O+G Flashcards

1
Q

normal fundal height and major week milestones

A

gestational age +/- 2cm

12 weeks - pubic symphysis

20 weeks - umbilicus

36 weeks - xiphisternum

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2
Q

pre-eclampsia important symptoms

A
blurred vision or flashing lights (due to local vasospasm of the retina)
severe epigastric pain 
hyperreflexia 
clonus 
oedema of hands, feet, face
severe headache - usually frontal 
fetal distress- reduced fetal movements 
vomiting 
confusion / altered mental status
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3
Q

when do you feel fetal movements

A

16-25 weeks - will increase until 32 weeks and then plateu

cut off to investigate is 24 weeks

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4
Q

amount of vitamin D in pregnancy

A

400 IU daily

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5
Q

appointment timing

A

booking - 8-12 weeks - detailed history, risk assessment (community or midwife), estimation of due date but most accurate is at dating scan with CRL, heigh, weight, BMI, urine dip for asympomatic bacteriuria, bloods (anaemia, HIV, syphilis, hepB, group and save for Rh)

dating - 8-14 weeks - determines age based on CRL, detects if twins, DS (via nuchal translucency, PAPP-a, beta hCG)

anomaly - 18-20 - take pic home, gender, major structural malformations

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6
Q

how is DS confirmed

A

CVS at 11-14 weeks - 2% risk of miscarriage

amniocentesisis at 15 weeks - 1% risk of miscarriage

give anti-D in both

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7
Q

TOP methods

Most women have some bleeding and cramping for several days after either
method, but these usually get better day by day

surgical can be doen under LA or LA and sedation or GA - benefit w LA is going home same day and dont have to fast
wont be able to drive following sedation

beforehand - may be offered sti testing, an US to check how many weeks, chance to speak to counsellor

A

medical - up to 24w
mifepristone pill then 24-48 hours later misoprostol (vaginal/buccal/sublingual) - dose and amount of pills depends on how far along - e.g. <9 weeks only need one bill, 9-12 need vaginal + up to 4 doses oral
pregnancy comes out via bleeding several hours after the 2nd pill. someimtes need to take extra dose of misoprostol to get it to pass

if >10w pregnany you may need to take the second tablet at hospital

surgical
vacuum aspiration up to 14w
dilation and evacuation 14-24 w under sedation or GA

done w LA, sedation or GA/deep sedation - w both can go home say day

In very limited circumstances an abortion can take place after 24 weeks – for example, if there’s a risk to life or there are problems with the baby’s development

saftey netting = get advise if pain or bleeding that does not get better in a few days - have a temp or unusual vag discharge

comps inc needing another procedure, heavy bleeding or sepsis, injury to womb

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8
Q

what is needed alongside a TOP

A

anti-d prophylaxis for Rh negative after 10w gestation in every sort of TOP

consider for before 10 weeks for surgical TOP

for those that need thrombophrophylaxis, consider LMWH for at least a week after the abortion

NSAIDs for pain relief for either

use pads until bleeding stops

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9
Q

who needs to take aspirin from 12w of pregnancy

A
>1 of 
-	First pregnancy
-	Aged >40
-	Previous pregnancy >10 years ago
-	BMI >35
-	Family history of pre-eclampsia
-	Multiple pregnancy
Or 1 of 
-	Hypertension or pre-eclampsia in a past pregnancy
-	CKD
-	Autoimmune disease e.g. SLE 
-	Diabetes mellitus
-	Chronic hypertension
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10
Q

diabetes monitoring (with target values) and checkups in pregnancy

A

seen every 1-2 weeks by diabetes care team

type 1 and type 2 on insulin - test glucose pre-meal, one hour post meals and bedtime

type 2 on oral or conservative - same but not bedtime

target = fasting 5.3, two hours after meal 6.4 (7.8 one hour after)

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11
Q

timing of birth in diabetes

A

elective birth by induction of labour or C section if indicated between 37-38+6 weeks of pregnancy

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12
Q

screening for gestational diabetes + its risk factors

A

75g oral glucose tolerance test - wont eat for 8-12hrs before, then given some glucose, then blood measured at intervals after

fasting = 5.6, two hour = 7.8

if previous GDM pregnancy - done asap after booking, and again at 24-28 weeks if first was normal

any other risk factor - done at 24-28 weeks

risk factors include BMI >30, previous macrosomic baby, first degree relative with diabetes, south asian, black carribean, middle eastern

glycosuria of 2+ or above on one occasion or of 1+ or above on two or more occasions during routine antenatal care may indicate undiagnosed GDM. Consider further testing to exclude GDM

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13
Q

management of gestational diabetes

A

consultant led

most treated with lifestyle modifications

offer metformin to women with GDM if targets are not met within 1-2 weeks

offer insulin instead of metformin if CI - advise tho of risk of hypo- always have a fast-acting form of glucose in case

offer insulin +metformin if target not met

offer insluin straight away with or without metformin if fasting glucose >7 at diagnosis

advise give birth no later than 40+6 weeks - offer induction or c section to those that haven’t by then (a bit earlier if on treatment - 37-38w)

discontinue treatment immediately after birth

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14
Q

when to offer a fasting blood glucose test after birth for a women with GDM

A

6-13 weeks after birth

if >7 then is likely they have diabetes

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15
Q

gestational hypertension vs pre-eclampsia

A

gestational hypertension = pregnancy-induced hypertension (SBP > 140 or DBP > 90 or increase above booking readings SBP >30 or DBP > 15) that develops after 20 weeks gestation - will resolve after birth

pre-eclampsia = pregnancy -induced hypertension + proteinuria (>0.3g/24hr) and/or oedema - (most cases occur after 24 weeks but definition is after 20)

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16
Q

3 anti-hypertensives safe in pregnancy

A

labetolol
nifedipine
methyldopa - NB if this is use, switch back to pre-pregnancy anti-HTN regime within 2 days of delivery due to increased risk of post natal depression on this

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17
Q

definition and management of severe gestational HTN

A

> 160/110

admit to hosptial

start IV labetolol to keep SBP <150 and DBP <100

CTG to check on baby

test BP 4x per day and check for proteinuria once a day

discharge one BP in target range

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18
Q

management of mild and moderate gestational hypertension

A

mild - check BP and proteinuria weekly

moderate - twice weekly, and start labetalol to keep SBP <150 and DBP <100, and arrange bloods to check liver function, FBC and U+E for signs of pre-eclampsia

(nafedipine 2nd line, methyldopa 3rd line)

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19
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

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20
Q

investigations for pre-eclampsia - DUCH

A

BP and urine dip (2+)
then confirm via urinalysis - MC+S (rule out UTI), then 24-hour urine collection or calculation of albumin:creatinine ratio (or protein:creatinine ratio)
FBC - low platelets and anaemia in HELLP
LFTs - raised transaminases
U+E - keep an eye on creatinine for AKI
coagulation profile - prolonged PT and APTT
high LDH in haemolysis
high urate - indicates worsening disease

USS - assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume
dopper of umbilical arteries**
CTG

use placental growth factor (PIGF) to test in those with pre-existing HTN and renal disease

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21
Q

management of mild and moderate pre-eclampsia (not including delivery)

A

mild - proteinuria with BP 140/90-149/99
moderate - proteinuria and BP 150/100 -159/109
both same

admit if concerns for mother or baby or high risk of adverse effects suggested by fullPIERS or PREP-S
monitor BP QDS if in hospital, if not every 48 hours
twice weekly bloods
anti-HTN with labetalol
carry out US and CTG at diagnosis
repeat US 2-weekly
VTE prophylaxis if in patient

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22
Q

management of severe pre-eclampsia (not including delivery)

A

severe - BP >160/110

admit
antihypertensive - labetalol oral, if not IV labetalol, or oral nifedipine, or IV hydralazine
monitor BP at least QDS (but at first, every 15-30 minutes until BP is less than 160/110)
bloods three times weekly: U&Es, FBC, LFTs
carry out CTG and US of fetus at diagnosis and if normal, repeat US every 2 weeks
repeat CTG if clinically indicated
VTE prophylaxis

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23
Q

delivery for pre-eclampsia

(up to this point - patients can usually be managed conservatively until 34w as long as they’re stable - then just antihypertensives, monitor +/- admit)

A

anti-HTN oral or IV labetolol or oral nifedipine or IV hydralazine if SBP >160 or DBP >110
magnesium sulphate if seizure concern 24 hours before delivery
fluid restriction due to pulmnoary oedema being a significant cause of maternal death in pre-eclampsia
CTG throughout
BP measurement throughout
3rd stage of labour with syntocinon (not ergometrine or syntometrine)

only offer delivery <34 weeks if severe HTN refractory to treatment or complications develop like eclampsia, HELLP, reversed umbilical diastolic flow - consider steroids and mag sulph

consider <37 weeks if inability to control BP (tried >3 classes), <90% sats, HELLP, eclampsia, non-reassuring CTG - consider steroids

from 37w onwards - initiate birth within 24-48 hours

offer IV Mg sulphate and a course of antenatal corticosteroids (if <34+6) if indicated - e.g. in severe pre-eclampsia

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24
Q

post-natal management for pre-eclampsia

A

important to monitor mother as still at risk of eclamptic seizures measure bloods 48-72 hours after delivery - FBC, U+Es,LFTs
monitor fluid balace
measure BP every day or other day for 2 weeks, reducing the anti-HTN gradually as it falls
urine dip at 6w to ensure no proteinuria

(anti-HTN may be needed for several weeks after birth)

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25
Q

management of eclampsia

A

A-E
left lateral position
magnesium sulphate 4g loading dose then infusion 1st line for fits
if further fits occur a further 2g can be given as bolus
assessment for magnesium toxicity via testing reflexes (confusion, loss of reflexes, hypotension, respiratory distress) - if low urine output consider lowering dose as it is renally excreted
anti-HTN - oral or IV
fluid restrict to 80m/hr
continuous CTG
deliver fetus once mother is stable (vaginal is fine)
manage 3rd stage with syntocinon

measure obs every 15 minutes
assess for magnesium toxicity (confusion, loss of reflexes, respiroaty distress, hypotension)

after delivery, mother will need HDU care until stable - well controlled BP, good UO, discontinuation of magnesium sulphate - usually takes a minimum of 24 hours

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26
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum triad

is associated w a higher incidence of SGA, multiples and premature babies - thought to be due to rapidly increasing bhcg

A

dehydration
electrolyte imbalance
body weight loss of more than 5% pre-pregnancy weight

(may also be ketonuria)

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27
Q

grading vomiting in pregnancy

A

PUQE score - pregnancy unique qualification of emesis

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28
Q

management of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

outpatient (PUQE = 3-12), ambulatory (PUQE>12), inpatient (complications/failed ambulatory care)
NB PUQE = pregnancy unqieu quantification of emesis

outpatient - cyclizine, promethazine, chlorpromazine or prochlorperazine with oral hydration

abulatory care - IV fluids and IV anti-emetics and oral or IV thiamine/pabrinex

in patient - same plus thromboprophylaxis with LMWH, nutritional support may be required, steroids if unresponsive to anti-emteics, TOP may be last option for intractable

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29
Q

management of obstetric cholestasis

A

weekly LFT monitoring
UDCA
vitamin K if steatorrhoea or prolonged PT (small risk of neonatal haemolytic anaemia, hyperbilirubinaemia and kernicterus)
induction 37w onwards as maternal morbidity and stillbirth increases form this point onwards
hospital birth

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30
Q

chages/monitoring if taking an AED and pregnant

A

measure maternal AED levels at each trimester to avoid fits - pregnancy can change plasma concentration

increased fetal growth monitoring

vitamin K oral from 34w

CTG tracing

5mg folic acid

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31
Q

define types of haemorrhage within APH

A

minor <50
major 50-1000
massive >1000

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32
Q

triad of ruptured vasa previa

A

rupture of membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia

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33
Q

placenta praevia vs placental abruption

A

placenta praevia = placenta covers internal cervical os - not painful, fresh red blood

placental abruption = placenta separates from the uterus and blood separates them - painful, may be no blood or dark red

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34
Q

causes of APH

A
idiopathic 
placenta previa 
placental abruption 
ruptured vasa previa 
trauma 
cervical ectropion 
poylps 
infection 
uterine rupture (although this usually happens in labour)
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35
Q

management of APH

A

mild spotting and baby is ok can be discharged with serial growth US scans for IUGR, oligohydraminos etc (are at increased risk from APH)
if more than just spotting or ongoing bleeding then should remain in hospital until the bleeding has stopped
A-e
cannula - take bloods FBC, U+E, LFTs, clotting, G+S, 4u crossmatched in major haemorrhage
Kleihauer test if mother is Rh D negative - give anti-D prophylactically with dose according to Kleihauer
fluids
auscultate heart rate - if not do US
US to rule out praevia
(abruption is clinical diagnosis)
CTG
APH is a risk factor for pre-term delivery so give steroids if 24 - 34+6 weeks - BUT if small spotting which has stopped (particuarly if cause identidied like postcoital from ectropion or lower genital tract infection ) then may not need steroids
tocololysis only in very preterm and not yet completed steroids - senior decision (if fetal distress dont want to delay delivery)
if >37w and stable - induce vaginal with CTG monitroing
fetal distress then C section
3rd stage managed actively due to risk of PPH

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36
Q

specific management for placenta previa

A

A-e
cannula - take bloods FBC, U+E, LFTs, clotting, G+S, 4u crossmatched in major haemorrhage
Kleihauer test if mother is Rh D negative - give anti-D prophylactically with dose according to Kleihauer
fluids
CTG monitoring

minor >2cm away from os, may be able to deliver vaginally continue scanning every 2 weeks

<2cm is an indication for C section at 38 weeks (after this risk of haemorrhage increases) - early if evidence of accreta (35-37)
women with major PP who have previously bled should be admitted from 34 weeks (can be remain at home if they are close to hospital, have a constant companian and understand risks)
must avoid intercourse
should explain the risk of hysterectomy while a c section is done

note on steroisd - if bleeding is associated with pain suggestive of uterine activity or abruption then the risk of preterm birth is increased and therefore steroids may be of benefit. Women presenting with spotting that has stopped (particularly if identified cause like post-coital from a cervical ectropion or lower genital tract infection is found) and no abdominal pain, may not require steroids

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37
Q

management of placenta accreta

A

delivery should take place in a specialist centre with immediate access to blood products and adult and neonatal intensive care planned c section delivery at 35-36+6 weeks (35-37 weeks) (opening of the uterus at a site distant from the placenta)
can be performed with regional anaesthesia but risk of converting to GA should be discussed
if the mother really wants another child, then a uterus-saving approach may be tried with or without therapeutic uterine artery embolisation, surgical internal iliac artery ligation or methotrexate therapy e.g. a partial myometrial resection

but unfortunately is not often successful and can be associated with bleeding and infection and some will still need to go on to have a hysterectomy

so must consent pt for both blood transfusion and a hysterectomy

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38
Q

management of placental abruption

A

A-e - oxygen if needed
cannula - take bloods FBC, U+E, LFTs, clotting, G+S, 4u crossmatched in major haemorrhage
Kleihauer test if mother is Rh D negative - give anti-D prophylactically with dose according to Kleihauer
CTG monitoring and arrange USS
position in left lateral tilted position

catheter + fluids - keep SBP >100 - warmed hartmanns until blood is available if required

fetal distress - immediate C section

no distress <37 weeks - observe, steroids, regular US for growth - i.e the conservative method - a less common presentaiton

no distress >37 weeks or dead fetus - induction and labour and vaginal

for all Rh neg - give anti-D within 72 hours of haemorrhage

note on steroisd - if bleeding is associated with pain suggestive of uterine activity or abruption then the risk of preterm birth is increased and therefore steroids may be of benefit. Women presenting with spotting that has stopped (particularly if identified cause like post-coital from a cervical ectropion or lower genital tract infection is found) and no abdominal pain, may not require steroids

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39
Q

what to do if reduced fetal movements

A

try handheld dopper

if none detectable, use US

if present, do CTG for next 20 minutes to monirot

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40
Q

PROM vs P-PROM

A

prom = premature reupture after 37 weeks (at least an hour before onset of labour)

p-prom = preterm prom, occurs <36+6

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41
Q

investigations for PROM

A

speculum after woman has lied down for 30 minutes - showing amniotic fluid pooling in the vagina

swab for infection

can do a ferning test - place cervical secretion onto a slide and allow it to dry - will form fern-patterened crystals

US will show low liquor volume

temperature, MSU, bloods +/- amniocentesis to look for infection

fetal monitoring with CTG

do not perform PV exam as this increases risk of chorioamnionitis

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42
Q

management of PROM

A

evidence of chorioamnionitis - betamethasone 12mg IM, broad spectrum antibioitc cover and deliver

no evidence - then admit then depends on date

<37w (P-PROM)
erythromycin for 10 days (or until labour if this is sooner) and can go home after 48 hours of no labour - take temp every 4-8 hours and return if it spikes
also give steroids if between 24-34+6
tocolytics are generally not recommended
magnesium sulphate to prevent CP - between 24-29+6w (and consider if up to 33+6) in those in labour or a planned birth within 24 hours - bolus followed by infusion

if >34 weeks, the timing of IOL depends on risk vs benefits of delaying pregnancy further

> 37w - expectant management for no longer than 24 hours, or induce labour straight away

<37w - alert neonatal team as the preterm baby will need supprot

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43
Q

when to offer someone magnesium sulphate

A
  • NICE say to offer IV magnesium sulphate for neuroprotection between 24-29+6 weeks in those in established preterm labour or having a planned preterm birth within 24 hours
  • AND to consider the same for up to 33+6 weeks
  • Give a 4 g intravenous bolus of magnesium sulfate over 15 minutes, followed by an intravenous infusion of 1 g per hour until the birth or for 24 hours (whichever is sooner)
  • Monitor for toxicity - calcium gluconate to treat
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44
Q

when should antenatal steroids be given

A

between 24 and 34+6 weeks

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45
Q

define premature labour

A

contractions leading to dilation of the cervix before 37 weeks

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46
Q

investigations for premature contractions without water breaking

A

TV to measure cervical length - if >15mm then unlikely she is in pre-term labour, re-evaluate 2 weeks later

fetal fibronectin if TV US is unavailable or unacceptable - if positive then more likely to deliver

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47
Q

management of preterm labour

A

admit if likely to be true labour i.e. TV cervical length <15mm or fibronectin assay positive

steroids should be consdiered - betamethasone or dexamethasone e.g. betamethasone IM 2x doses given 24 hours apart

tocolytic drugs can be consdiered to allow time for steroids to work e.g. nifedipine

magnesium sulphate if between 24 and 29+6 (and consider up to 33+6)

can consider emergency cervical cerclage if dilated cervix and unruptured fetal membranes

delivery - IV benzylepenicillin to protect against GBS in all preterm deliveries (and if GBS postitive at term)

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48
Q

prevention of preterm labour

A

treat BV - clindamicin rather than metronidazole

progesterone reduces recurrence in high risk (e.g. previous history of late miscarriage or preterm birth) and in low risk with a short cervix - done via cream or pessary

elective (rather than rescue) cervical cerclage/sutures

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49
Q

active vs latent phase of first stage of labour

A

latent= where contractions occur at 5 and 10 minute intervals - women should go home and come back when contractions are stronger

active phase - when cervix is around 4-5cm dilated and contractions are more painful and regular

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50
Q

delayed first stage management

A

e.g. <2cm in 4 hours (remember than expected is 1cm an hour for multiparous and 0.5cm an hour for nuliparous)

when there is a delay it is recommended to commence CTG monitoring
amniotomy followed by oxytocin infusion can be offered to accelerate labour, advise the woman that this will increase pain – contractions will be stronger and more painful
if membrane is broken then consider oxytocin infusion
if full dilation is not imminent consider C section

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51
Q

deliver within what amount of time from starting pushing

A

within 3 hours of pushing in a nulliparous (start investigating after 2) – if multiparous would expect to deliver within 2 hours but start intervening after 1

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52
Q

management of second stage

A
  • Half-hourly documentation of the frequency of contractions
  • Hourly BP
  • Continued 4-hourly temperature
  • Offer vaginal examination hourly in the second stage
  • Perform intermittent auscultation of the fetal heart rate immediately after a contraction for at least 1 minute, at least every 5 minutes. Palpate the woman’s pulse every 15 minutes
  • Sufficient analgesia
  • Once born, the baby’s mouth and nose are suctioned, and the 1- and 5-minute Apgar scores recorded
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53
Q

management of third stage of labour

A

expectant - uterus is rubbed to stimulate contraction

active - rcommended. with IM syntocinon or IM syntometrine immediately after birth, followed by clamping umbilical cord after 5 minutes

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54
Q

amount of dilation during first stage expected

A

want 1 cm an hour for multiparous or 0.5cm an hour for a nulliparous

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55
Q

normal variability on ctg

A

10-25bpm

non-reassuring is <5 for 40-90mins
abnormal is <5 for >90 mins - should assess for fetal acidosis via fetal scalp capillary blood sample

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56
Q

normal amount of accelerations

A

> 15bpm for >15 seconds - and there should be at least 2 accelerations every 15 minutes

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57
Q

3 methods of inducing labour

A

vaginal prostaglandins - either via tablet/gel or via pessary e.g. propess - max one cycle in 24 hours (60% will start labour within that 24 hours)

amniotomy - membranes are ruptured using an amniohook which releases prostaglandins - only performed when cerxic is ripe
syntocinon infusion is given alongside

membrane sweep - insert gloved finger and rotate it against the fetal membranes to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua

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58
Q

what is the bishops score

A

an assessment of cervical ripeness

uses cervical dilation, cervical effacement/length, cervical consistency (how soft), cervical position, fetal station

highest score = 13

<5 = labour unlikely to start without induction
>8 = labour is likely to be spontaneous / high chance of induction agents working
between these values is hard to predict one way or another

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59
Q

things to do before instrument delivery

A

mediolateral episiotomy
pudendal nerve block - usually this is sufficient analgesia
empty bladder via catheter

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60
Q

pre-op for c section

A

FBC + G+S - average blood loss is around 500-1000ml
H2 receptor antagonist should be prescribed e.g. ranitidine +/- metoclopramide (risk of Mendelson’s syndrome (aspiration of gastric contents into the lung), leading to a chemical pneumonitis. This is because of pressure applied by the gravid uterus on the gastric contents)
risk score for VTE should be calculated - anti-thromboembolic stockings +/- low molecular weight heparin should be prescribed as appropriate
anaesthesia – majority under regional, this is usually a topped-up epidural or spinal
prophylactic Abx during op and oxytocin to aid delivery of placenta
woman positioned with a left lateral tilt of 15 degrees

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61
Q

3 types of cord prolapse and its treatment

A

overt - cord through cervix and vagina past presenting part

occult - is alongside presenting part but not passed it

funic - cord is between presenting fetal part and fetal membranes but has not passed the opening of the cervix

treat with emergency c section

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62
Q

management of shoulder dystocia

A

mcroberts - hyperflex maternal hips (knees to chest) to widen pelvic outlet

suprapubic pressure - pressure behind anterior shoulder

can try episotomy to make access for following manoeuvres easier

posterior aim - insert hand posteriorly and grasp posterior arm

internal rotation/corkscrew manoeuvre - put pressure with 2 fingers on posterior shoulder and rotate it until it becomes anterior

if all fail, patient on all fours then repeat

last resort = symphisiotomy, zavenelli moevre (return head and c section), fracture clavicle

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63
Q

3 types of breech presentation

A

frank/extended (majority) - knees extended upwards
complete - knees are flexed
footling - one or both thighs are extended, feet downwards

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64
Q

management of breech

A

<36w - may turn spontaneously

ECV (external cephalic version) done at 36 for nulli and 37 for multi

  • 50% success rate (higher in muliparous) - can be increased by tocolytics like salbutamol that relax the uterus - either electively or if first attempt fails
  • 2-3% chance of baby turning back to breech after a succesful ECV
  • painful

if fails/CI - planned C section has lower risks of perinatal death - however in most cases vaginal is safe with monitoring and in hospital (some women may not favour this tho e.g. large baby, previous C section…)

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65
Q

CI to ECV _RAM

A
where C section is required 
APH in last 7 days 
abnormal CTG
ruptured membranes
multiple pregnancy
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66
Q

complications of ECV

A
transient fetal heart abnormalities 
persistent fetal bradycardia 
DDH
PROM and premature labour 
cord prolapse 
traumatic injuries like Erb palsy
placental abruption 

risk of woman needing emergency c section is 1 in 200

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67
Q

4Ts in PPH

A

tone - atony - most common - where uterus fails to continue to contract after birth and clamp placental artereis shut to reduce bleeding which continues for a few weeks
trauma - e.g. due to instrumentation, incision from c section, from baby itself, uterine rupture
tissue - retained placenta (prevents contractions and leads to uterine atony)
thrombin - pre-existing coagulopathy e.g. VWD or eclampsia leading to a DIC preventing clot formation and thus –> bleeding

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68
Q

causes of uterine atony

A

multiple pregnancies, fatigue from prolonged labour, induction of labour, magnesium sulphate and nifedipine can also interfere with uterine contractions

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69
Q

management of primary PPH

A

communicate and alert relevant professions

resuscitae with a-e, oxygen, IV access, fluids via bolus in minor, blood transfusion in major (in meantime use 2L of warmed Hartmann’s)

monitor and investigate - bloods from cannula; FBC, coagulation, U+E, LFT, crossmatch 4u, monitor obs

stop bleeding
atony - empty bladder, fundal massage, oxytocin slow IV injection or IM ergometrine or IM syntometrine
second line - IM carboprost (Hemabate), rectal misoprostol, oxytocin infusion
adjuncts with IV tranexamic acid or factor VIIa
surgery if medical fails - balloon tamponade, B-lynch suture, arterial ligation/embolisatio or hysterectomy last option

trauma - compress and suture tears

tissue - manual removal of placenta if placenta has separated. if not the exam under anaesthesia

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70
Q

primary vs secondary PPH

A
primary = within 24 hours 
secondary = 24 hours - 6 weeks
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71
Q

causes of secondary PPH

A

endometritis - risk factors include C section, PROM, meconium stained liquor, long labour with multiple exams

retained products of conception - elevated fundus that feels boggy

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72
Q

when can you start COCP again after giving birth - breastfeeding vs nonbreastfedding

A

non-breastfeeding >3 weeks
breastfeeding >6w - same as for patch or ring

nb iud is within 48 hours - if not after 4 weeks

immediately after birth = any progesterone method

LAM becomes unreliable when:

other foods or liquids are substituted for breastmilk
your baby reaches 6 months old
you have a period

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73
Q

contraception options for <21 days non breastfeeding or <6 months breastfeeding

A

progesterone only (POP, injection, implant)
barrier
IUD or IUS can be inserted within 48 hours of giving birth - if not in this time then have to wait until 4 weeks after birth

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74
Q

urinary symptoms vs bowel symptoms are associated with what sort of prolapse

A

urinary with anterior compartment prolapse
this includes urethrocele and cystocele

bowel with posterior prolapse which includes rectocele (constipation, tenesmus, need to digitally evacuate stool, incontinence)

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75
Q

management of prolapse

A

conservative - pelvic floor exercises, weight loss

medical - vaginal pessary (inserted into the vagina to relieve pressure on bladder and bowel - are changed every 6m)

surgical
anterior vault prolapse - colporrhaphy (fixation of anterior vaginal wall) or colposuspension (fixation of bladder bass to pelvic side wall)

uterine prolapse - hysterectomy, sarcospinus fiaxation (fixation of uterus to sacrospinus ligament)

vaginal vault prolapse - vaginal sacrospinous fixation with sutures or with mesh to attach it to sacrum

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76
Q

treatment for overactive bladder

A

conservative
medical - antimuscurinics like oxybutynin, darifenacin, solifenacin, tolterodine, or beta3 agonist ; mirabegron

surgery - augmentaiton cystoplasty (small piece of intestine is added to the bladder wall to increase its size) or urinary diversion (ureters are re-routed to outside the body)

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77
Q

causes of overflow incontinence

A

where there is detrusor underactivity or bladder outlet obstruction resulting in retention and leakage of urine

e.g. due to neurological disease, urethral obstruction, medications that decrease contractiliy e.g. ACEi, antidepressants, antimuscurinics, antihistamines, antiparkinsonian drugs, CCBs, opioids, sedatives

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78
Q

causes of urge incontinence

A

idiopathic in most
can be associated with neurological conditions like PD, MS or injury to pelvic/spinal nerves
comorbidites like obestiy, T2DM and chronic urinary tract infection can increase urgency symptoms
drugs such as antidepressants
exacerbated by caffine or alcohol

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79
Q

investigations for incontinence

A

LL neuro exam
ask about bowel habit
examine abdomen for a palpable bladder
perform a pelvic exam - do bimanual and ask woman to contract her pelvic muscles
ask woman to cough with full bladder and observe for urethral meatus leakage
test for UTI
U+E - AKI may be present if urinary obstruction is present
ask patient to keep a bladder diary
ask about use of pads to determine severity
post-void residual volume measurement with US or catheter
urodynamic studies - can measure pressures with bladder outlet behaviour during filling and voiding

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80
Q

management of stress incontinence

A

conservative - reduce caffine, avoid excessive fluid intake, weight loss, stop smoking (cough), make adaptations to get to toilet quicker, at least 3 months of pelvic floor muscle training (minimum of 8 contractions performed at least 3 times a day - vaginal cones can be used to help, or electrical stimulation)

surgery - colposuspension - bladder neck is lifted upwards via stiching lower part of vagina to ligament behind pelvic bone, or intramural urethral bulking agents e.g. with collagen or silicone, retropubic mid-urehtral mesh sling or rectus fascial sling

medical with duloxetine (anticholinergic) if doesnt want surgery

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81
Q

management of urge incontinence

A

conservative - reduce caffeine, monitor fluid (too much or too little will make it worse), offer referral for bladder training (at least 6 weeks, where you hold for 5 mins for a week after urge kicks in, then extra min the next week if you dont lose continence with 5) which can be combined with pelvic floor training if mixed

medical - antimuscurinics with oxybutynin, tolterodine or darifenacin OR beta 3 agonist with mirabegron (if am is CI e.g. if concerns about frailty in elderly) - can take 4 weeks to work (SE constipation and dry mouth)
if these fail - botulinum toxin into bladder, percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation, percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation, augmentation cystoplasty and urinary diversion

indwelling catheter for intractable symptoms

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82
Q

management of postnatal psychosis

A
  • Most need to be treated in hospital – ideally in a mother and baby unit
  • Medication -antidepressants, antipsychotics to help with manic and psychotic symptoms like delusions and hallucinations (most antipsychotics are secreted in breastmilk but there is little evidence of it causing problems - avoid clozapine) -mood stabilizers like lithium (but should be encouraged not to breastfeed)
  • CBT
  • ECT – only rarely used. If very severe depression or mania
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83
Q

3 stages of the menstrual cycle

A

proliferative phase - oestrogen stimulates repair and growth of functional layer
secretory phase - once ovulation has occured, progresterone creates a more welcoming environment for embyro to implant
menstrual phase - decreased progesterone due to corpus luteum degeneratio leading to breakdown of endometrial tissu

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84
Q

causes of primary amenorrhoea

A

SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERISTICS PRESENT
constitutional
pregnancy
imperforate hymen - complains of intermittent abdominal pain, palpable lower abdominal swelling, bulging, bluish membrane at vagina
mullerian agenesis - painless, where there is a missing uterus with variable degree of vaginal hypoplasia
testicular feminisation syndrome (aka complete androgen insensitivity syndrome) - may have ambiguous genitalia
high prolactin- due to pituitary tumour, hypothyroidism, medicaition (chlorpromazine antipsychotic)

SECONDARY ABSENT
ovarian failure - chemo, iraddiation, Turner’s
hypothalamic - stress, anorexia, exercise
failure of hypothalamic-pituitary axis - tumour, infarction, injury, Kallmann’s (anosmia, unilateral renal agenesis, cleft)
congenital adrenal hyperplasia - classic severe (salt losing or not-salt losing/simple virulizing) which presents with ambigious genitalia or salt losing crisis in boys, or non-classic/late-onset form which presents with early pubarche in men or amenorrhoea or infertility in women

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85
Q

causes of secondary amenorrhoea (no periods for 6 months)

A

pregnancy
PCOS
high prolactin - hypothyroidism, pituitary tumour, medication (chlorpromazine antiemetic/antipsychotic)
primary ovarian insufficiecny aka premature ovarian failure
thyroid disease
hypothalamic amenorrhoea - stress, anorexia, trauma, tumour

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86
Q

causes of raised FSH and LH in amenorrhoea

A
Turner's
ovarian failure (because no oestrogen inhibiting)
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87
Q

causes of post-coital bleeding

A

infection
cervical ectropion - where the columnar epithelium from the inside of the cervix is on the outside and is weaker and prone to bleed - COC, puberty and pregnancy are risk factors so can manage by stopping COC, or if persists then cryotherapy or ablation or can go away by itself
cervical or endometrial polyps
malignancy in vagina or cervix
trauma
vaginal atrophy - usually occurs after menopause, is due to lack of oestrogen

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88
Q

causes of intermenstrual bleeding

A
ectopic pregnancy
gestational trophoblastic disease
spotting may occur with ovulation 
vaginal adenosis - presence of glandular tissue within vagina, is benign
vaginal tumours 
vaginitis
infection
ectropion 
polyps 
fibroids
endometrial hyperplasia
endometritis
adenomyosis 
following smear 
missed COC
89
Q

management of menorrhagia

A

IUS
second line = tranexamic acid or mefenamic acid (better tolerated), COC
third line = progestogens like oral or injected, or oral norethisterone

in secondary care - a 3 or 4 month course of GnRH analogue (SC every 28 days) may be offered but if using >6m then add back therapy will be needed

surgery - hysterectomy if doesnt need uterus, or endometrial ablation if no desire for future fertility ideally >45 (is less effective <35 and although pregnancy is unlikely, it can be associated with life-threatening complications)

90
Q

classification of fibroids

A

intramural - within the uterine wall
submucosal - in the submucosa and protrude more into the uterine cavity - these may be pedunculated
subserosal - grow outwards from the uterus

91
Q

investigations for fibroids

A

pregnancy test
fbc for anaemia
pelvic/trans-vaginal us
endometrial sampling, MRI or hysteroscopy with biopsies if leiomyosarcoma is suspected
MRI may be done if myomectomy is being considered or if suspicious of adenomyosis or adenomyomas

92
Q

management of fibroids

A

medical - IUS, NSAIDs like ibuprofen or mefenamic acid taken 3x a day from first day of period until bleeding stops/mangeable level, tranexamic acid 3-4x a day for up to 4 days, COCP, GnRH agonist (max 6m), ulipristal acetate (only prescribe for occassional use if surgery/non-surgical procedures like UAE not suitable)

surgical
laparascopic myomectomy (+/- GnRH agonist before - goserelin injection) (2-3% recurrence rate)
uterine artery embolisation (via femoral - not so much surgery - not if pregnant)
hysteroscopy w myomectomy for removal for submucosa if closer to cevrix
endometrial ablation (for very small fibroids in womb lining)
hysterectomy

MRI-guided transcutaenous US is a new treatment

93
Q

types of endometrial hyperplasia

A

hyperplasia without atypia - risk of progression to carcinoma is <5% over 20 years

atypical hyperplasia - pre-malignant condition - 28% risk over 20 years

94
Q

investigations for endometrial hyperplasia

A

transvaginal US- >3-4mm then further investigations needed in postmenopausal women (in premenopausal is less useful due to cyclical changes but can be used to identify things like polyps)

pipelle biopsy - definitive diagnosis is with biopsy and histology

hysteroscopy and biopsy should be considered as a more accurate method of diagnosis

95
Q

management of endometrial hyperplasia

A

hyperplasia without atypia

address any risk factors e.g. hormonal medication like tamoxifen or obesity
in asymptomatic - watchful waiting as it may return to normal on its own
progesterone treatment is the usual management - IUS first line, second is continuous progesterone treatment for 6m (everyday)

with either; follow-up biopsies is an option -6montly until 2 are negative, then annually if higher risk e.g. BMI >35

hysterectomy option if women wishes, change to atypia, regression has not occured despite a year of progesterone treatment

with atypia

total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy in addition for postmenopausal women
women who wish to preserve fertility, progestogen options may be used as above, with regular monitoring by three-monthly endometrial biopsy, and advice to have a hysterectomy as soon as potential fertility is no longer required

96
Q

tubo-ovarian abscess - what is is and what does it result in

A

late manifestation of untreated PID
is a cause of secondary dysmenorrhea
can result in adhesions, tubal blockage and infertility

97
Q

causes of dysmenorrhea

A
endometriosis
adenomyosis
chronic PD
tubo-ovarian abscess 
IUD
fibroids
pelvic adhesions including Ashermann's syndrome where scar tissue forms due to trauma e.g. surgery to remove fibroids 
ovarian cysts
98
Q

dysmenorrhoea management

A

conservative - locally applied heat, tea (regular, chamomile or mint), massage, stop smoking, some evidence for TENS

medical
analgesia paritcuarly NSAIDs, mefenamic acid, COC, IUS, POP, people can become amenorrhoeic within a year of depo-provera

surgery - laproscopic uterine nerve ablation (LUNA) in refractory cases - insufficient evidence
hysterectomy

99
Q

management of endometriosis

A

analgesia like NSAIDs
hormonal treatment like COC, depo-provera, IUS, POP, implant - all same efficacy says NHS (by stopping ovulation you decrease the amount of endometrial thickening - help w cyclical pain but may not help w adhesion pain)
norethisterone
danazol - not used commonly due to androgenic SEs
GnRH for 6 m (cyclical pain stops w menopause - but can experience menopausal symptoms)
GnRH agonists for 3m can be used before surgery (induce a temporary menopause by decreasing oestrogen secretions)
surgery - ablation of endometrial lesions, adhesiolysis, ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas
hysterectomy last resort - ovaries removed at same time means less chance of it coming back but will require HRT if doing this (but may not work and is quite drastic)

infertility - with surgical methods above (endometrial cyst may cause infalmmation in ovary, adhesion may block egg) or IVF

NB periods will stop while taking goserelin

100
Q

management of adenomyosis

A
  • Can do nothing if symptoms are mild
  • Conservative options include yoga
  • Pain relief with NSAIDs if mild
  • Tranexamic acid and mefanamic acid can help bleeding and pain
  • Hormonal medications - IUS, COC, POP
  • GnRH agonists via injections - but only short term (SC injection every 28 days for max of 6m)
  • Danazol - but use is reduced due to androgenic side effects
  • Uterine artery embolisation– by reducing blood supply there is insufficient oxygen for the adenomyosis to grow and spread
  • Or endometrial ablation (only if completed childbearing)
    o Not used as much as although it reduces bleeding, not so much the pain
  • Hysterectomy is definitive treatment
    o Removal of ovaries as well is not necessary unless they also have endometriosis in which case removing ovaries means less chance of recurrence
101
Q

early vs premature menopause

A
early = before 45
premature = before 40
102
Q

how long are women fertilie for after menopause

A

one year if >50, 2 if <50

103
Q

symptoms of menopause

A
may start while still menstruating or not until more than a year after their last period 
night sweats
hot flushes
menstrual irregulatiry leading up to it 
dyspareunia
vaginal dryness
UTIs
urinary incontinece 
sleep disturbance 
mood changes- anxiety, irritability, difficulty concentrating 
loss of libido 
other - brittle nails, thinning of skin, hair loss, aches and pains
104
Q

investigations for menopause if in doubt

A

FSH >30iu/l
TFTs - thyroid symptoms may be confused with menopause
BMD if siginificant risk factors for osteoporosis

105
Q

management of menopause

A

conservative - lose weight to improve flushes, same with caffeine, light clothing

HRT helps with symptoms and bone loss

HRT alternatives
CBT for mood symptoms, SSRIs /clonidine/gabapentin for vasomotor symptoms (night sweats and hot flushes), SERMs e.g. tibolone (if period more than 1 year ago), herbal - oestrogen derivatives found in food like nuts, soy, wholegraines, oil of primrose for breast tenderness

106
Q

CI to HRT

A

current, past or suspected breast cancer
known or suspected oestrogen-sensitive cancer
past VTE - unless already on anticoagulant treatment
undiagnosed PV bleeding
raised LFTs - any active liver disease
untreated HTN
pregnancy
be cautious with - fibroids, migraines, epilepsy, endometriosis, starting >60, FHx breast cancer

107
Q

risks of HRT

A

VTE - 2/3x baseline risk
ischaemic stroke
oestrogen alone increases risk of endometrial cancer so only given to those without uterus
breast cancer with combined only (1 extra case per 1000)
increased risk of IHD if taken more than 10 years after menopause

108
Q

HRT preperations

A

oral
patch - preferred if bowel disorder than affects absorption or lactose sensitivity - do not increase clot risk - placed on thigh - oestrogen only or combined
gel - same reasons as patch - but only comes in oestrogen so need to take additional pill if wanting progesterone as welll
HRT implant into abdomen or an IUS - reserved for those where nothing else has worked - oestradiol has to be monitored to avoid tachyphylaxis
vaginal oestrogen cream if only problem is dryness - can use even if still have womb as does not carry extra risks
testosterone gel for libido if not improving with HRT alone

109
Q

who can you give oestrogen only HRT to

A

wihtout a uterus
o BUT if ovaries are removed as well, may also want to consider giving testosterone to bring up sex drive
o BUT if subtotal – got to check there is no endometrial tissue left around cervical stump – so do 2 progesterone challenges – bleeding after this means positive and needs combined, no bleeding is negative and means is ok for oestrogen only

110
Q

types of combined HRT preparations

A

sequential aka cyclical - LMP within 1 year - gives a monthly bleed - monthly (take on last 14 days of cycle) or 3 monthly regimens available

continuous - LMP >1 year or >54 years - gives no period - takes every day without a break

111
Q

side effects of HRT

A
fluid retention 
bloating 
breast tenderness
leg cramps
headaches
vaginal bleeding - breakthrough - continuous combined, <6m
indigestion 
cancers - encourage self examination of breasts and attendance of screening with combined

usually all transient – usually settle within 3-4 months – if not change preparation or dose

112
Q

when to stop HRT

A

trial withdrawal should be suggested with asymptomatic for 1-2 years or been on HRT >5 years

comes down to

  • Patient choice
  • No arbitrary time limit
  • Main issue with combined HRT is the breast cancer risk
113
Q

time until effective - COC

A
  • If you start on the 1st day of the period up to and including the 5th day then you are protected straight away
  • If on any other day, 7 days condoms
114
Q

cancers increased in COC

A

cervical

breast

115
Q

2 missed COC pills or start new pack 2 days late

A

take last pill you missed now
use extra contraception for 7 days
you may also need EC if you have missed 2 or more pills in the first week of a pack and had unprotected sex in the previous 7 days

  • If there are 7 or more pills left in the pack after the last missed pill – finish the pack, take your 7-day pill-free break as normal
  • If there are less than 7 pills left in the pack after the missed pill – finish the pack and start a new pack the next day; this means missing out the pill-free break
116
Q

time until effective POP

A
  • Taken during first 5 days of period, will work straight away
  • If not, then need additional contraception for 2 days
117
Q

missed POP pill

A
  • <3 or <12 hours - take now then take next pill at usual time
  • If >3 hours or >12 hours - take a pill asap - only take 1 (even if you have missed more than 1)
  • Then take next pill at normal time (this may mean taking 2 on the same day)
  • Need extra contraception for next 2 days, or do not have sex
  • If you have unprotected sex from the time that you miss your pill until 2 days after you start taking it reliably again, you may need emergency contraception
118
Q

types of progesterone injection

A

IM dep-provera - 12 weekly
SC sayana-press - 13 weekly
IM noristerate - 8 weekly max of 2 injections so only for short-term use e.g. waiting until their partners vasectomy is effective

119
Q

time until injection effective

A

if during first 5 days fine

if not then extra contraception for 7 days

120
Q

disadvantages of progesterone injection

A

delay in return of fertility - up to 1 year
menstrual irregularity - nearly half with be amenorrhoeric at 1 year
decreased bone mineral density - will recover once injections are stopped
weight gain - up to 3kg in one year
small hormonal side effects like COCP

121
Q

IUS time until effective

A

if fitted in first 7 days then protected

any other time need 7 days of protection

122
Q

IUD time until effective

A

instant

123
Q

when can the IUD be used for emergency contraception

A

up to 5 days after sex OR up to 5 days after the earliest time you have ovulated (even if the UPSI was then >5 days ago)

e.g. if UPSI occured 7 days ago and ovulation was 3 days ago then can be used

124
Q

when can ellone be used for EC

A

up to ovulation and 5 days after UPSI

125
Q

when can levonelle be used for EC

A

within >48 hours before ovulation and within 72 hours of UPSI

126
Q

threatened miscarriage vs inetiable miscarriage

A

threatened - bleeding and abominal pain but pregnancy still continues with fetal hr present, cervical os is closed and theres a fetal heartbeat. 25% will go on to have a miscarriage (not very much bleeding)

inevtiable - cervical os is open and fetal hr present - will lead to an incomplete or complete miscarriage (heavy bleeding) (if US - fetal heartbeat may be present but a miscarriage is a bout to occu - unlike incomplete where no heartbeat usually)

127
Q

missed vs incomplete vs complete miscarrage

A

missed = fetus dead but retained and os is closed - suspect a missed miscarriage in pregnant women who do not have bleeding or pain but have resolving symptoms of pregnancy (often no bleeding at all)

incomplete = partially expelled products of conception, os is open - some products still retained (bleeding still ongoing)

complete = os is closed, US shows empty uterus

128
Q

differentials for bleeding in early pregnancy

A

miscarriage
ectopic
implantation bleed - light bleeding or spotting that occurs between 7 and 14 days after fertilisation
cervical polyp or ectropion
gestational trophoblastic disease - most develop bleeding in first trimester and undergo uterine evacuation at about 10w

129
Q

investigations to confirm a miscarriage

NB risk increases with age - 10% in 20s to 50% in 40s
other risk factors = infection, multiple preg, assissted conception, fibroids, uncontrolled diabetes

A

transvaginal ultrasound - if empty then either is an ectopic, too early to see or a complete miscarriage (if CRL <7mm and mean sac diameter <25 then could just be too early)
but if a woman has had a previous scan confirmed pregnancy and is now empty - miscarriage is confirmed

serum hCG if PUL on US - two tests taken 48 hours apart
• ≥63% increase suggests ongoing intrauterine pregnancy (rescan in 7-14 days to determine location - ectopic isn’t necessarily ruled out yet)
• Fall by >50% indicates failing pregnancy and potential miscarriage (should do pregnancy test 14 days later and return if positive)
• Fall <50% OR fail to rise >63% should be reviewed in EPAU to exclude ectopic

rare causes of raised hCG should also be consdiered like gestational trophoblastic disease or germ cell tumour

if woman is <6w, bleeding but no pain can also consider expectant - tell her to repeat pregnany test in 7-10 days and return if postive or symptoms worsen

130
Q

miscarriage management

A

complete - just support

incomplete, inevitable or missed
expectant - allow miscarriage to progress naturally - cant do this if increased risk of haemorrhage (e.g. pregnancy in late first trimester or coagulopathy) or has infection - should complete in 2w and in most cases resorption of fetal tissue occurs without much bleeding but this can vary, then take preg test in 21 days - if still positive then medical or surgical (saftey net - any unusal signs of infection like discharge)

medical - misoprostol pessary or oral - then preg test in 21 days - can take 2-8w to resolve - can be more pain and bleeding than surgical but advantage is avoids GA
w analgesia and antiemetics

surgical - manual vacuum aspiraton under LA or surgically under GA - always done if haemodynamic compromise or suspected molar or GTD - offer anti-D if Rh negative - risk is uterine perforation or asherman’s

once miscarriage occurs, recomened to send products to lab to rule out ectopic (choiroinc vili present) and molar

131
Q

investgiations for recurrent miscarriage

A

endocrine - TFTs, HbA1c, and investigate for PCOS
antiphospholipid antibodies
inherited thrombophilia screen - factor V leiden, prothrombin/protein s/protein c mutation
USS of uterus - fibroidsm malformed uterus, e.g. bicorunate
hysteroscopy for ashermans
karyotype woman and partner
kartotype products of conception

132
Q

managemnet of antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent recurrent miscarriages

A

usually is warfarin but women will be switched to heparin while trying to conceive

then heparin with low-dose aspirin during pregnancy

133
Q

ranges within gestational trophoblastic disease

A

ranges from molar pregnancies (benign) to malignant conditions like choriocarcinoma

premalignant = hydratiform mole

  • complete hydatiform mole
  • partial hydatiform mole

malignant

  • invasive mole - a complete mole that has invaded the myometrium
  • choriocarcinoma - can metastasise to lungs - most often follows a molar pregnany which is why is important to monitor these pregnanies
  • placental site throphoblastic trumour
  • epithelioid trophoblastic tuomur
134
Q

what makes a complete vs partial molar pregnancy

A

complete = all comes from father - 46 chromosomes - 2 sperm fertilising empty ovum - will be no fetal tissue - 15% go on to develop persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

partial = 2 sperm fetilise one ovum - 69 chromosomes - usually evidence of fetal tissue and embryo may be present at start - 0.5% go on to deveop persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

135
Q

features of molar pregnancy

A

bleeding in first trimester +/- abdominal pain
may end on its own by a miscarriage
hyperemsis
abnormal uterine enlargement (larger with soft, boggy consistency)
hyperthyroidism - due to the high hCG (similar shaped to TSH)
anaemia
respiratory distress
pre-eclampsia

136
Q

investigations for molar pregnancy

A

urine and blood hCG - excessively high
US - complete looks like bunch of grapes or snowstorm - partial may be viable with signs of early growth restriction
histology from conception for definitive

suspicion of metastatic = pelvic US, CT, MRI

137
Q

management of molar pregnancy

A

complete - surgical evacuation via suction curettage by experienced surgeon
oxytocin may be required alongisde due to haemorrhage risk but is associated with risk of tissue dissemination leading to metastasis so should be avoided until uterus is evacuated if possible
chemotherapy may be required after evacuation if hCG level does not fall (is measured fortnightly) - risk of requiring chemo is 15% after complete and 0.5% after a partial

partial - surgical evacuation unless v small and can do medical
chemotherapy may be required after evacuation if hCG level does not fall

persistant gestational trophoblastic disease - chemotherapy +/- surgery

hCG levels should be checked at 6w and 10w after each subsequent preg

following a normal hcg on the fortnightly tests, urine hCG is requested at 4-weekly intervals until 1yr post-evacuation, then every 3mths in the 2nd year of follow-up
usually you will be advised not to become pregnant until your hCG tests have been normal for six months after a molar pregnancy, and for a year after finishing chemotherapy

Indications for chemo

  • Serum hCG levels >20 000IU/L at 4wks after uterine evacuation
  • Static or rising hCG after uterine evacuation in absence of new pregnancy
  • Persistent symptoms, e.g. uterine bleeding and/or abdominal pain
  • Evidence of metastases
  • Histological diagnosis of choriocarcinoma
138
Q

when do ectopic pregnancies present

A

6-8 weeks after last normal period

139
Q

diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy

A

abdominal exam - if pain then admit to EPAU, if not then pelvic
pelvic exam - if cervical motion tenderness or pelvic tenderness admit to EPAU, if none and >6w pregnant then refer to EPAU
if no pain or anything and <6w pregnant then do expectant and advise to repeat test in 7-10 days then return if positive

pregnancy test positive, do urine dip to rule out UTI, bloods include FBC, crossmatch, G+S if thinking rupture

transvaginal US - if too small can look for free fluid in pouch of douglas or adnexae
serum hCG - >63% suggests ongoing (rescan in 7-14 days), fall by 50% indicates failing + miscarriage (redo preg test 14 days later), fall <50% to rise <63% could mean ectopic and need clinical review

140
Q

management of ectopic pregnancy

A

expectant - stable, asymptomatic/minimal symptoms, hCG <1500 IU, no fetal activity on TV USS, mass <35mm, willingness to attend for follow-up
requires serum hCG every 48 hours until repeated fall then weekly until less than 15IU

medical - stable, minimal symptoms, hCG <1500IU, no fetal cardiac activity on TV USS, mass <35mm, willingness to attend follow-up
methotrexate IM as a single dose
hCG levels should be measured at 4 and 7 days post-methotrexate and another dose can be given if drop is <15%
they will need reliable contraception for 3-6m after due to teratogenicity

surgical - significant pain, adnexal pain >35mm, fetal heartbeat on US, hCG >5000IU/L, unable to return follow-up
laparoscopy is preferred (laparatomy may be done if particulary unstable)
laparascopic salpingectomy is commonest, if other tube not ok then salpingotomy

anti-D should be given if Rh negative to those that have had surgery

if haemodynamically unstable then 2 large bore IV lines and fluids, crossmatch 6u of blood then emergency laparotomy once resuscitated

141
Q

how long to wait until investigating for not being able to get pregnant

A

not concieved within 1 year
can offer earlier referral for consultation to discuss other options where >35 years or where there is a known clinical cause of infertility

nice advise a couple to try for a total of 2 years (which can include up to 1 year before their fertility investigations) before IVF will be considered

142
Q

everyday things that can affect fertility

A

atypical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine can increase prolactin levels
NSAID use is associated with luteinized unruptured follicle syndrome
antidepressants and erectile dysfunction
smoking, drugs, obesity
chemotherapy
surgery and radiotherapy to pelvic area
systemic disease can interfere with the hypothalamic-pituitary axis - SLE or rhumatoid, CKD, DM, anorexia
mumps in men

143
Q

causes of female infertility

in infertility station - ask about symptoms of galactorrhoea, hirsutism, weight changes, temperature, hair loss, excessive tiredness, feeling cold when others are not

A

hypothalmic amenorrhoea - low BMI, excessive, kallman’s syndrome
pituitary tumours
sheehan’s syndrome
hyperprolactinaemia - high prolactin inhibits GnRH
PCOS
premature ovarian failure - idiopathic, chemo, autoimmune
turner’s
testicular feminisation syndrome
damage to tubes due to pid/infection
significant distortion of uterine cavity by fibroids or adhesions
endometrioris causing tubal infertiliy
problems with cervical mucus - hostility to sperm

144
Q

investigations for female infertiliy

A

exam for signs of PCOS, bimanual for PID
mid-luteal progesterone to assess if ovulation occurs as it is produced by corpus luteum so must have ovulated - done 7 days after ovulation/7 days before next anticipated period (<3ng/ml means no ovulation, if normal then points to fallopian tube obstruction or uterine abnormality - can repeat if low - may have not ovulated that month)
FSH and LH - high suggests poor ovarian function and low suggests central
testosterone for pcos
prolactin
US genital tract for abnormalities
HSG for tubal patency (or laparascopy with dye test if cormorbdities like PID or endometriosis) - must do sti check beforehand
ovarian reserve testing with total antral follicle count via US, AMH level (high means more reserve), FSH level on day 2-5 (high if fewer follicles)

145
Q

causes of male infertilty

in infertility station - ask about symptoms of galactorrhoea, hirsutism, weight changes, temperature, hair loss, excessive tiredness, feeling cold when others are not

A

high prolactin
pituitary tumour
kallman syndrome
hypothalamic - head trauma, radiation
testicular - cryptochidism, varicoele, tumours, trauma, orchitis, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, Kleinfelter’s
problems with genital tract - CF (absence of vas), previous STI thats caused scarring, damage from trauma, surgery or cancer, ejaculatory dysfunction, retrograde ejection

146
Q

investigations for male infertility

in infertility station - ask about symptoms of galactorrhoea, hirsutism, weight changes, temperature, hair loss, excessive tiredness, feeling cold when others are not

A

examine - look for presence of varicoele, epididymal thickening, scrotal swelling
semen analysis (repeated 3m later if abnormal to complete one cycle of spermatozoa, but repeat asap if gross deficiency) (need 3 days of abstinence before)
FSH and LH - low is central, high in testicular abnormalities like kleinfelters, crytochidism, normal is ejaculatory dysfunction and retrograde ejaculation
testosterone
prolactin
genetic testing for kleinfelts
US genital tract
testicular biopsy to see if sperm present in men with non-obstructive azoospermia - these can then be used in treatment

147
Q

teratozoospermic

A

low sperm morphology - <4% of sperm with normal morphology

148
Q

cryptozoospermia

A

so few sperm in the ejaculate that they are identified only after concentration and centrifugation

149
Q

management of male infertility

A

obstructive azoospermia - end to end anastomosis or surgical sperm retrieval

non-obstructive azoospermia - ICSI (selects sperm w best morphology and motility then injects it directly into an egg), donor sperm, if secondary to central cause than gonadotropins (hCG IM or recombinant FSH), varicocelectomy, microTESE (microsurgical testicular sperm extraction - done under GA, sample is taken from testes) or ICSI for Kleinfelters with genetic counselling beforehand

motility issues - ICSI or can do intra-uterine insemination where high-quality sperm are injected into uterus but unclear as to whether this is any better than normal intercourse

central - hCG via IM or gonadotrophins like recominant FSH

prolactinoma - cabergoline or bromocriptine (all other benign tumours should be removed by transphenoidal resection)

retrograde ejaculation - sympathomimetic meds that close bladder neck or ICSI/IVF

150
Q

management of female infertiliy

In polycystic ovary syndrome, abnormal hormone levels prevent follicles from growing and maturing to release egg cells. Instead, these immature follicles accumulate in the ovaries. Affected women can have 12 or more of these follicles

A

central - avoid excessive exercie/normal BMI, hCG via IM or gonadotrophins like recominant FSH

prolactinoma - cabergoline or bromocriptine (all other benign tumours should be removed by transphenoidal resection)

PCOS - weight loss, then clomiphene (encourages ovulation), then ovarian induction with gonadotrophins (recombinant FSH and hCG - but mighter risk of multiple pregnancies), laparascopic ovarian drilling by laser or diathermy (destroyes the tissue that is producing androgens and has been found to increase fsh levels)
metofrmin can be used to lower blood sugar levels in pcos which may help - used off liscense in uk
letrozole can also be used instead of clomiphene off label

ovarian failure - donor eggs

tubal - surgery can be considered for adhesiolysis or salpingotomy, IVF if not

151
Q

how are ovaries stimulated

A

suppress pituitary with GnRH agonist or antagonist
then give clomiphene to suppress natural oestrogen release and therefore neg feedback on the pituitary
FSH will then increase (or exogenous FSH can also be given)
this will increase number of mature follicles
ovulation can be triggered 36 hours prior to egg harvesting via hCG

152
Q

what is gamete intrafollipian transfer (GIFT) vs ZIFT

A

egg and sperm put back into the fallopian tube via laparascopy but not fertilised yet, needs more eggs so higher risk of mlutiple = GIFT - e.g. if couple has religious reasons about not wanting to have fertilisation done outside of the body

mix egg and sperm then inject fertilised egg back into the fallopian tube via laparascopy = ZIFT

e.g. used in unexplained infertility after trying IUI

153
Q

relationship between tamoxifen and taking a biopsy with endometrial hyperplasia

A

even if <4mm - if the patient has taken tamoxifen in the last year then this is an indication for biopsy due to it increasing the risk of endometrial cancer

154
Q

investigations for endometrial cancer

A

speculum to rule out other causes of PMB
TVUS - 4mm or around that as cut off for biopsy
pipelle biopsy via vagina
or hysteroscopy and biopsy (some women may require GA for this)
or can do hysteroscopy with dilation and curettage under GA
CT for staging in those with suspected advanced disease

155
Q

management of endometrial cancer

TVUS >4mm, then pipelle or hysteroscopy and biopy or hysterosocpy w dilation and curettage under ga
CT for staging

A

2 week wait referral for >55 with PMB
stage 1 - total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (if wish to preserve fertility then can be hormonal treatment with progestogens)
stage 2- total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with pelvic node clearance
stage 3 and 4 - maximal debulking surgery with radiation and chemo

other
o Unfit for surgery - options include vaginal hysterectomy (regional anaesthesia), pelvic radiotherapy or hormonal therapy with progestogens or aromatase inhibitors
o Chemoradiotherapy - may be combined with surgery - can be given before to shrink - options dependent on stage, grade and risk of recurrence
o New immunotherapies and biological therapies

156
Q

commonest symptoms of cervical cancer

A

vaginal discharge
post-coital bleeding
intermenstrual bleeding

late signs = haematuria, PR bleeding, urinary/bowel symptoms, dyspareunia

signs on examination = unusual appearance of cervix on speculum, or bulky masses on bimanual PV

157
Q

investigations for cervical cancer

A
bloods - FBC, UE, LFTs
diagnosed via biopsy at colposcopy 
STI screening may be done prior to this to rule out cervicitis 
staging via CT, PET, CXR, cystoscopy etc
pelvic lymph node sampling
158
Q

management of cervical cancer

A
  • 1A1
    o Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) or cone biopsy - simple hysterectomy can also be considered particularly if preserving fertility is not an issue
  • IA2 - IIA (early-stage disease)
    o <4cm - gold standard is radical hysterectomy +/- lymph node clearance
    o >4cm - chemoradiation is preferred
    o If wanting to preserve fertility
    • Depending on stage, a cone biopsy with negative margins or local excision can be performed
    • Or depending on exact staging and growth, cervicectomy (aka trachelectomy)
  • IIB - IVA (locally advanced disease)
    o Chemoradiation is first line
  • IVB (metastatic)
    o Combination chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
    o Alternatively, single agent therapy and palliative care may be suitable
159
Q

how is cervical screening performed

A

done using liquid based cytology from the squamocolumnar junction (junction of ectocervix and endocervix) (theres a move away from pap testing where the sample is smeared on a slide)
HPV status and dyskaryosis status are both tested during screening

160
Q

age group for cervical screening

A

25-49 every 3 years, then 50-64 every 5 years

women >65 are invited if one of 3 recent cervical cytology samples is abnormal or if they have not had a test since 50 and request one

women who are HIV positive should be screened annually due to them being at increased risk of CIN

if pregnant - wait until 12 weeks post partum

161
Q

outcomes of cervical screenin g

A

borderline/low grade changes - only if HPV positive

mild dyskaryosis = grade 1 CIN - only if HPV positive

moderate dyskaryosis = grade 2 CIN - colposcopy - will be seen quicker within 2w rather than a month

severe dyskaryosis = grade 3 CIN - colposcopy

negative follow up as normal

indadequate - repeat sample in 3 months

if HPV positive but cytologically normal, repeat in 12 months (keep doing this until 3rd test then coloposcopy if still HPV positive)

162
Q

how is colposcopy performed

A
  • Speculum is inserted then a microscope is used to look at cervix
  • The cervix is cleaned with acetic acid followed by iodine to identify the abnormal areas (will stain them yellow)
  • Abnormal cells in the cervix that are identified at colposcopy are removed by large loop excision of the transformation zone

in some cases treatment like diathermy, laser therapy or larger excision may be undertaken but this will generally only be after discussion of biopsy results

whole things takes 20 mins
fine to return to work same day - warn of small amount of blood of discharge
bring pad - avoid sex and tamponds until bleeding stops

biospy results usulaly avaible in a week

may be an association between treatment of the cervic and preterm labouir

163
Q

treatment of CIN

A

done at same time as colposcopy but may have to wait for biopsy results (colposcopy doesnt hurt but may cause cramping - take pain killer 30mins before and bring pad to wear after in case of bleeding)

most common treatment is large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) with a thin heated (with electric current) wire loop – LA is injected into cervix first
cone biopsy is done less – a cone-shaped piece of tissue is cut out – done if a large area of tissue needs to be removed. Cannot be done at same time as colposcopy - done under GA

other treatments include cryotherapy (only used to treat minor cell changes), laser treatment, cold coagulation, hysterectomy (if abnormal cells found more than once and dont want children)

after treatment - another screening test 6m later - if HPV or cytology changes found then another colposcopy

NB after a cone biopsy - generally wont affect fertility however there is a small chance or miscarriage and preterm labour (and a small chance that there will be cervical stenosis in which case sperm wont be able to get through)

164
Q

subtotoal vs total hysterectomy

A

total = removes cervix

165
Q

RMI for ovarian cancer

A

US score (number of findings on scan) x menopausal score (1= premenopausal, 3 = post) x Ca 125

166
Q

investigations for ovarian cancer

A

two-week wait referral is recommended in any woman with ascites ± pelvic mass that is not obviously fibroids
baseline investigations - urine pregnancy test (exclude ectopic and uterine pregnancy as a cause of symptoms), FBC
CA125 - >35 then arrange pevlic and abdominal US
then consider CT of pelvis and abdomen if US is suggestive
then do RMI (risk malignancy index)
if RMI >200-250 then refer to MDT for laparotomy

in women <40 measure AFP and hCG as well to exclude rarer tumours

can also consider doing AFP, CA19-9 and CEA

final diagnosis is often obtained during surgery after appropriate MDT discussion. In cases where cytotoxic chemotherapy is proposed prior to surgery a histological sample is normally attained before treatment is commenced. This is ideally by percutaneous image-guided biopsy

167
Q

management of ovarian cancer

A

standard - surgery followed by chemo - surgery is via midline incision with goal to remove as much as possible - will usually involve a hysterectomy, removal of both ovaries and fallopian tubes and the omentum

the chemotherapy after surgery isn’t necessarily required for very early stages

at earlier stages there can be discussion of fertility preserving surgery but this has risks associated

in advanced, may also have neoadjuvant chemo

radiotehrapy for palliative

168
Q

investigatinos for ovarian cysts

the vast majortiy of ovarian cysts are benign and may not need treatment and go away on their own
folliciluar cyst is the commonest type

syptmos - dull ache in abdo or back (may be intermittent or only w sex)
cyclical pain suggests chocolate cysts
palpable mass
pressure effects on bladder or bowel
ascites - meig’s syndorme (ovarian tumour, ascites and effusion)

A

pregnancy test
FBC - infection, haemorrhage
US - simple vs complex (simple is fluid only, complex can be irregular and contain solid material, blood or have separations or vascularity)
CA-125 - be aware it can be rasied in endometriosis, diverticulosis, liver cirrhosis, menstruation and pregnancy - it does not need to be done in premenopausal women who US shows simple cyst
LDH, AFP and hCG for germ cell tumours
calculate RMI - >200 = high risk and shoudl be discussed for staging laparotomy, 25-200 - do MRI to further evaluate
CT and MRI if US not definitive
diagnostic laparoscopy or fine-needle aspiration cytology may be used to gain histological evidence that a mass or cyst is benign

BUT - RCOG said that aspiration of the cyst is associated with a high rate of recurrence and increased spillage into the peritoneal cavity, which may disseminate possible malignant cells
- Therefore cystectomy may be preferred over aspiration

169
Q

meig’s syndrome

A

triad of ovarian tumour, ascites and pleural effusion

170
Q

mangement of ovarian cysts

A

<5cm and without complications, follow up not required as is likely physiological and almost always resolves in 3 menstrual cycles

if >5cm then observe with annual US to monitor for possible malignany

if the cyst persists, or enlarges, either further imaging (MRI) or surgery is recommended if the cyst is >70mm or symptomatic
o In children and younger women wishing to preserve maximum fertility, cystectomy may be preferable to oophorectomy

171
Q

investigations + management of complication of ovarian cysts (torsion, rupture, haemorrhage)

A

A-E
cannulate, take bloods including FBC and G+S
fluids as needed
pregnancy test to exclude ruptured ectopic
pelvic or transvaginal US
(can do doppler for torsion - however doppler flow isnt always even absent in torsion)
CT or MRI if diagnostic uncertainty

immediate surgical intervention = usually laparascopically with uncoiling and oophoropexy for torsion
and removal of the cyst
salpingo-oophorectomy may be indicated if severe vascular compromise, peritonitis or tissue necrosis
in cyst rupture, IV broad spectrum antibiotics

172
Q

how long do you give inflation breaths over

A

5 inflation breaths over 30 seconds

173
Q

rate of ventilation breaths

A

30-40 per minute (1-2 seconds each)

(after your 5 inflation breahts, if HR increases but baby does not breath then you would now do your ventilation breaths until it breaths by itself)

174
Q

when to start compressions in neonatal rescitation

A
  • If the heart rate remains slow (less than 60 beats per minute) or absent following 5 inflation breaths, despite good passive chest movement in response to your inflation efforts, start chest compression
  • Give 3 compressions to one inflation breath
175
Q

APGAR meaning

A

appearance - colour
pulse - >100 scores 2 points
grimace/reflex irritability in response to a pinch
activity - muscle tone
respiration - absent, weak or strong cry

7-10 is normal
<3 is critically low

is taken 1 and 5 minutes after birth

176
Q

timing of heel prick test

A

5-8 days

177
Q

timing and types of hearing test for neonates

A

4-5 weeks

automated otoacoustic emission - probe in the ear that emits clicks and acoustic energy will be produced in response if the cholcea is normal (detects echoes)

automated auditory brainstem response - done if the baby doesn’t have a clear repsonse to the first - uses electrodes to detect brainstem responses

babies who have spent more than 48 hours in a Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU) or Special Care Baby Unit (SCBU) are regarded as high-risk and are screened using both AOAE and AABR tests

178
Q

SGA baby define

A

birth weight <10th centile or 2 standard deviations from norm

(whereas IUGR described baby that hasn’t reached its growth potential due to genetic or environmental factors)

179
Q

risk factors for SGA

A
-	Minor risk factors
o	Maternal age ≥35 years
o	IVF singleton pregnancy
o	Nulliparity
o	BMI <20.
o	BMI 25-34.9
o	Smoker - 1-10 cigarettes per day
o	Low fruit intake pre-pregnancy
o	Pregnancy interval <6 months
o	Pregnancy interval ≥60 months
-	Major risk factors
o	Maternal age >40 years
o	Smoker - ≥11 cigarettes per day
o	Paternal or maternal SGA
o	Cocaine use
o	Daily vigorous exercise
o	Previous SGA baby
o	Previous stillbirth
o	Chronic hypertension
o	Diabetes with vascular disease
o	Renal impairment
o	Antiphospholipid syndrome
o	Heavy bleeding similar to menses
o	Pregnancy associated plasm protein-A (PAPP-A) <0.4 multiples of the median (MOM)
180
Q

investigations for SGA

A

plot symphysis fundal height

if <10th centile then can do US for fetal size

or women with major risk factor should have serial US and umbilical artery doppler from 26-28 weeks

women with 3 or minor risk facotrs should have uterine artery doppler at 20-24w - if this is abnormal (pulsitility index >95th centile) – should be referred for serial US measurement of fetal size with umbilical artery Doppler at 26-28 weeks

where uterine artery doppler shows reversal or absent diastolic flow, delivery of fetus is indicated

can do karyotyping is detected before 23 weeks

181
Q

some causes of IUGR

A

placenatal most common - pre-eclampsia, abruption, accreta, previa

maternal - malnutrition, low BMI, substance abuse, chronic disease, hypertensive disease, anti-phospholipid syndrome, extremes of ages

fetal - chromosomal abnormalities, congenital abnormalities, congenital infections, multiple pregnancy

182
Q

3 types of IUGR

A

symmetrical - mostly due to chromosomal abnormalities

asymmetrical - cause of IUGR later in pregnancy, most often placental insufficiency, head circumference will be normal - but abdominal circumference will be decreased

mixed - when early IUGR is affected further by placental causes in late pregnancy

183
Q

scanning when at risk of IUGR

A

every 2 weeks from 28w gestation to asses fetal head circumference, liquor volume (oligohydramnios occurs in IUGR as there is shunting of blood to the head to protect the developing brain. This deceases renal perfusion, lowering urine output)
uterine artery doppler- where this shows reversal or absent diastolic flow, delivery of fetus is indicated

184
Q

when is meconium aspiration seen vs transient tachypnoea of newborn vs newborn respiratory distress syndrome

A

meconium aspiration usually seen in term or post term - will see patchy infiltrations and atelectasis on cxr

transient tachypnoea usually seen in term or near term infants usually after a c section (as is due to delay in resorption of lung fluid, thought to be due to decreased levels of catecholamines from c section) - resolves fully within first day of life - HF type patten on CXR (interstital oedema and pleural effusions - but normal size heart which distinguishes it from heart issue)

NRDS in premature - respiratory distress which worsens over next few days - diffuse ground glass lung with low volumes on CXR

185
Q

causes of neonatal seizures

A

most common = HIE (hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy) - presents in first 24 hours with fetal distress, need for resuscitation at birth and decrease coscious level

group b strep and e coli are commonest infective causes and present from end of 1st week onwards

cerebral infarction often presents with focal seizures at 24-72 hours in an otherwise well infant

remember IUGR babies are at risk of hypoglycaemia

materanl substance abuse = neonatal abstinence syndrome

benign neonatal sleep myoclonus – presents from 5 days with myoclonic jerks only during sleep

186
Q

management of neonatal seizure

A
  • Monitor breathing – may be compromised during seizures and following anticonvulsant administration
  • Start an anticonvulsant if there are: prolonged desaturations, haemodynamic instability, seizure lasting >5 minutes, or brief but frequent seizures >3 per hour
    o First- line: phenobarbital ‘full’ loading dose (20 mg/ kg IV)
  • Commence antibiotics and add aciclovir if there is any suspicion of herpes infection (maternal infection, rash, abnormal LFTs)
187
Q

management of ttn

A
  • Observation – if symptoms are related to TTN they will improve within mins-hours (whereas if due to pneumonia for example will get worse)
  • Additional oxygen may be required
188
Q

cause of meconium aspiration

A

usually secondary to fetal hypoxia which causes increased peristalsis, relaxation of anal sphincters and reflex gasping

so is a sign of fetal distress

189
Q

management of meconium aspiration

A

observation over 12 hours
therapeutic interventions include airway suctioning, oxygen delivery, ventilatory support
surfactant replacement can be beneficial as meconium will deactivate the actvity of rsurfactant causing a rise in surface tension
antibiotics if suspicious of infection
prevent hypothermia with incubator if needed (hypothermia inhibits surfactant production)
continuous monitoring

serum electrolytes should be measured in babies with MAS because perinatal stress can lead to inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion syndrome and acute kidney injury

resp distress usually subsides in 2-4 days

190
Q

management of respiratory distress syndrome

A

manage in NICU

surfactant replacement therapy given via endotracheal tube

oxygen via a hood

supportive therapy including presvention of hypothermia (may need incubator), IV nutrition

antibiotics after obtaining cultures - discontinue after 3-5 days if cultures are negatiev

191
Q

antibiotic for group b strep prophylaxis

A

benzypenicillin

  • Maternal IV antibiotic prophylaxis should also be offered to women in preterm labour regardless of their GBS status
192
Q

when is neonatal jaundice pathological

A
if develops before 24 hours 
or if conjugated
or if unconjugated and lasts >14 days 
or symptomatic 
or raised >220
193
Q

causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

breast milk jaundice - after 7-10 days due to substances in breast milk - should keep breastfeeind regardless
breastfeeding jaundice - presents within first 7 days - due to insufficient feeding - decreased milk volume slows down GIT
infection
haemolytic anaemia
hypothyroidism
gilbert’s
cephalohaematoma

usually not a problem, but unconjugated bilirubin is fat soluble and can cross BBB –> kernicterus

194
Q

causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

liver disease leading to cholestasis

o Bile duct obstruction e.g. biliary atresia, choledochal cyst
o Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
o Galactosaemia
o Cystic fibrosis
o Neonatal hepatitis syndrome
o Intrahepatic biliary hypoplasia e.g. Alagille syndrome, Down syndrome

195
Q

investigations for neonatal jaundice

A

transcutaneous bilirubinometer if >24 hours old and >35 weeks gestation
serum if <24 hours or <35w or if transcutaenous was high at >250
total and conjugated levels to decide if conjugated or not
haemoglobin levels = if llow could be a collection outside vessels like cephalohaematoma
LFTs for cholestatis or liver disease
infection screen for TORCH
look for sources of infection
investigate for haemolysis - reticulocyte count, LDH, direct Coomb’s (see if mothers antibodies are attacking baby’s RBCs due to Rh or ABO incompatibility), blood film and red cell enzyme assay, electrophoresis
US, HIDA scan for cholestatic jaundice like biliary atresia

196
Q

management of neonatal jaundice

differentials include - hypothyridism, haemolytic anaemia

A
  • Infants with jaundice will have their bilirubin levels plotted on a graph against age since birth, with adjustment for prematurity. The graph has two lines, marking treatment threshold
  • The lower line is the threshold for treatment with phototherapy (stop once >50 below treatment lines, recheck in 12-18 hours after stopping)
  • The higher line is the threshold for treatment with exchange transfusion
  • if below both lines - >50 below do nothing, <50 below then repeat level in 18-24 hours depending if baby has risk factors present or not

IV immunoglobulin can be used as an adjunct to phototherapy in Rh or ABO haemollytic disease

197
Q

when should anti-D prophylaxis be given to rh negative women that have not already been sensitised

A

as two doses of anti-D immunoglobulin of at least 500 IU at 28 and 34 weeks or as a large single dose of 1500 IU at 28 weeks’ gestation

198
Q

management of breast milk jaundice - prsents in first 2 weeks of life and can persist for as long as 12 weeks

can be diagnosed in a healthy thriving infant w food weight gain where haemolysis has been ruled out

A

this is the commonest form of prolonged jaundice in term infants *uncongjugated
benign process
no real identifiable cause and is relatively common
up to 10% of breast-fed infants can remain jaundiced up to one month of age
treatment depends on bilirubin levels and may include increasing number of feeds per day, interrupting feeds w formula solution or even phototherapy

199
Q

placentra previa on exam

A

soft uterus

abnormal lie

200
Q

typical age of presentation for fibroids

A

30-50

201
Q

tranexamic vs mefenamic acid

A
Tranexamic acid (anti-fibrinolytic) – ~50% reduction in blood loss and is used during or just before the period. Particularly effective in fibroids. 3-4x a day for up to 4 days
Mefenamic acid (NSAID) – ~30% reduction in blood loss, particularly useful if dysmenorrhoea is also present. take 3x a day from first day of period until it stops/is mangeable
202
Q

norethisterone

A

You’ll usually be prescribed 3 norethisterone tablets a day, starting 3 to 4 days before you expect your period to begin

norethisterone does not act as a contraceptive when used in this way, so you could still get pregnant

203
Q

when is combined vs quadruple done

A

combined at datings scan - 8-14 weeks

quadruple at 14-20 weeks and is only for DS

204
Q

notes for DS counselling

nb high bmi can make it hard to measure nuchal translucency

A

DS is most common conegnital abnormality - 1 in 1000
main cause of early mortality is congenital heart disease - despite this many will live happy and fulfilling lives
risk increases to about 1 in 100 at 40 years
presents w low tone, increase reflexes, intellectual disability, developmental delay, diabetes, short stature, obestiy, 50% have congenital defects (AVSD, ASD, VSD), asthma, duodenal atresia
combined - 8-14 (beta hCG, PAPP-A and nuchal translucency)
quadruple - 14-20
is considered positive if risk is greater than 1 in 150 and these women are offered diagnostic testing
CVS - 11-14
amniocentesis - 15-18
both have infection risk and may have to be repeated
both take 10 mins, results in 3 days
both test for other things too
will need anti-D

205
Q

termination of pregnancy investigations

A

confirm pregnancy w urine dip
USS to assess pregnancy including dating - however this is no longer considered to be an essential prerequisite of abortion in all cases (an alternative would be estimation of gestation via examination)
screen for STIs
discuss future contraceptive needs
check rhesus status
determine if smear has been done within recommended time - if not should be offered within the abortion service

Counsel the patient and give options and advice but also remember that RCOG guidelines state that: the earlier in pregnancy an abortion is performed, the lower the risk of complications

206
Q

meaning of twin types

A

dichorionic diamniotic = separate amniotic membranes and placenta
dizygotic means 2 eggs fertilised by 2 sperm

monochorionic monoamniotic = same sac and same placenta

monochorionic diamniotic = different sac same placenta

207
Q

complications and diagnosis - twin pregnancy (NB identical twins dont run in fam, IVF can increase risk)

A

DIAGNOSTIC SIGNS
hyperemsis gravidarum
uterus larger
two fetal hearts may be heard on ausculation
BUT not really relied upon - mostly picked up at dating scan (twin peak or lambda sign)

COMPLICATIONS
MATERNAL - diabetes, pre-eclampsia, hyperemsis, APH, PPH (a hormone drip will be started after birth to reduce this), placentra previa, anaemia
FETAL - pre-term (40%), miscarriage (particuarly with mono), IUGR, congenital anomalies (particuarly w mono e.g. cardia, neural tube), vanishing twin syndrome (one twin being resorbed), twin twin transfusion syndrome in mono (only occurs in twins sharing same placenta)

208
Q

precautions for a twin pregnancy

A

consultant led

should all have more frequent growth scans from 20 weeks

routine use of iron and folate can be considered for anaemia risk

aspirin 75mg if one additional risk factor for pre-eclampsia e.g. first baby or FHx

more frequent check ups due to pre-eclampsia risk

offer delivery at 37-38 weeks via induction for normal birth or c section (ealier for monozygotic monochorimnotic at 32 weeks)

NB dizygotic have much less risks and dont need as much scanning

more than half of twins (around 60%) in uk are born by c section - will need if first twin is breech, placenta is low lying or if they share placenta
if previous baby was c section then will recommend c sec

NB if twins are dizygotic then you may not be able to find out for certian if identical - a third are non-identical

can reduce risks of these with a healthy lifestyle - no alcohol and smoking

209
Q

presentation of fibroids

A

most are asymptomatic

menorrhagia
local pressure effects causing abdo pain 
dysmenorrhoea
dyspareunia 
30-50 years 
may have palpable abdominal mass 
signs of anaemia 
enlarged, often irregular, firm, non-tender uterus palpable on bimanual pelvic examination
  • Submucosal and intramural fibroids are linked to infertility and increased risk of miscarriage
  • 5% of pregnant women noted to have fibroids experience acute pain during the pregnancy, due to fibroid degeneration - red degeneration
  • May have urinary or bowel symptoms
  • Torsion of a pedunculated fibroid can present with acute abdominal pain
210
Q

endometriosis pahthohysiology

A

blood outside uterus also respond to the hormones
so causes a cyclical - dull heavy or burning pain around the same time as menstruation
if depsotis in bladder or bowel can lead to bleeding in stools and urine duein tmenstruation
localised bleeding and inflammation can lead to adhesions - scar tissue can attach different organs together
adhesions leads to non-cyclical pain - sharp, stabbing pulling in nature - pt feels quite sick when happenng

211
Q

diagnosis of endometriosis

A

histroy - cyclical pain
speculum - may show deposits in vagina
bimanual - fixed urterus or cervix, tender on deep, adnexa tender
pelvic US may show large endoemtriomas or choc cyst - but often normal
MRI useful for mapping pre-surgery and may show some deposits
laparascopic surgery is gold standard

NB can stage from 1-4 by severity

blood tests (e.g. FBC), urinalysis and MC&S, cervical swabs (MC&S, chlamydia testing) and beta human chorionic gonadotrophin may be helpful in excluding some important differentials

212
Q

cerical ectropion notes

A

occurs when the columnar epithium of the endocerxic extends out to the ectocervix

will be visible on speculum

more common in younger, coc, pregnany (associated w high oestrogen levels)

asymptomatic, post coital bleeding, vaginal discharge, pain in sex

problematic bleeding is an indication for treatmen

manage w nothing if asymptomatci
stopping pill
ablation w silver nitrate, cold cyrotherapy
this will result in some vaginal bleeding until it is healed

213
Q

P1+1 meaning

A

+1 could be miscarriage or ectopic

214
Q

questions to ask in history

A

w bleeding - any tissue, clots

any treatment to the cervix before

215
Q

counselling points w colposcopy

A

speculum is inserted, then cervix is cleaned and stained to highlight abnormal cells
will then take a biopsy - most do not have LA but can if want to
the biopsy taken is the size of a grain of rice

wait until and bleeding or discharge stops before you have sex, swim or use tampons

is generally painless but may cause cramping, discomfort and bleeding in some women
your doctor may suggest taking a pain killer 30 minutes before
bring a sanitary pad before to wear after in case of bleeding

HPV is a common virus that 8 in 10 will get and does not cause problems in most people but in some can cause genital warts or cancer

216
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum investigations

A
examine for signs of dehydration 
obs
urine dip - uti is a differential and check for ketones - can be raised due to starvation ketosis
UE, LFTs
blood glucose - exclude dka
abg
amylase 
tfts
US to exclude multiple or molar pregnancy
do PUQE score
217
Q

induction of labour counselling

ask about allergies

A

RISKS W POST DATES BABY
malnutrtiion, chest related complications and meconium aspiration

INDICATIONS
1 in 5 need induction
= stimulation of uterine contraction with or without a ruptured membrane
should be offered between 41-42 weeks
and for PROM >37w
or maternal of fetal complications like obstetric cholestasis

RISKS
increased risk of needing c section
excessive uterine contractions –> fetal distress or uterine rupture
uterine atony and PPH

METHODS
if cervix is not favroubale:
vaginal prostaglandins - ripen the cervix - either as a tablet or as a pessary called propess - 60% will go into labour after 24 hours - some will need repeat dose - may be able to go home to give it time to work

if the cervix is favourable:
amniotomy + oxytocin infusion - amnihook is used to rupture membranes - this releases prostaglandins to speed up labour, given w oxytocin to increase contractions - only performed if cervix is ripe

adjunct:
membrane sweep - insert gloved finger into cerivx and rotate it against fetal membranes to cause separation - this releases natural hormones to speed up labour - fot this there needs to be some dilation of cervix - risk of this is small amount of bleeding after and could be uncomfrtable - no risk of infection to baby

if membranes ruptures - iv syntocinon

BISHOPS
an assessment of how ripe the cervix is and likelihood labour will start and how successful induction methods will be

TESTS
prior to induction of labour, a reassuring fetal heart rate must be confirmed by CTG
if syntocinin/hormone drip is used then baby will need constatn monitoring w ctg

218
Q

IUGR history

A
any high bp - ask about med conditions 
previous obstetric 
CERVICAL SMEARS
pmh of kidney disease or clotting disorders 
good nutrition?
medication during a prior to pregnancy 
smoking, alcohol and substance abuse
219
Q

notes on rhesus counselling

A

15% are neg

explains that if the newborn baby is positive - then a small amount of the babys blood may enters the mothers blood stream and because it is a different blood group - the mothers body can produce a protein known as an antibody against the babys blood cells
the mums antibodies can then destroy the babys blood cells - not necessarily harm first baby but may be dangerous for subsequent

explain that blood is most likely to mix during childbirth but also termination or pregnancy, miscarriages, amniocentesis

the reason why it will affect the next baby is because the mothers cells will keep this memonry and produce more in future

can cause haemolytic disease of newborn - baby becaomes jaundice, v ill or stillbirth

to prevent this we give anti-d injection that prevents mum from making these antibodies

offered at 28 and 34 weeks

kleihauer test will be taken after birth

anti-d is safe for the mum and baby - rarely you may have allergic reaction so may be monitored for 20 mins before going home