OB (1) Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
number of live births in 1 year per 1000 population
A
birth rate
2
Q
all deaths during pregnancy and within 1 year following the end of pregnancy
A
pregnancy-associated deaths
3
Q
number of maternal deaths from births and complications of pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium (the first 42 days after termination of the pregnancy) per 100,000 live births
A
maternal mortality rate
4
Q
an infant who, at birth, demonstrates no signs of life, such as breathing, heartbeat, or voluntary muscle movements
A
stillbirth
5
Q
number of stillbirths and number of neonatal deaths per 1000 live births
A
perinatal mortality rate
6
Q
number of births per 1000 women between the ages of 15 to 44 years, calculated on an annual basis
A
fertility rate
7
Q
an embryo or fetus that is removed or expelled from the uterus at 20 weeks of gestation or less, weighs 500g or less, or measures 25cm or less
A
abortus
8
Q
number of deaths of infants younger than 1 year of age per 1000 live births
A
infant mortality rate
9
Q
number of deaths of infants younger than 28 days of age per 1000 live births
A
neonatal mortality rate
10
Q
deaths that are a complication of pregnancy, an aggravation of an unrelated condition by the physiology of pregnancy, or a chain of events initiated by the pregnancy
A
pregnancy-related deaths
11
Q
specialty area of nursing practice that focuses on the care of child-bearing women and their families through all stages of pregnancy and childbirth, as well as the first 4 weeks after birth
A
maternity nursing
12
Q
a set of goals based on assessments of major risks to health and wellness, changes in public health priorities, and issues related to the health preparedness and prevention of our nation
A
healthy people 2030
13
Q
a set of 17 goals to be achieved by 2030 that respond to the world’s main development challenges and are replacing the previous Millennium Development Goals
A
Sustainable Development Goals
14
Q
approach to healthcare that encompasses complementary and alternative therapies in combination with conventional Western modalities of treatment
A
integrative health care
15
Q
an umbrella term for the use of communication technologies and electronic information to provide or support health care when the participants are separated by distance
A
telehealth
16
Q
this percentage of maternal deaths are preventable, primarily through the access to and the use of prenatal care services
A
60
17
Q
term that refers to a spectrum of abilities ranging from reading an appointment slip to interpreting medication instructions
A
health literacy
18
Q
nonbiologic factor which have profound influences on health
A
social determents of health
19
Q
guidelines for nursing practice that reflect current knowledge, represent levels of practice agreed on by leaders in the specialty, and can be used for clinical benchmarking
A
standards of practice
20
Q
a list of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols developed by the joint commission to decrease the risk of errors in the administration of medications
A
“Do Not Use” List
21
Q
term used by the joint commission to describe an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or risk thereof that is not due to underlying conditions
A
sentinel event
22
Q
failure to recognize or act on early signs of distress. Key components include careful surveillance and identification of complications and quick action to initiate appropriate interventions and activate a team response
A
failure to rescue
23
Q
level of practice that a reasonably prudent nurse would provide in the same or similar circumstances
A
standard of care
24
Q
when faculty and students from two or more health professions create and foster a collaborative environment
A
interprofessional education
25
a teamwork system for health professionals to provides higher quality, safer patient care. It provides an evidence base to improve communication and teamwork skills
TeamSTEPPS
26
an ongoing process that influences a person throughout his or her life. It provides an individual with beliefs and values about each facet of life that are passed from one generation to the next
culture
27
recognizing that people from different cultural backgrounds comprehend the same objects and situations differently; that a culture determines a person's viewpoint
culture relativism
28
Changes that occur within one group or amongst several groups when people from different cultures come in contact with one another to exchange and adopt each other’s mannerisms styles and practices
Acculturation
29
Process in which one cultural group loses its identity and becomes a part of the dominant culture
Assimilation
30
A belief that one’s cultural way of doing things is the right way supporting the notion that my group is the best
Ethnocentrism
31
Approach that involves the ability to think, feel and act in ways that acknowledge respect and build upon ethnic, cultural and linguistic diversity to act in ways that meet the needs of the patient and are respectful of ways and traditions that may be different from one’s own
Cultural competence
32
Type of time orientation that maintains a focus on achieving long-term goals, families, or people who practice this time orientation are more likely to return for follow-up visits related to healthcare and to participate in primary prevention activities
Future oriented
33
Type of time, orientation of families, or people who are more likely to strive to maintain tradition or the status quo, and have a little motivation for formulating future goals
Past oriented
34
Type of time, orientation of families, or people who may have difficulty adhering to strict schedules and are often described as living for the moment
Present oriented
35
Cultural concept that reflects dimensions of personal comfort zones. Actions such as touching, placing the woman in proximity to others, taking away personal possessions, and making decisions for the woman can decrease personal security and heighten anxiety.
Personal space
36
A unit of socialization and nurturing within a community that preserves and transmits culture. It is a social network that acts a potent support system for its members
Family
37
Family category in which husband and wife and their children live as an independent unit, sharing roles, responsibilities, and economic resources
Nuclear family
38
Family category that includes the nuclear family and other people related by blood, such as grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins
Extended family
39
Family category in which an unmarried biological or adoptive parent heads the household; it is becoming an increasingly recognized structure in our society. These families tend to be vulnerable, both socially and economically.
Single parent
40
Family category that forms as a result of divorce and remarriage it includes step parents, stepchildren, and step siblings who joined to create a new household.
Married blended
41
Family category, consisting of grandparents, children, and grandchildren. This family form is becoming increasingly common.
Multigenerational
42
Family category in which children live independently in foster or kinship care such as living with a grandparent.
Non-biological parent
43
Family category in which children live with two unmarried biological parents or two adoptive parents
Cohabiting Parent
44
Term for the family tree format, that depicts relationships of family members over at least three generations; it provides valuable information about a family and its health.
Genogram
45
Term for a graphic portrayal of social relationships of the patient and family, including school, work, religious affiliations, and club memberships.
Ecomap
46
Groups within the community, who are more likely to experience health status problems, and negative health outcomes as a result of a variety of social, cultural, economic, and environmental risk factors that contribute to disparities and health
Vulnerable populations
47
This type of breathing replaces abdominal breathing as pregnancy progresses, and is accomplished by using diaphragm instead of the costal muscles
Thoracic breathing
48
The three 3-month periods into which pregnancy is divided
Trimesters
49
Hormone responsible for the decreased tone and motility of smooth muscles and decreasing uterine contractility
Progesterone
50
Hormone responsible for enlargement of uterus and breast, pelvic ligaments, and joints, and a decreased secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsin
Estrogen
51
Hormone responsible for preparing breasts for lacation
Serum prolactin
52
Hormone responsible for stimulating, uterine contractions, and milk ejection from breast after birth
Oxytocin
53
Change in blood pressure that can occur when a pregnant woman lies on her back for an examination of her abdomen
Supine hypotensive syndrome
54
In supine hypotensive syndrome, what is compressed by the weight of the abdominal contents, including the uterus
Vena cava
55
The biologic marker on which pregnancy tests are based. It’s presence in urine or serum results in a positive pregnancy test result.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
56
Irregular, painless, uterine contractions that can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of pregnancy.
Braxton Hicks
57
A rushing hour blowing sound of maternal blood flow through the uterine arteries to the placenta that is synchronous with the maternal pulse.
Uterine souffle
58
Sound of fetal blood coursing through the umbilical cord; it is synchronous with the fetal heart rate
Funic souffle
59
Fetal movements first felt by the pregnant woman as early as 14 to 16 weeks of gestation
Quickening
60
Change in blood pressure as a result of compression of abdominal blood vessels and decreasing cardiac output when a woman lies down on her back
Supine hypotensive syndrome
61
Severe itching of the skin that occurs during pregnancy as a result of retention and accumulation of bile in the liver
Pruritus gravidarum
62
Non-food cravings for substances, such as as ice, clay, and laundry starch.
Pica
63
Excessive salivation
Ptyalism
64
Fundal height, decreased, fetal head in pelvic Inlet
Lightening
65
Cervix and vagina violet/bluish in color
Chadwick sign
66
Swelling of ankles and feet at the end of the day
Physiological/dependent edema
67
Cervical tip softened
Goodell sign
68
Lower uterine segment is soft and compressible
Hegar sign
69
Beetle head rebounds with a gentle upward, tapping through the vagina
Ballottement
70
White or slightly gray mucoid vaginal discharge with faint, musty odor
Leukorrhea
71
Enlarged sebaceous glands in areola on both breasts
Montgomery tubercles
72
Plug of mucus fills endocervical canal
Operculum
73
Pink stretch, marks or depressed streaks on breasts and abdomen
Striae gravidarum
74
The anterior pituitary stimulates production of this by the end of the first trimester
Colostrum
75
Blotchy, brownish, hyperpigmentation on cheeks, nose, and forehead
Chloasma
76
Pigmented line extending up, abdomen midline to the top of the fundus
Linea nigra
77
A decrease in cardiac output, fled by a reflex bradycardia caused by compression of the vena cava in the second half of pregnancy
Vena caval syndrome
78
Heartburn
Pyrosis
79
Lumbosacral curve increased
Lordosis
80
Paresthesia and pain in the hand radiating to elbow
Carpal tunnel syndrome
81
Responsible for slight spotting, following cervical palpation or intercourse
Friability
82
State of hemodilution where there is a decrease in normal hemoglobin and hematocrit values
Physiological anemia
83
Vascular spiders on neck and thorax
Angiomata
84
Palms pinkish, red, mottled
Palmer erythema
85
Abdominal wall muscle separated
Diastasis recti abdominis
86
Red raised nodule on gum; bleeds after brushing teeth.
Epulis (gingival granuloma gravidarum)
87
Pregnancy
Gravidity
88
The number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses have reached 20 weeks of gestation, not the number of fetus is born. The numeric designation is not affected by whether the fetus is more alive or stillborn.
Parity
89
A woman who is pregnant
Gravida
90
A woman who has never been pregnant
Nulligravida
91
A woman who has not completed a pregnancy with a fetus or fetus is beyond 20 weeks of gestation
Nullipara
92
A woman who is pregnant for the first time
Primagravida
93
A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus fetuses who have reached 20 weeks of gestation or more
Primapara
94
A woman who has had two or more pregnancies
Multigravida
95
A woman who has completed her, her more pregnancies used to 20 weeks of gestation or more
Multipara
96
Capacity to live outside the uterus; there are no clear limits of gestational age or weight
Viability
97
Designation given to a pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but ends before completion of 37 weeks of gestation
Pre-term
98
Designation given to a pregnancy from 39 weeks and zero days to 40 weeks six days of gestation
Full-term
99
Designation given into a pregnancy that goes beyond 42 weeks zero days of gestation
Post term
100
Pregnancy related changes that can be observed by an examiner, which can include Goodell sign, a positive pregnancy test, and Hegar sign
Probable signs
101
Pregnancy related changes that can be felt by the woman which can include breast changes, nausea, and amenorrhea
Presumptive signs
102
Objective signs that can be attributed only to the presence of the fetus which include visualization of fetus by ultrasound
Positive sign
103
Rule used to determine the estimated date of birth by subtracting three months from, adding seven days, two, and one year to the first day of the LMP
Naegles rule
104
Measurement performed beginning in the second trimester as one indicator of progress of fetal growth
Fundal height
105
____ Tasks accomplished by women and men as they adapt to the changes of pregnancy these tasks include what?
Developmental; excepting pregnancy, identifying with role of the mother, re-ordering personal relationships, establishing relationship with unborn child, and preparing for birth.
106
Rapid unpredictable changes in mood
Emotional lability
107
Having conflicting feelings about the pregnancy at the same time
Ambivalence
108
Change in blood pressure that can occur if a pregnant woman changes her position rapidly from supine upright
Orthostatic hypotension
109
What are two techniques to assess fetal health growth?
Ultrasound measurements and fundal height
110
Professionally trained woman who provides physical, emotional, and informational support to women in their partners during labor and birth, and in the postpartum period
Doula
111
Tool that can be used by expectant couples to explore their childbirth options and choose those that are most important to them; it serves as a tentative guide because the reality of what is feasible may change the actual labor and birth progress
Birth plan
112
Birthweight of 2500 g or less
Low birthweight
113
Nutrient particularly important during the periconceptional period. Adequate intake is important for decreasing risk for neural tube defects or failures in the closure of the neural tube.
Folic acid
114
What is the recommended daily intake for all women of childbearing age?
400 mcg
115
Recommendations for nutritional intake that meets the needs of almost all healthy members of the population
Dietary reference intake
116
Method used to evaluate the appropriateness of weight for height.
BMI
117
What is a normal BMI?
18.5 to 24.9
118
Vegetarian diet that includes milk products
Lacto-vegetarian
119
Normal adaptation that occurs during pregnancy when the plasma volume increases more rapidly than RBC mass
Physiologic anemia
120
Inability to digest milk, sugar, because of the absence of lactose enzyme in the small intestine
Lactose intolerance
121
Urge to consume specific types of food, such as ice cream, pickles, and pizza during pregnancy
Food cravings
122
USDA provided guide that can be used to make daily food choices during pregnancy and lactation, just as during their stages of the life cycle
My plate
123
A discomfort, most commonly experienced in the first trimester of pregnancy; it usually causes only mild to moderate nutritional problems, but may be a source of substantial discomfort
Nausea/vomiting “morning sickness”
124
Severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy, causing weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte abnormalities.
Hyperemesis gravidarum
125
Discomfort a pregnancy that is often related to iron supplement intake and may be relieved with increased water and fiber intake
Constipation
126
Discomfort a pregnancy that is usually caused by reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus
Pyrosis
127
A pregnancy in which the life or health of the mother or her fetus is jeopardized by a disorder, coincidental with or unique to pregnancy
High risk
128
Assessment of fetal activity by the mother is a simple yet valuable method for monitoring the condition of the fetus.
Daily fetal movement count “kick count”
129
Term used to refer to the cessation of fetal movement entirely for 12 hours
Fetal alarm signal
130
Diagnostic test that involves the use of sound having a frequency higher than that deductible by humans to examine structures inside the body.
Ultrasound
131
What are two methods used for ultrasound during pregnancy?
Transvaginal or abdominal
132
Noninvasive study of blood flow in the fetus and placenta with ultrasound
Doppler blood flow analysis
133
Non-invasive dynamic assessment of the fetus and its environment that is based on acute and chronic markers of fetal disease
Biophysical profile
134
Biophysical profile uses real time ultrasound to permit a detailed assessment. This test includes assessment of variables by ultrasound, namely ___, ___, ___, ___ and fetal heart rate reactivity by a non-stress test
Fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume
135
Non-invasive radiologic technique used for obstetric and gynecologic diagnosis by providing excellent pictures of soft tissues without the use of ionizing radiation
MRI
136
Prenatal diagnostic test that is performed to obtain amniotic fluid to examine the fetal cells it contains
Amniocentesis
137
Prenatal diagnostic test that provides direct access to the fetal circulation during the second and third trimester
Percutaneous and umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
138
Procedure that involves the removal of a small tissue specimen from the fetal portion of the placenta. Because this tissue originates from the zygote, it reflects the genetic makeup of the fetus and is performed between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation.
Chorionic Villus sampling
139
Test used as a screening tool for neural tube defects and pregnancy. The test is ideally performed between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation.
Maternal serum alpha feto-protein
140
Test used to screen for down syndrome, which are available beginning in the first trimester at 11 to 14 weeks gestation.
Multiple marker screens
141
Screening test for Rh and compatibility by examining the serum of Rh negative women for Rh antibodies
Coombs (indirect)
142
Non-invasive test based on the fact that the heart rate of the healthy fetus with an Intex central nervous system will usually accelerate in response to its own movement
Non-stress test
143
Test that determines fetal response to the stimulation of vibration and sound; the expected response is acceleration of the fetal heart rate
Vibrioacoustic stimulation test
144
Test used to identify the jeopardized fetus that is stable at rest, but shows evidence of compromise when exposed to the stress of uterine contractions. If the resultant hypoxia of the fetus is sufficient, a deceleration of the fetal heart rate will result.
Contraction stress test
145
What are the two methods used for the contraction stress test?
Nipple stimulated contraction stress test and the oxytocin stimulated contraction stress test
