OB Flashcards
Name 9 conditions all associated with breech presentation
1) prematurity; 2) multip gest; 3) genetic disorders; 4) polyhydramnios; 5) hydrocephaly; 6) anencephaly; 7) placenta previa; 8) uterine anomalies; 9) uterine fibroids
Name 6 conditions associated with increased incidence of shoulder dystocia
1) fetal macrosomia; 2) maternal obesity; 3) DM; 4) postterm pregnancy; 5) prior should dystocia delivery; 6) prolonged second stage of labor
What qualifies as prolonged 2nd stage?
gt 3 hours (nulli)
gt 2 hours (multi)
What qualifies as prolonged latent phase?
gt 20 hrs (nulli)
gt 14 hrs (multi)
What qualifies as prolonged active phase?
slower than 1.5 cm/hr (nulli)
slower than 1.2 cm/hr (multi)
What qualifies as arrest of active phase
4 hrs of adequate ctx (200 mV in 10 mins)
or
6 hrs of all type
What is the most common type of breech (and the next two?)
Frank breech then footling, then complete
When is the fetus at greatest teratogenic risk?
Weeks 3-8
There is no increase seen in fetal anomalies or pregnancy losses with ionizing radiation exposure less than ___. Fetus is at greatest risk of exposure brown __ and __ weeks
5 rads; 8-15 weeks
Smoking increases the risk of these 5 serious complications
1) placental abruption; 2) placenta previa; 3) fetal growth; 4) preeclampsia; 5) infxn
Name 5 tocolytics
1) nifedipine; 2) terbutaline; 3) ritodrine; 4) magnesium sulfate; 5) indomethacin
Which two tocolytics are contraindicated in diabetic pts? Which one in myasthenia gravis?
terbutaline and ritodrine (terbutaline is no longer used to stop preterm labor in anyone); magnesium sulfate
___ (a tocolytic) is contraindicated at 33 weeks due to risk of premature __ closure.
Indomethacin; ductus arteriosus (also associated with oligohydramnios)
How does magnesium sulfate work as a tocolytic? Beta adrenergic agents? CCB? NSAIDs?
by competing with calcium entry into cells; increasing cAMP thereby decreasing free calcium; CCBs prevent calcium entry into muscle cells by inhibiting ca transport; NSAIDs block PG production
Name 3 side effects of magnesium sulfate and the order in which they appear. What is the antidote?
1) loss of DTR; 2) respiratory depression (12-15mg/dl); 3) cardiac depression (gt 15mg/dl)
calcium
Name 2 bad side effect associated with nifedipine.
fetal hypoxia and decreased uteroplacental blood flow
In addition to increasing pulmonary maturity and reducing the incidence of RDS in the newborn, betamethasone from 24-34 wks has been associated with a decrease in __ and __.
intracerebral hemorrhage; necrotizing enterocolitis
___ is an extracellular matrix protein that acts as an adhesive btwn the fetal membranes and the underlying decidua. Its presence in the cervical mucus btwn __ and __ weeks is thought to indicate a disruption to the __. It has a strong positive/negative predictive value only
fibronectin; 22-34 (it is normally found in cervical secretions in first half of preg); maternal-fetal interface; negative (if you have negative you have a 99/100 chance of not delivering in the next 14 days)
During delivery a fibrinogen is checked; what do you expect to see
fibrinogen should go up
if a pregnant woman is hypotensive, what is the first thing you do?
turn her on her left side (ivc compression)
what happens to a pregnant woman in regard to clotting?
clotting increases
what pulmonary function test gets worse (decreases) in pregnancy?
FRC
what is the expected change in hemoglobin in pregnancy?
blood volume increases but hgb (concentration) falls; normal is to nadir at 10
what happens to the tidal volume in pregnancy?
increases