OB Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

At what beta should gestational sac be seen?

A

1500 (approx. 5 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is normal yolk sac seen?

A

5.5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should fetal heart activity be seen?

A

CRL 7 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Findings definitive for pregnancy failure

A

CRL > 7mm, no heartbeat
MSD >25 mm, no embryo
Absence of embryo >2 weeks after sac with no yolk sac
Absence of embryo >11 days after sac with yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Findings suspicious for pregnancy failure

A
CRL < 7mm, no heartbeat
MSD 16-24, no embryo
Empty amnion
Enlarged yolk sac (>7mm)
Small sac in relation to embryo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Locations of ectopic pregnancy in order of prevalence

A

*Tubal most common! (95%)
Ampulla&raquo_space;> isthmus > fimbria > interstitial > ovary
Other sites rare: abdominal, c-section scar, cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of ectopic has greatest risk of bleeding

A

Interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differences b/w complete and partial molar preg

A

Complete: Most common, no fetal parts, loss of egg DNA prior to fertilization, diploid karyotype 46XX (90%) or 46XY, higher bHCG, may progress to invasive mole or choriocarcinoma

Partial: Some fetal parts, two sperm fertilizing 1 egg, triploid karyotype 69XXX, XXY, XYY, lower bHCG than complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Imaging findings in GTD

A

Partial mole: enlarged placenta, cystic spaces, empty sac containing abnormal fetal parts +/- hydropic degeneration

Complete mole: enlarged uterus, multiple cystic spaces (snow storm or bunch of grapes), theca lutein cysts**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Choriocarcinoma usually arises from the following:

A
Molar pregnancy (50%)
Miscarriage (30%)
Normal pregnancy (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Risks of mono-di and mono-mono pregnancies

A

Twin twin transfusion, acardiac twins (twin reversed arterial perfusion sequences - TRAPS), twin embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Differentiating features between di-di, mono-di and mono-mono pregnancies on US

A

Di-di - 2 placentas, 2 amnions, twin peak/lambda sign
Mono-di - thin intertwin membrane
Mono-mono - no intervening membrane, intertwined cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal AFI

A

5-25 cm (or deepest pocket 2-8 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal NF

A

<6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal cervical length

A

> 2.5 cm (funnelling progresses from T-Y-V-U)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RFs for placental abruption

A

maternal HTN, drugs, trauma, advanced maternal age

Usually late in 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Imaging findings placenta accreta/increta/percreta

A

Loss of the retroplacental hypoechoic space
Prominent venous lakes or vessels (best seen on MRI where there are abnormal vessels in myometrium)
Disruption of border between uterus and bladder (percreta)

*scarring most common cause (prior csx, d&c, pregnancies, also previa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Findings in fetal hydrops

A
Ascites
Pleural effusion
Pericardial effusion
Generalized body edema (anasarca, skin thickening)
Polyhydramnios
Placental enlargement
Hepatomegaly 

**Must have at least 2 of these findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the causes of fetal hydrops

A

Immune: Rh incompatibility

Non-immune:

  • Syndromes (turners, triosmies)
  • Cardiac (arrhythmia, congential heart anomalies)
  • High output shunts (vein of Galen malformation, hemangiodendothelioma)
  • Infection (parvovirus most common, TORCH)
  • Twin twin tranfusion, TARPS
  • Other: nephrotic snydrome, hepatitis, venous/lymphatic obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Potter’s sequence?

A

Constellation of findings secondary to severe oligohydramnios

  • Pulmonary hypoplasia
  • Abnormal facies - low set ears, flattened nose, wrinkled skin, micrognathia
  • Club feet, muscular contractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios

A

50% idiopathic
others:
- primary GI obstruction/atresia
- secondary GI obstruction (hernia, omphalocele)
- CNS anomalies causing swallowing difficulties
- twin twin transfusion
- placental issues (i.e. chorioangioma)

22
Q

Causes of oligohydramnios

A

Renal abnormalities (agenesis, ARPKD), ureter (UPJ obstruction, PUV), PROM, twin-twin transfusion

23
Q

Normal ventricular size

A

<10 mm at atria

24
Q

Which neural tube defect gives highest elevation of MSAFP

25
Differentiating features between anencephaly and hydranencephaly
Anencephaly - no cranial vault or brain tissue above orbits, results from neural tube defect Hydranencephaly - skull present, brain tissue replaced with fluid, often due to vascular insult
26
Findings in Dandy-Walker malformation
Hypoplasia of vermis Cystic dilation of the 4th ventricle, extending posteriorly Enlarged posterior fossa Ddx: mega cisterna magna, Joubert (molar-tooth sign), other cystic structures in posterior fossa
27
Imaging findings Chiari II malformation
Intra-cranial- banana/ lemon sign, agenesis CC, absent CSP, hydro, enlarged foramen NTD - myelomeningocele/tethered cord Other findings: scoliosis, spinal segmentation anomalies, syrinx, club feet
28
Secondary signs of absent CC
- absent CSP - teardrop lateral ventricles - parallel ventricles - concave margin of medial border of lateral ventricle - midline inter-hemispheric cyst (superior herniation of 3rd ventricle)
29
Ddx absent CSP (high yield)
agenesis of cc holoprosencephaly septo-optic dysplasia schizencephaly
30
Most common type of congential diaphragmatic hernia
Bochdalek; most on the left, posterolateral | Can be associated with other anomalies (cardiac) and syndromes
31
Differences between CPAM and sequestration
CPAM - cystic or solid appearing (type III), blood supply from pulmonary circulation, not associated with other anomalies Sequestration - echogenic lung mass (not cystic), usually in the lower lobes (left side), systemic blood supply from aorta; can be infra-diaphragmatic Can have combined/mixed picture (esp with CPAM and extra-lobar sequestration)
32
Bell shaped thorax causes
pulmonary hypoplasia (causes: mass effect from lesion such as CPAM, oligohydramnios - Potters sequences, skeletal dysplasias with short ribs)
33
Imaging findings in CHAOS
Bilateral, enlarged echogenic lungs; requires EXIT procedure for delivery
34
DDx for double bubble sign
Duodenal atresia, web, stenosis, annular pancreas (last 3 will have some distal gas as not complete obstruction)
35
DDx echogenic bowel
Down syndrome TORCH infection CF Swallowed intra-amniotic blood
36
Differences between omphalocele and gastoschisis
O: more common, umbilical cord inserts at apex, covered in peritoneum, associated with anomalies in up to 75% of cases (cardiac, trisomies 18 & 13, Beckwith-Wiedemann) G: paraumbilical (usually on right), no covering sac, isolated anomaly but can have associated atresias
37
Imaging findings ARPKD
Enlarged, echogenic kidneys (can't see the cysts because of small size); poor prognosis
38
Findings in multi-cystic dysplastic kidney
Non-communicating cysts and dysplastic renal parenchyma; end result of obstructive uropathy
39
Findings in thanatophoric dysplasia
Most common lethal skeletal dysplasia - narrow thoracic cavity, short ribs - short, thick, bowed tubular bones (telephone receiver) - soft tissue thickening in extremities - macrocephaly, platyspondyly** - clover leaf skull - squared iliac bones, trident acetabula
40
Key imaging findings in Trisomy 21
- incr nuchal fold - absent nasal bone - cystic hygroma (more common in Turner syndrome) - cardiac (VSD, ASD - primum/AVSD) - echogenic intra-cardiac focus - echogenic bowel - duodenal atresia - short femurs and humerus - sandal gap toes
41
Key imaging findings in Trisomy 18
- **strawberry sign skull - choroid plexus cysts - **facial anomalies: cleft palate, micrognathia - cardiac anomalies - omphalocele - renal: horseshoe kidneys, hydro - **clenced hand that does not open, overlapping fingers - **rocker bottom feet
42
Key imaging findings in Trisomy 13
- **holoprosencephaly - midline facial anomalies (brain predicts face) - cardiac anomalies - omphalocele - renal: horseshoe, polycystic - **polydactyly
43
Key imaging findings in Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome
- Macroglossia - Hemihypertrophy - Organomegaly - Omphalocele** - Perinatal hypoglycemia **increased risk of childhood cancer (mainly Wilms and hepatoblastoma)
44
Imaging findings Meckel-Gruber
- Encephalocele - Renal dysplasia (echogenic kidneys) - Polydactyly
45
Which syndrome is most commonly associated with a cystic hygroma
Turner syndrome; also associated with trisomies
46
Grading of germinal matrix
1 - confined to matrix 2 - extends into ventricles, NO ENLARGED VENTRICLES 3 - extends into ventricles, ENLARGED VENTRICLES 4 - extends outside of ventricles into parenchyma
47
Normal placental thickness
2-4 cm
48
Causes of increased placental thickness
TORCH, GDM, hydrops | - with cysts: molar pregnancy, triploidy, placental mesenchymal dysplasia (Beckwith Wiedmann)
49
Causes of decreased placental thickness
Pre-eclampsia | IUGR
50
US findings morbidly adherent placenta/placenta accreta spectrum disorders
* *Gray-scale and color Doppler US - high sensitivity and specificity** - irregular or absent retroplacental clear space - multiple irregular placental lacunae (Swiss-cheese appearance) - turbulent high-velocity flow deep in the placenta separate from the fetal surface of the placenta An abnormal uterine serosa–bladder interface is reported as the US sign with the highest positive predictive value for MAP