spindle is disintegrating
c) chromosomes change again to long fibers
d) new nuclear envelope will be created
e) the structure of the nucleus is restored
f) evtokinesis occurs
23
Q
The basic building block of nucleic acids is:
A
nucleotide
a substance composed of a nitrogenous organic base, pentose and phosphoric acid
e) a substance composed of purine or pyrimidine base, pentose, and HiPO4
f) a substance composed of purine or pyrimidine base, a five-carbon sugar and HiPO.
24
Q
The result of meiotic cell division is:
A
cells with a haploid number of chromosomes
sex cells
gametes
25
The main cell cycle checkpoint is located in:
G1 phase
interphase
26
The chemical composition of the cell wall in the eukaryotic cell:
is different from that of the plasma membrane
in the plants contains cellulose
also contains lignin in plants of woody plants
in specialized cells it may contain proteins, salts and waxes
27
The number of gonosomes in the normal somatic cell of both male and female is:
even
c) the same
one X and the other is X or Y
28
During mitosis eukaryotic cells are divided:
only once
b) once, with one DNA replication
into two equal daughter cells
in the M phase of the cell cycle
29
A cell on average:
contains more proteins than carbohydrates
contains more carbohydrates than lipids
mainly contains water
contains minerals and nucleic acids and they occur in the same ratio
30
In DNA, nitrogen bases are complementary in pairs:
guanine with cytosine
thymine with adenine
g) cytosine with guanine
h) adenine with thymine
31
Do plasmids have the ability to replicate themselves:
yes, they have in the host cell
they have, independently from the chromosomes
32
The process of formation of two new and identical DNA molecules is called:
replication
duplication
33
The reason why the plasmids are important for clinical medicine is that the plasmids:
determine against which antibiotic substance is a respective bacterium resistant
regulate the effectiveness of antibiotics
d) influence the pathogenicity of bacteria
34
The process of DNA replication occurs:
before mitotic cell division
in the synthetic phase of the interphase
35
The template which contains information about the primary structurs polypeptide chain is:
mRNA
messenger RNA
DNA
36
According to the CAT AAG TAC AAC CGT CAC segment in the Dna generated mRNA is:
GUA UUC AUG UUG GCA GUG
37
What types of RNA we know:
messenger RNA
c) transfer RNA
d) ribosomal RNA
information for the amino acid sequence of the protein
38
The codon is:
acids in the peptide chain
a triplet of adjacent nucleotides in DNA or mRNA
three consecutive nucleotides in DNA or mRNA
39
Which of the following short pieces of mRNA and tRNA match each other according to the rules of complementarity:
tRNA: A UGGAG mRNA: UACCUC
tRNA: AACCCU mRNA: UUGGGA
f)
tRNA: GCUAGO mRNA: C GAUCG
40
Genetic information in DNA molecules is stored:
according to the genetic code
by the sequence of deoxyribonucleotides
in the structure of its molecule
41
The complementary strand to the ACT GCT TGT GTC AGT AA chain in
DNA is:
TGA CGA ACA CAG TCA TT
42
Structural gene expression is:
the transfer of genetic information coded by DNA into the amino acid sequence in the peptide chain
transferring genetic information from DNA to the primary structure of the protein
the process of transcription and translation
of the protein
transcribing information from DNA and translating it into the amino acid sequence of the protein
43
The basic types of genes are:
structural genes
c) genes for RNA
d) regulatory genes
44
The plasmids are:
small circular DNA molecules in the cytoplasm of bacteria that replicates independently from chromosomal DNA
small circular DNA molecules separated from chromosomal DNA in bacteria
45
The tRNA anti-coding sequence for protein synthesis according to the structural gene segment CAA AAC TGT GCG TCA TTA CCA is:
CAA AAC UGU GCG UCA UUA CCA
46
The structural gene carries:
genetic information for the amino acid sequence of the protein
information for the primary structure of the peptide chain
information for the amino acid sequence of the protein
47
Regulatory genes:
regulate the activity of other genes
keep order in the whole system of genes
h) regulate the activity of genes in time and space
48
Chromatin consists of:
deoxyribonucleic acid and protein
DNA and protein
49
According to the principle of complementarity, thymine binds to:
adenine
50
What are the anticodons in tRNA to the mRNA CGAUAUCGUGCU:
GCU AUA GCA CGA
51
Which of the following nitrogen bases of the DNA molecule is located opposite to adenine in the complementary strand:
thymine
52
The Escherichia coli operon:
is transcribed as a whole
is a continuous chain of genes
e) is located in DNA
If) is transcribed into the mRNA as a whole
53
How many amino acids are coded by ATG TCY TIT CGG GGC DNA segment,
5
54
Amino acids can be coded:
by multiple codon types
multiple types of triplets
55
Synthesis of RNA:
is catalyzed
energy is supplied by ATP
is chemically similar to DNA synthesis
g) RNA is synthesized, e.g. in the nucleus, in the mitochondria, in the chloroplasts 13
h) the order of nucleotides is determined by order of the bases in one of the DNA strands
56
According to the complementarity principle, adenine is paired to:
uracil
thymine or uracil
h) thymine
57
DNA and RNA differ by:
type of saccharide
b) primary structure
58
RNA carries genetic information at:
RNA viruses
some non-cellular organisms
59
Nucleic acids:
belong to the basic macromolecular substances of living systems
b) are formed by connecting nucleotides into long chains
always contain five-carbon sugar
carry genetic information or participate in its implementation
60
What blood group can a child have when the mother has a blood group 0 and father has blood group A:
A with the genotype A0 if the father is homozygous
O with the genotype 00 if the father is heterozygous
A or 0 if the father is heterozygous
61
Which of the following statements is true about genomic mutations:
the number of chromosomes in the cell changes
b) the genes do not change
number of individual chromosomes and sets is changed
e) eukaryotic cell has more or fewer chromosomes than 2n
we observe polyploidy or aneuploidy
62
How many proteins are coded by genes, which are located in the human chromosome X:
800 to 9007
63
Healthy parent have two sons; one of them is affected by daltonim. What are, genotypes of both parents?
XAX x XY
mother is a carrier and father does not have a gene for daltonism
64
The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross with complete dominance of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is:
1:1
50%: 50%
65
Daltonism is a genetic disorder, which is an example of:
recessive inheritance linked to the gonosome X
c) recessive inheritance linked to the sex chromosome X
recessive inheritance linked to the heterochromosome X
66
Galactosemia is a disorder, which is an example of:
autosomal recessive genetic disorder
recessive genetic disorder linked to a somatic chromosome/
67
The genotype of a homozygous recessive individual for the following traits is:
aabb
aabbcc
cc
h) bbcc
68
Y chromosome in a karyotype means:
male sex in humans
male gender in humans
male genotype in humans
69
The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross with complete dominance of two heterozygotes is:
3: 1
75%: 25%
70
The basic methods of selective breeding include:
hybridization
crossbreeding
mating individuals with the required characteristics
71
Intermediate inheritance is:
case of incomplete dominance, in which both alleles are equally manifest in the heterozygote phenotype
also known as incomplete dominance/
72
Both parents have a blood group AB. What blood group can their children have:
homozygous A )
homozygous B/
codominant AB
73
Haemophilia A (hereditary bleeding):
occurs more often in men
occurs in men whose mother is a carrier occurs
in sons whose mother is a carrier
74
The term uniformity of hybrids means that:
all offspring in the first filial generation are the same
all offspring are heterozygous, and genotype and phenotype they have the same
all hybrids in the first filial generation are heterozygotes
D) all hybrids in the first filial generation are in complete dominancy phenotypically identica.
with one parent
all hybrids in the first filial generation, in intermediate inheritance, are not phenotypically
identical with both parents
75
The set of all genes in one cell is called.
genome
genotype in Monocytozoa
76
The material basis of the inheritance is:
nucleic acid
DNA
77
The dihybrid genotype of the dominant homozygous for the first trait and the
recessive homozygous for the second one is:
ААЬЬ
CCdd
DDee
78
Both parents are heterozygous for blood group B. What is the probability that their children will have a blood group B:
75%
0.75
79
In the case of incomplete dominance, what can we say about the phenotype of the heterozygote with genotype Bb:
it is different from BB
it is different from bb
it is different from BB and bb
80
The genotype of a dominant homozygous individual is:
AABB
e) ААВВСС
f) AA
81
Mutagens:
are agents that cause mutation in the cell
are involved in the formation of induced mutations 1
are of physical nature, e.g. ionizing radiation
are of chemical nature, e.g. ethylnitrosourea and ethidium bromide
82
Gene mutations:
changing individual genes
changing order or number of nucleotides
cause, for example, losing one or several nucleotides
cause, for example, insertion of additional nucleotide or several nucleotides
cause, for example, replacing of one nucleotide by an abnormal nucleotide
83
What types of mutations we recognize:
those affecting genes. hrownsomes and chromosomal sets /
c) those affecting genes, chromosomes and genome
induced and spontaneous
84
Two children of the same parents have a blood group O. What blood groups can their parents have:
homozygous 0 and homozygous 0
d) homozygous 0 and heterozygous A
e) homozygous 0 and heterozygous B
1) heterozygous A and heterozygous B
heterozygous B and heterozygous B
85
The genetic cross of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is:
Aa x аа
AaBb x aabb
86
How many autosomes does the human somatic cell contain:
22 pairs
44
an even number
87
Which of the following is true about gonosomes in humans:
they are called chromosome X and chromosome Y
b) they are present in gametes
combination of YY normally does not exist
d) only one gonosome is present in normal gameter
somatic cell always contains the X chromosome
88
Both parents have a heterozygous blood group B. Their children may have a blood group:
homozygous B with the 25% probability
c) heterozygous B with the 50% probability
d) homozygous 0 with the 25% probability
with the 75% probability
89
Mother has blood group 0 and father AB. What blood group can their children have:
A with the 50% probability
0 with the 0% probability
B with the 50% probability
AB with the 0% probability
90
Galactosemia is:
hereditary molecular disease
b) hereditary autosomal recessive disease
c) disease caused by lack of one of galactose degradation enzymes
an inherited disease where mutant allele has a pleiotropic effect
91
How many groups of chromosomes are in the human karyotype:
seven
A to G
92
One parent has a heterozygous blood group A and a second parent has s heterozygous blood group B. What blood group can their child have:
heterozygous blood group A with the 25% probability
b) heterozygous blood group B with the 25% probability.
blood group AB with the 25% probability
(d) blood group 0 with the 25% probability
93
One parent has heterozygous blood group A, the other homozygous A. Their children may have a blood group:
homozygous A with the 50% probability
A with the 100% probability
[e) heterozygous A with the 50% probability
94
In the case of complete dominance, the genotype Aa is phenotypically:
identical to AA
the same as the dominant homozygote
95
Can the daltonic parents have a colour-blind child:
yes, with the 100% probability
e) all children must be colour blind
96
The set of genotypically and phenotypically identical individuals is called:
pure line if they are the result of sexual reproduction
b) inbreeding line if they are the result of breeding
c) clone that originated from vegetative reproduction
97
Both parents have a heterozygous blood group A. Their children may have a blood group:
A with the 75% probability
homozygous A with the 25% probability heterozygous A with the 50% probability
homozygous 0 with the 25% probability
98
Rh factor is inherited as:
autosomal dominant trait
99
An example of Mendelian inheritance of normal human traits is:
blood groups
eye colour
f to become right-handed and left-handed
100
The genotype of a heterozygote for one or more traits is:
AaBb
Aa
CeDdEe
AaBbCc
101
Polyploidy is:
multiplication of complete chromosome sets
e.g. triploidy
f) e.g. tetraploidy
102
The genetic cross scheme of two heterozygotes is:
Aa x Aa
AaBb x AaBb
103
The change of the gene pool is caused by:
mutation if the carrier survives and can reproduce itself
natural selection
selection
104
Genetic pool is:
the set of alleles for all inherited traits in a particular species
the set of alleles in the particular population members
105
What is the chromosomal sex determination:
in mammals, males have gonosomes XY
(b) in mammals, females have gonosomes XX
c) in birds, males have gonosomes ZZ/
d) in butterflies. females have gonosomes ZW
(e) in birds, females have gonosomes ZW O in butterflies, males have gonosomes Z7
106
Independent groups of factors causing variability of organisms are:
hereditary and non-hereditary variability
e) genotype and external environment factors
107
The karyotype is:
the count and morphology of the chromosomes within the cell nucleus
microscopic image of the chromosomes of the eukaryotic cell that identify them
the same in the healthy individuals within the same species, but there is a difference.
between sexes
108
An example of human molecular disease is:
galactosemia
109
What are the genotypes of the parents, if their son is haemophiliac and their daughter is healthy homozygous:
XhX and XY
mother is a carrier and the father healthy
110
X-heterochromosome-related hereditary diseases in humans include:
haemophilia/
colour blindness
daltonism
haemorrhagic disease, type A
111
Daltonism (colour blindness) occurs:
more often in men
both in men and women
in all sons of the daltonic mother
112
The offspring genotypic ratio of the monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes is:
1:2:1
25%: 50%: 25%
113
The basic methods of human genetics are:
genealogy
population research
gemellology
research of twins
114
The brother has a blood group AB and his sister has a blood group 0.
The genotypes of their parent's blood groups are:
A0 and BO
heterozygous A and heterozygous B
115
How many generations in humans can be objectively monitored by a geneticist:
four
116
The phenotypic ratio in F2 at dihybridism with complete dominance is:
9: 3: 3: 1
117
Genes:
are sections of DNA molecules in chromosomes
control the production of specific proteins
d) are present in full set in each individual diploid cell
e) are divided into minor and major effect genes
are found on the chromosome loci
118
Why human inheritance cannot be examined by the crossing method:
due to ethical reasons
due to the low number of offspring due to the due to the low number of monitored generations
due to the long generation time of man
119
Qualitative traits are:
e.g. the colour of rose petals
eye colour
hair color
120
The mother has a heterozygous blood group A. Her baby has a homozygous blood group A. What a blood group the father of the child may have:
heterozygous A
homozygous A
homozygous A or heterozygous A
heterozygous A or homozygous A
121
The grandmother has an autosomal dominant trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that a grandchild will have this trait if his father is recessive homozygous for this trait?
0%
never have it
122
191. In the offspring when crossing two heterozygotes (in monohybridism), the proportion of heterozygotes is:
50%
half of it
123
The daughter normally recognizes red and green colouringuishing coter is colon. blind. The daughter" husband has no problems with distinguishing colours. The probability that their daughter will be colour blind:
their daughter will never be colour blind
124
When crossing two different homozygotes (in monohybridism):
each creates only one gamete type
b) their offspring are uniform
c) heterozygotes are created during fertilization by gamete fusion
all offspring are the same, and they are heterozygotes
all offspring have the same phenotype as one of the parents in case of complete dominance of trait
125
The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that the grandchild also will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait?
100%
never has it
126
The genotype of a dominant homozygote for the following traits is:
ААВВСС
d) AA
AABB
BBCCI
127
The genotype of a dihybrid that is a dominant homozygote for the first trait and a heterozygote for the second trait is:
a) ВВСс
b) DDEe
ААВЬ
h) EEFf
128
Inheritance:
ensures the transfer of generic traits from generation to generation
cannot be separated from variability
causes the offspring to resemble their parents
f) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from parents to offspring
g) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from generation to generation
129
Mutations that change genes but do not change the structure or number of chromosomes are called:
gene mutations
130
Children have a blood group AB and their mother has a heterozygous blood group
A. Which type of the blood group can their father have?
heterozygous B
d) codominant AB
homozygous B
131
The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait?
100%
never has it
132
The genotype of a heterozygote for one or more traits is:
CeDdEe
Aa
BbCc
g) АаВЬСс
h) CeDd
133
Human chromosomal set:
is the same for all body cells of an individual
it is also composed of autosomes
h) is also composed of gonosomes
134
Grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait, if his father is recessively homozygous for the trait?
50%
one half
135
Can the child inherit colour-blindness from parents if both of them recognize the colours normally:
yes, but only son
the daughter cannot, even if the mother is a carrier
daughter can not
136
If a father has a blood group 0 and a mother also has a blood group 0:
their children may only have a blood group O
137
The homozygote in monohybridism:
is the person, which is most often created by inbreeding
has the same parental allele for a certain trait
138
If a mother has a homozygous blood group B and a father has a heterozygote blood group A, their child may have.
heterozygous B
d) codominant AB
B with the 50% probability
B with B0 genotype
139
The pentahybrid genotype for heterozygote for the first trait, the dominant homozygote for the second trait, heterozygote for the third trait, the recessive homozygote for the fourth trait and the dominant homozygote for the fifth trait is:
BbCCDdeeFF
AaBBCeddEE
140
In the offspring of cross two heterozygotes (in monohybridism), the proportion of recessive homozygotes is:
25%
one quarter
the same as dominant homozygotes
141
Allelic pair:
is formed by two alleles
may be formed by two dominant alleles
can be formed by two recessive alleles
142
In offspring of cross the heterozygote with a homozygous recessive (monohybridism), the genotype ratio of offspring is:
50%: 50%
1:1
143
If both parents have a codominant AB blood group, then their offspring may have.
blood group B with the 25% probability
blood group AB with the 50% probability
blood group 0 with the 0% probability
144
Genes:
are located in DNA macromolecules
biochemical ground for trait formation
d) are the molecular grounds of the traits
e) are embedded in cells in the ultrastructure of their chromosomes
are located in the cell nucleus
145
Mutations that change the structure of chromosomes, but do not change genes the number of chromosomes are called:
chromosome mutations/
146
Induction of active defence against infection in man occurs after:
active immunization
c) preventive vaccination
vaccination
147
In unfavourable conditions protozoa produce on their surface:
cyst
envelop
148
Oncogenic viruses can cause:
uncontrollable cell division
development of malignant tumour
149
Do protozoa have simple regulations:
yes, it is based on enzymes
yes, all of them
150
Female of Anopheles mosquito transmits etiological agent of:
malaria
151
Viruses can consist of:
DNA and proteins
(b) proteins, nucleic acids and lipids
(c) RNA and proteins
nucleic acids and proteins
152
Antibodies in the blood are located in:
blood plasma
153
What kind of bacteria permanently live in the large intestine:
(a) fermenting bacteria
b) Escherichia coli,
c) putrid bacteria
d) non-pathogenic bacteria
154
Induction of active defence against infection in organism occurs after:
administration with attenuated pathogenic microorganisms
c) administration with attenuated pathogenic germs
d) the infection passing /
e) administration of Mammalia with a foreign antigen
administration with killed pathogenic germs
155
Antigen is:
foreign substance which can evocate the immunity response in the organism
c) structure from another organism which induces a specific immune response
structure evocating. after contact wit cell and production of specific antibodies
156
Body louse (Pediculus humanus) can transmit etiological agent of:
spotted fever
157
Giardia intestinalis occurs:
in the small intestine
in a man
in children
158
Which types of N-bacteria are involved in the conversion of nitrogenous
substances:
nitrifying bacteria
b) nitration bacteria
c) denitrifying bacteria
d) nodule bacteria
159
Hepatitis epidemica is:
infectious inflammation of the liver
term for the jaundice epidemic
160
Fleas transmit etiological agent of:
plague
161
Viruses are reproduced:
onlv in living cells
162
Single-celled organisms excrete the waste:
by the whole surface of the cell
c) by the contractile vacuole
163
Bacteria are reproduced:
by binary fission
asexual binary fission
164
Murein is:
peptidoglycan/
c) chemical compound that gives strength to the cell wall of prokaryotes
a complicated chemical substance
165
The amoeba that parasites in malpighian tubes is called:
Malpighamoeba mellificae
166
Streptococci:
form chains
a spherical shape
167
T-lymphocytes are responsible for:
cellular immunity
production of cytotoxic substances
168
Aetiological agents of malaria are:
Haemosporidia
some Sporozoa
169
The thin layer on the surface of the single-celled organisms is called:
pellicle
170
Viruses in a human can cause:
measles
c) poliomyelitis
d) varicella
(e) hepatitis A
f parotitis
h) influenza
171
Cells which are responsible for active immunization are:
memory cells
activated B-lymphocytes/
(e) plasmatic cells/
172
Bacteria can be found:
in the air
b) in the soil
[c) on the surface of organisms
in the food vacuole of Infusoria
in the human large intestine
173
Immunoglobulins are:
special proteins also called antibodies
c) products of B-lymphocytes
specific antibodies
174
According to origin and function we distinguish:
B-lymphocytes
c) T-lymphocytes
175
Vaccination is based on:
response of the specific immunity
antibody response of the organism
e) induction of active immunization
insertion of inactivated or attenuated germs which induce an immune reaction
176
the nucleoid of prokaryotic cells bounded by biomembranes:
no, it is not
177
Staphylococci:
form grape-like clusters
have a spherical form
178
Prokaryotic organisms are:
Bacteria
b) Cyanobacteria
Cyanophyta
A Prochlorophyta
179
B-lymphocytes are responsible for:
antibody defence
c) production of immunoglobulins
180
The bacteriophage is:
a kind of virus
a virus that affects bacteria
181
The function of T-lymphocytes in an organism is:
contribute to cellular immunity
that they are associated with the rejection of transplanted organs
e) the production of cytotoxic substances
the recognition of foreign cells and their destruction
182
What belongs to the manifestation directly related to nonspectie cell immunity
phagocytosis
d) ability to absorb foreign substances
e) diapedesis of neutrophils
the production of lysozyme and other substances which destroy bacteria
183
Erythrocyte antigens are:
called agglutinogens
are responsible for blood groups in a man
f) might cause isohaemagglutination
g) hereditary
184
The average size of bacteria is:
approximatelv 1 micrometre
g) 0.3 - 2.0 micrometres
185
What belongs to the manifestation of a specific antibody immune response:
the production of antibodies in B-lymphocytes
the production of specific immunoglobulins
186
Protective treatment at a time when the risk of infection has not yet occurred is called:
prophylaxis
preventive vaccination
187
Direct administration of complete antibodies to the organism is called:
passive immunization
188
Haemosporidia perform their development:
in erythrocytes of man and Anopheles mosquito
in two hosts
189
The pathogen responsible for tuberculosis was discovered by:
b) R. Koch
190
What kinds of an immune response are known:
specific antibody )
specific cellular
nonspecific cellular
191
Virus protective shell composed of proteins is called:
capsid
192
Haemosporidia need for their development:
two hosts
a man and mosquito Anophele
193
The specific cellular immunity is mediated:
by T-lymphocytes
by lymphocytes producing cytotoxic substances
194
virus that consists of a head and tail is:
bacteriophage
195
The spore of bacterium differs from the parent cell by:
the shape
b) the composition of a cell wall
c) the different water contents
d) sensitivity to environmental factors
activity of metabolism
196
Which statement about AIDS is true:
it is the final and most serious stage of HIV infection
b) small scratches are enough for infection
(c) risk groups are drug users, patients treated by frequent blood transfusions and homosexuals
the cause of the patient's death is, e.g. inflammatory diseases caused by parasites, fungi, yeasts and some viruses
development of a malignant tumour is frequent in patients with AIDS
197
Which statement about agglutinogens in a man is true:
they are inborn
their investigation is used, for example, in anthropology and forensic medicine
they have to be determined in the patient before the transfusion treatment
198
The diseases of animals or humans that are caused by viruses include:
influenza
hoof-and-mouth disease
cattle plague
hand-foot-and-mouth disease
poliomyelitis
AIDS
measles
199
About viruses, it is known that:
they are intracellular parasites of other organisms /
b) they are also sorted according to the type of the cells, in which they parasite
c) they are also sorted according to the type of nucleic acid
d) they are intracellular parasites of bacteria, plants and animals
200
About acquired immune deficiency syndrome in a man, it is known that:
it is called AIDS (short name)
b) it is a viral disease
it is based on the complete failure of immunity of an organism due to lymphocyte infection by HIV
infection insensibly spreads in the organism and causes a gradual loss of immune response
and results in the death of the patient
201
Paramecin is:
toxic protein
202
The Black Death (plague):
was one of the most devastating panderics in human history
is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis
203
Sleeping sickness:
is caused by Trypanosoma brucei
occurs in humans
204
Which helminths occur in a man:
Ascaris lumbricoides
Fasciola hepatica
Taenia solium
Ancylostoma duodenale
205
Viruses:
are small infectious agents that replicate only inside the living cells
can infect all types of life forms
cause diseases of plants and animals
h) are subcellular organisms
206
Influenza:
is an infectious disease caused by an influenza virus
is a respiratory illness caused by a virus
is highly contagious
207
AIDS:
represents a spectrum of conditions caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus
caused by HIV
is caused by a retrovirus
is spread primarily by unprotected sex/
208
Syphilis:
is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum
may be transmitted from the mother to her baby during pregnancy
is a sexually transmitted infection
209
Taenia solium:
is an intestinal zoonotic parasite
has humans as a definitive host
is the pork tapeworm belonging to cyclophyllid cestodes
210
Giardia intestinalis:
a flagellated parasite that colonizes and reproduces in the small intestine
is also one of the most common parasites infecting cats, dogs and birds
e) reproduces via binary fission
infects humans
h) relies on glucose as its major energy source and breaks glucose down into ethanol, acetate and carbon dioxide
211
Which mosquito-transmitted Plasmodium falciparum:
Anopheles gambiae
212
Toxoplasma gondii:
is an obligate intracellular parasite that causes toxoplasmosis
is one of the most common parasites in developed countries
213
Which plasmodia may infect humans:
Placebodium falciparum
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax
214
Sexually transmitted infectious diseases are:
syphilis
gonorrhoea
chancroid
215
Varicella:
is a highly contagious disease caused by the initial infection with varicella-zoster virus
is also known as chickenpox
results in a characteristic skin rash
is an airborne disease
216
Giardia intestinalis:
is a flagellated parasite that colonizes and reproduces in the small intestine
causes giardiasis
is a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis
reproduces via binary fission
217
Which statement about HPV is not true:
a) it is an RNA virus
c) it causes AIDS
d) it is transmitted by air
f) it affects only women
g) it cannot be spread from a mother to her baby during pregnancy
h) affects humans and animals
218
Hepatitis viruses are:
a) hepatitis A virus
[c) hepatitis E virus
e) hepatitis B virus
f) hepatitis C virus g)
hepatitis D virus
h) hepatitis F virus
219
Which statement about HIV is true:
a) it belongs to retroviruses
c) it contains RNA
e) it affects the human immune system
f) it causes AIDS
220
HIV can be transmitted by:
body fluids
c) an unsafe sexual intercourse
hypodermic needle
221
Which statement about HIV is not true:
(a) it causes genital warts
c) it contains reverse transcriptase to convert DNA into RNA/
d) it occurs only in Africa
g) it does not affect the immune system
222
Which statement about HIV is not true:
(a) it causes genital warts
c) it contains reverse transcriptase to convert DNA into RNA/
d) it occurs only in Africa
g) it does not affect the immune system
223
hpv virus
is transmitted by sexual intercourse
is a dna virus
can cause cervical cancer
224
Hepatitis viruses:
can cause infectious jaundice
can be transmitted by poor hygiene
its prevention includes vaccination
health workers
small children
225
Hepatitis A:
is an infections dis aseaf the liver caused by the virus
A raw seafood can cause hepatitis A
h)
affects humans
226
Hepatitis B:
infection can be acute or chronic
vaccination is a form of prevention
affects men, women, children/
ha) presence of the specific antibodies in serum serves as a diagnostic method
227
Hepatitis C:
C) is an infectious disease acquired by parenteral transmission
d) is not caused by hepatitis B virus
e) the liver is the main affected organ
1) can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusion
g) can cause chronic damage to the liver
228
HPV:
HPV infection belongs to sexually transmitted diseases
belongs to the group of DNA viruses
f) the most common types of HPV infection can be prevented by vaccination
g) can be spread from a mother to her child during pregnancy
229
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs):
b) can be caused by bacteria or parasites
c) syphilis, gonorrhoea and chlamydia are bacteria that can cause STDs
e) HIV, HPV and herpes simplex virus can cause viral STDs*
candidiasis also belongs to STDs
h) protozoa can also cause STDs.
230
Which animals excrete nitrogen in the form of urea?
a) whales
c) placentalia
d) mammals
e) gophers
g) humans
h) bats
231
Nitrogenous amino acid residues are transformed during protein degradation
in to:
ammonia
NH3
232
Which animals excrete nitrogen in the form of urea?
a) whales
c) placentalia
d) mammals
e) gophers
g) humans
h) bats
233
Vertebrates:
a) represent the overwhelming majority of the phylum Chordata
b) range in size from the frog species Paedophryne amauensis, at as little as 7.7 mm, to the blue whale, at up to 33 m
c) make up less than five percent of all described animal species
d) are the only chordate group to exhibit cephalisation,
f) include such groups as the following: jawless fishes, jawed vertebrates, tetrapods, and bony fishes
g) are built along with the basic chordate body plan - a stiff rod running through the length of the animal (vertebral column and/or notochord), with a hollow tube of the nervous tissue (the spinal cord) above it and the gastrointestinal tract below
h) originated about 525 million years ago during the Cambrian explosion
234
Which structures allow black and white vision during the twilight:
rod cells
235
What regulates the ability of lower vertebrates to change the colour of the body:
a) the pituitary hormone
the hormone of intermediate lobe of the hypophysis
the hormone of intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland
236
Plasma proteins are formed mainly in:
the liver
the organ that also produces bile
237
What is the medical term for alternation between inhalation and exhalation:
lung ventilation
238
The process in which the white blood cells pass across the capillary membrane is
diapedesis
239
Complex inborn reactions of the organism are:
instincts
240
What happens during the spread of the impulse in the nerve fibre:
Nations are moving through the neuron membrane
d) K+ ions are moving through the neuron membrane
e) permeability of the membrane is changed for the K+ and Na+ ions
an action potential
241
The neuron is composed of:
an axon
dendrites
242
Where do motor nerve fibres terminate:
in the skeletal muscles
in the middle of the muscle fibre in the simple synapse
f in the middle of the muscle fibre in the neuromuscular junction
in the striated muscles
243
Lymph nodes can catch:
microorganisms
b) dust particles
c) toxins
244
What allows continuous blood circulation:
the systole and diastole
rhythmic heart contraction and relaxation
245
According to a stimulus origin, receptors can be divided into:
interoreceptors
exteroreceptors
246
Endogenous biorhythms are:
rhythm of breathing b)
the heartbeat rhythm
o the rhythmic aewvity of the nervous system
(d) the contraction of smooth muscles
247
Exogenous biorhythms:
1) depend on the roguray thesomena of the external environment
b) depend on the alternation of the seasons
d) depend on the alternation of light and darkness
e) depend on the tide and outflow
f) may occur seasonally
h) are related to endogenous
