OB: C-Section: Regional vs. General Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

most common indications for C-section

A

Dystocia
Malpresentation
Non-reassuring fetal status
Previous cesarean delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can be performed for obstetric or medical indications or at the request of the parturient. Typically planned and performed prior to the onset of labor.

A

Elective C-Section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Typically occur after the onset of labor (exception: i.e. Non-reassuring fetal nonstress test [NST]). Can be due to a variety of maternal and fetal indications

A

Urgent/Emergent C-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TOLAC

A

trial of labor after cesarean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VBAC

A

vaginal birth after cesarean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ _____ ______ _____ (super STAT emergencies)
Better surgical exposure and visualization
Faster exposure

A

Midline vertical (skin) incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ _____ _____ ______
Better cosmesis
Better wound strength

A

Horizontal suprapubic (skin) incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Horizontal uterine incision

_______ incidence of uterine dehiscence or rupture in subsequent pregnancies

A

lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Horizontal uterine incision

______ risk of infection

A

reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Horizontal uterine incision

______ blood loss

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Horizontal uterine incision

______ risk of adhesions to bowel and omentum

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vertical uterine incision usually only seen if:

Lower uterine segment is underdeveloped (prior to ___ weeks)

A

34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vertical uterine incision usually only seen if:

Delivery of a preterm infant in a parturient who ___ ____ _____

A

has not labored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vertical uterine incision usually only seen if:

Some ____ _____ and/or malpresentation

A

multiple gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vertical uterine incision usually only seen if:

Low lying anterior ____ _____

A

placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Operative Technique - Uterine exteriorization (after delivery)

Good, facilitates ________ and facilitates repair of uterine incision

A

visualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Operative Technique - Uterine exteriorization (after delivery)

controversial effects on blood loss and infection, higher rate of ______, increased risk of ______ ______, and increased post operative ______

A

N/V
air embolus
pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complications of C-Section

A

Hemorrhage (MAIN SX COMPLICATION - TEST)
Infection
Thromboembolism
Ureteral and bladder injury
Abdominal pain
Uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Non-elective cases associated with _____ _____ than elective

A

greater risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Historically, it was thought that neuraxial analgesia ___________ rate of cesarean delivery compared to other techniques. However this has been found to be unfounded in RCTs and sentinel event studies.

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

some cesarean deliveries may be avoided with _____ ____ _____, including:

A

adequate labor analgesia

TOLAC, instrumented vaginal delivery, cephalic version, intrauterine resuscitation (pharmacologic uterine relaxation of uterine tachysystole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

External Cephalic Version

Breech position occurs in ____% of term singleton pregnancies

A

3-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

External Cephalic Version

Vaginal breech delivery should be done with caution due to increased risk of _______ __________ ________ and risk of ________ _________

A

emergency c-section delivery
neonatal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

External Cephalic Version

Neuraxial analgesia improves success of ECV by up to ____% without increased risk of fetal bradycardia, placental abruption, or fetal death.

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
External Cephalic Version Usually done at ___-___ weeks
36-37
26
External Cephalic Version Average success rate is ___% (with a wide range)
58% wide range associated with providers competency
27
External Cephalic Version Most likely to be successful - If the presenting part has not entered the _____, Amniotic fluid volume is normal, The fetal back is not positioned ______, Patient is not obese, Position is either ____ ____ or _____
pelvis posteriorly frank breech or transverse
28
External Cephalic Version Successful version reduces the risk of perinatal _____ & _____ of the breech position
morbidity and mortality
29
External Cephalic Version Most likely complications of the ECV are: ______ FHR abnormalities ______ FHR abnormalities Vaginal bleeding Placental ______ Emergency cesarean delivery Still birth
Transient Persistent abruption
30
External Cephalic Version A high ______ dense (anesthetic>analgesic) neuraxial block will improve the success of the ECV
T4-T6
31
External Cephalic Version ____ if plan to discharge
SAB
32
External Cephalic Version Epidural if planning to _____
labor
33
External Cephalic Version Either way, have backup plan(s) to convert to ____ _____ delivery
emergency cesarean
34
Intrauterine Resuscitation Intrapartum fetal compromise (nonreassuring fetal status) should prompt _____ _____ _____
intrauterine fetal resuscitation
35
Intrauterine Resuscitation Optimize maternal position - To relieve ______ compression To relieve _____ _____ compression
aortocaval umbilical cord
36
Intrauterine Resuscitation administer supplemental _____
O2
37
Intrauterine Resuscitation Maintain maternal circulation Perform rapid IV infusion of a ___-____ ____ ____ solution
non-dextrose balanced salt
38
Intrauterine Resuscitation Treat hypotension with _____ or _____
ephedrine or phenylephrine
39
Intrauterine Resuscitation discontinue _______
pitocin (bc it increases contractions)
40
Intrauterine Resuscitation Consider administration of a tocolytic agent for treatment of _____ _____
uterine tachysystole
41
Preanesthetic Evaluation Ideally anesthesia evaluation should occur in the ____ ____ or ____ ____ trimester for high-risk patients
late 2nd or early 3rd
42
Preanesthetic Evaluation should include:
Review of maternal health Anesthetic history Relevant obstetric history Allergies Baseline BP/HR Airway exam Heart exam Lung exam Informed Consent
43
Informed Consent Only 12% of English-speaking adults in the US are “proficient” in their health literacy skills Health literacy is the precursor to patient ______ and to patient ____ _____
engagement decision making
44
Informed Consent 70% of first time mothers are influenced by ________ and ___________ regarding labor analgesia
friends and family
45
Informed Consent The most frequently utilized resource is the _______________
internet
46
_______ elements include the ability of the patient to meet the basic definition of competence, which refers to the patient’s legal authority to make a decision about her health care. Although some cognitive functions may be compromised by the effects of pain, exhaustion, and analgesic drugs, evidence suggests that most laboring women retain the capacity to hear and comprehend information during the consent process.
Threshold
47
Information elements - provider discloses information about ______ risks patient understands ______
material information
48
_______ elements - provider offers info in a non-coercive manner patient gives authorization voluntarily
consent
49
Timeline of C-section
- monitors, IV, O2 - T4-T6 level of anesthesia established - left uterine displacement - incision and delivery - delivery of placenta - pitocin 30 unit IV gtt, may need more, may push smaller doses - closure
50
Pitocin - synthetic hormone ______
oxytocin
51
Pitocin - given to _____ or _____ uterine contractions or to contract uterus after delivery to prevent _____
initiate or augment hemorrhage
52
Pitocin - if patient has been induced/augmented with pitocin, it may take _____ dosages to achieve adequate contraction post partum
higher
53
Pitocin - other uterotonic agents ______
unaffected
54
monitors
EKG Pulse ox capnography oxygen and volatile agent analyzers ventilator peripheral nerve stimulator
55
Consent for Blood Products Blood administration should be included in _____ _____/_____
informed consent/discussion.
56
Consent for Blood Products ____-_____ ______ is the leading cause of maternal mortality worldwide
peri-partum hemorrhage
57
Consent for Blood Products ______ ______ delivery ≤ uncomplicated elective c-section <<< c-section during labor
Uncomplicated vaginal
58
Consent for Blood Products preparation for hemorrhage:
Patient history Consult with OB team Ultrasound/MRI of placentation Type and screen/cross Contact blood bank to verify availability Equipment (pumps/filters/pressure bags)
59
Prepping for hemorrhage
Large-bore IV catheters Fluid warmer Forced air body warmer Availability of blood bank resources Equipment for infusing fluids/blood products rapidly
60
There is a _____ of ______ as to which patients require a type and screen versus crossmatch. Maternal history (previous transfusion, existence of RBC antibodies), anticipated hemorrhage (placenta accreta), local institutional policies should guide decisionmaking.
lack of consensus
61
prepping for difficult airway
laryngoscope blades LMAs semirigid stylets retrograde intubation equipment at least one device suitable for emergency non-surgical airway ventilation (jet ventilation, combitube, intubating LMA) fiberoptic intubation equipment equipment for emergency surgical access topical anesthetics and vasoconstrictors (airway will worsen throughout labor)
62
Drugs for general and neuraxial anesthesia should be readily available Including _____ & _____ medications
vasopressors and emergency
63
Only _____ ____ controlled substances need to be in a “substantially constructed locked cabinet” Other drugs, including _____ ____ should be “reasonably secure”
Schedule II Schedule III
64
All obstetric patients are considered a _____ stomach.
full
65
Patient should be asked about oral intake _______ evidence exists regarding the relationship between recent ingestion and subsequent aspiration
Insufficient
66
Gastric emptying of clear liquids during pregnancy occurs _____ _____ (Remember Wong et al.,2002)
relatively quickly
67
Healthy patient for elective cesarean may drink modest amounts of clear liquids up to 2 hours prior to induction _______ of _____________ is more important than volume
absence of particulates
68
Patients with additional risk factors for aspiration (obesity, diabetes, difficult airway, laboring) should have further __________ on a case-by-case basis or as determined by facility policy
restrictions
69
Ingestion of ____ ____ should be avoided in laboring patients, ___-___ hours
solid foods 6-8
70
Reduction in acidity and volume is thought to decrease the damage to the _____ if there is ______.
lungs aspiration
71
Sodium citrate (___________ gastric pH)
increases
72
treat with H2 receptor antagonists, PPIs, and metoclopramide reduce gastric ________________ and ___________. (In 30-40 minutes)
secretion and volume
73
The combined use of antacid and H2 antagonist is ____ _____ in reducing acidity than antiacid or placebo.
more effective
74
ACOG recommends prophylactic administration of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic (_____ generation _______) within one hour of the start of a cesarean delivery.
first cephalosporin
75
In parturients with significant beta-lactam allergy ______ & ______ are a reasonable alternative.
clindamycin and gentamycin
76
Higher doses should be considered with BMI greater than 30 kg/m^2 or absolute weight greater than 100 kg due to _____ _____ of ________.
greater volume of distribution
77
Optimal timing and value of broad-spectrum antibiotics remain ________.
controversial
78
Even low dose benzodiazepines may result in ______(midazolam 0.02 mg/kg)?
amnesia
79
For women with severe anxiety, low dose ______ or an ______ may facilitate neuraxial technique or induction
midazolam or an opioid
80
anxiety proph - May also mitigate feelings of distress and lessen the risk of developing _____
PTSD
81
Low doses of sedative or anxiolytic agents have minimal to no _____ ______.
neonatal effects
82
Left Uterine Displacement for all parturients after ____ ____ gestation
20 weeks
83
A slight (10 degree) head-up position may help reduce the incidence of ____________ after initiation of ____________ spinal anesthesia.
hypotension hyperbaric
84
A more significant head-up position (30 degrees) significantly improves the _____
FRC
85
A 30 degree head up position may also be helpful to improve ________, ________, and view of the glottis during direct laryngoscopy
preoxygenation, denitrogenation
86
Trendelenburg (head down) may augment venous return and cardiac output but…. Has been reported to result in a more _____ _______ of anesthesia.
cephalad spread
87
Lateral position Reduction of _____ reflexes (dizziness, diaphoresis, pallor, bradycardia, hypotension) Improved uteroplacental blood flow??? More comfortable Limit side-to-side and front-to-back patient motion Minimizes prominence of ____ ____ Decreased severity and duration of ______
vagal dural sac hypotension
88
Sitting position Landmark recognition (especially in obese) Provider preference Should _____ be utilized in fetal head entrapment, umbilical cord prolapse, footling breech presentation.
NOT
89
Routine supplemental oxygen administration is common practice since the 70’s when Fox et al. (1971) demonstrated:
Improved oxygenation Better umbilical cord acid-base measurements Less time to sustained respiration of the neonate (when mothers breathed 100% O2 for at least 30 minutes)
90
More recent evidence has shown that routine oxygen administration may be _______ and _______ or perhaps even ________
unnecessary ineffective detrimental
91
The most appropriate anesthetic technique depends on many factors:
Maternal Fetal Obstetric (urgency and anticipated duration are important)
92
Indications for Neuraxial Anesthesia Maternal desire to witness birth and/or avoid _____ _____
general anesthesia
93
Indications for Neuraxial Anesthesia Risk factors for ____ ____ or aspiration
difficult airway
94
Indications for Neuraxial Anesthesia Presence of _____ conditions
comorbid
95
Indications for Neuraxial Anesthesia General anesthesia _____/_____
intolerance/failure
96
Indications for Neuraxial Anesthesia other benefits:
Plan for neuraxial analgesia after surgery Less fetal drug exposure Less blood loss Allows presence of support person
97
Indications for General Anesthesia Maternal refusal or failure to cooperate with ______ technique
neuraxial
98
Indications for General Anesthesia Presence of comorbid conditions that contraindicate neuraxial:
Coagulopathy Infection at insertion site Sepsis Severe uncorrected hypovolemia Intracranial mass with increased ICP Known allergy to local anesthetic
99
Indications for General Anesthesia Insufficient time to induce neuraxial anesthesia for ____ ____
urgent delivery
100
Indications for General Anesthesia failure of _____ technique
neuraxial
101
Indications for General Anesthesia _____ issues
fetal
102
Neuraxial versus General Neuraxial anesthesia has been used in more than ____% of c-sections since 1992
80
103
Neuraxial versus General increased use due to: (6)
- Increased use of LEA - Increased awareness of in situ epidural catheter, even if not used in labor, may decrease necessity of general anesthesia in an urgent situation - Improvement of neuraxial anesthesia quality - Appreciation of the airway risks with general - Desire for limited neonatal drug transfer - Ability of mother to remain awake and have support person present for birth
104
Neuraxial versus General Spinal anesthesia is considered appropriate even in the most ____ _____
urgent settings
105
Neuraxial versus General “____ _____ Spinal” SAB 8.1 +/- 3.8 minutes General induction 4.5 +/-1.4 minutes
Rapid Sequence
106
Neuraxial versus General Maternal _____ after general anesthesia is a huge motivator for the shift
mortality
107
Neuraxial versus General Maternal _____ is also lower with neuraxial
morbidity
108
Neuraxial versus General _____ blood loss
decreased
109
Neuraxial versus General _____ shivering
decreased
110
Neuraxial versus General _____ nausea
more
111
Neuraxial versus General _____ intraoperative perception of pain
more
112
Neuraxial versus General _____ time elapsed before first request for pain meds
longer
113
Neuraxial versus General neonatal outcomes??
not a huge factor
114
epidural advantages
No dural puncture required Can use in situ placed earlier Ability to titrate sensory blockade Continuous postoperative analgesia
115
epidural disadvantages
Slow onset of anesthesia Larger dose required > greater risk of maternal systemic toxicity > greater fetal drug exposure
116
CSE advantages
May be technically easier than spinal in obese Low doses of local anesthetic and opioid Rapid onset of dense block Ability to titrate sensory blockade Continuous intraoperative anesthesia Continuous postoperative analgesia
117
CSE disadvantages
Delayed verification of functioning epidural catheter
118
one shot spinal advantages
Technically simple Low doses of local anesthetic and opioids Rapid onset of dense lumbosacral and thoracic anesthesia
119
one shot spinal disadvantages
Limited duration of anesthesia Limited ability to titrate extent of sensory blockade
120
continuous spinal advantages
Low doses of local anesthetic and opioid Rapid onset of dense anesthesia Ability to titrate sensory blockade Continuous intraoperative anesthesia
121
continuous spinal disadvantages
Large dural puncture > increased risk of PDPH Possibility of overdose and total spinal
122
SAB simple, reliable, _____ onset, _____ block (more profound than epidural), _____ amount of LA needed
rapid dense small
123
SAB decreased risk of _____ ______, minimal drug transfer to fetus, _____ and prompt recovery, most common anesthesia technique for cesarean delivery in the developed world
LA toxicity predictable
124
SAB ______ bevel rarely used in OB, increased incidence in PDPH
cutting
125
SAB ___-____ needles used almost exclusively
non-cutting (aka pencil point needles)
126
believed to cause _____ trauma to the dura (pencil point)
more but the subsequent inflammation seals the hole and prevents a leak
127
SAB: Needle Size Larger needles
Greater tactile fidelity More likely to withstand high resistance (bone) without damage
128
SAB: Needle Size Smaller needles
Lower incidence of PDPH Use introducer needle
129
SAB: Approach Midline - Need more patient ______ cooperation Faster for most patients ____ painful for most patients Easier to teach
positioning Less
130
SAB: Approach Paramedian - _____ target Must think of the anatomy in ___ planes instead of 2 Still trying to puncture the dura in the midline May need a ____ ____
Larger 3 longer needle
131
SAB: Local Anesthetics Typically use ______ doses in pregnancy than non-pregnant Smaller CSF volume ______ movement of hyperbaric LA Greater sensitivity
lower Cephalad
132
SAB: Local Anesthetics _______ is predominant agent for SAB for Cesarean delivery in the USA
Bupivacaine
133
134
SAB: Adjuvant Agents - opioids Improve comfort intra and postoperative _____ Decreased need for ______ opioids
comfort intraoperative
135
SAB: Adjuvant Agents Fentanyl - Increased postoperative opioids (after 6 hours) - Decreased intraoperative ____ & _____ (20 mcg fentanyl is superior to ___ mg of _____) - Large (40-65 mcg) vs. small (15-35 mcg) (Decreased pruritus, nausea, and vomiting in small dose No difference in supplemental analgesia need)
nausea and vomiting 4 ondansetron
136
SAB: Adjuvant Agents Preservative free _____ More effective for prolonged (12-24 hr) postoperative analgesia Intrathecal morphine analgesia similar analgesia from 0.1 mg and 0.5 mg. Occurrence of pruritus appeared to be ____ _____ Occurrence of nausea and vomiting were ___ ____dependent
morphine dose dependent not dose
137
SAB: Adjuvant Agents _____- hyperbaric
Dextrose
138
SAB: Adjuvant Agents Epinephrine - increase density of _____ and _____ block, may prolong ______
sensory and motor duration
139
SAB: Adjuvant Agents Clonidine - improve _____, decreases ______, reduces peri-incisional hyperanalgesia, BLACK BOX warning in OB pts because of concerns with _______ instability
analgesia shivering hemodynamic
140
SAB: Adjuvant Agents Neostigmine - reduction in postoperative _____, no effect of FHT or _____ scores, 100% of patients in the study complained of ______
pain Apgar nausea
141
Use of epidural anesthesia for cesarean delivery has ______
increased
142
Use of epidural anesthesia for elective cesarean delivery is becoming less common: Block is ____ reliable Higher doses (5-10 times) _____ systemic absorption Risk of local anesthetic toxicity Slower onset of _____ _____ Ability to titrate level, density, and duration
less Greater sympathetic blockade
143
Combined spinal epidural (CSE) anesthesia _____ onset Reliable anesthesia block Ability to _____/______ blockade Dural puncture may enhance movement of drugs into ___________ space
Rapid augment/prolong subarachnoid
144
Most common local anesthetic for initiation and maintenance of epidural for cesarean delivery is ___ ______ with ______
2% Lidocaine with epinephrine (less than 2% may result in inadequate anesthesia)
145
3% 2-chloroprocaine has most _____ onset and ______ duration Rapid onset of hypotension Reduced clinical efficacy if administered with _____
rapid shortest opioids
146
0.5% Bupivacaine can result in surgical anesthesia - ______ onset - risk of LA toxicity from _______ _______
slower intravascular injection
147
______ 50-100 mcg results in spinal and supraspinal sites of action Improves quality of anesthesia Does not adversely affect the neonate
Fentanyl
148
________ 10-20 mcg improves intraoperative anesthesia Prolongs postoperative analgesia Minimal maternal side effects, no neonatal adverse effects
Sufentanyl
149
Clonidine Reduced requirement for postop ______ _____tension _____ _____ Warning
morphine Hypo Black Box
150
Neostigmine Modest postop analgesia, given after ____ _____
cord clamped
151
Epinephrine - Minimize systemic absorption Increase _____ & _____ blockade density Prolong duration Controversial in ______ women
sensory and motor preeclamptic
152
Sodium Bicarbonate - More ___-____ molecules Speeds onset Improves _____
non-ionized quality
153
Combined Spinal-Epidural Anesthesia: CSE Combines the rapid and predictable onset of a spinal with the ability to _____ with the epidural catheter
titrate
154
Combined Spinal-Epidural Anesthesia: CSE Epidural needle functions as a longer _____
introducer
155
Combined Spinal-Epidural Anesthesia: CSE Use of ____ ____ to confirm correct positioning
spinal needle
156
Combined Spinal-Epidural Anesthesia: CSE May be able to use _____ spinal doses
lower
157
Laboring patient > turns to unscheduled c-section Assess how/is the epidural ______
functioning
158
Local anesthesia choices
0.5% Bupivacaine 2% Lidocaine 3% 2-Chloroprocaine More non-ionized molecules speeds onset, improves density
159
Extension of a T10 level of analgesia to a T4 level of anesthesia typically requires ___-___ mL of local with one or more adjuvants
15-20 mL
160
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Neuraxial technique is ______, but there are some cases where general is indicated
preferred
161
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction All parturients are considered __________________
full stomachs
162
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction In contrast to general surgical procedures, the abdomen is prepped and draped _____ induction of general anesthesia.
BEFORE
163
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Rapid-sequence induction following ______
preoxygenation
164
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Propofol 2-2.8 mg/kg is typically used to induce ______ (1-1.5 mg/kg) or ______ (0.3 mg/kg) may be used in the case of hemodynamic instability
Ketamine etomidate
165
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Succinylcholine (__-___ mg/kg) or Rocuronium (__mg/kg)
1-1.5 1
166
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Smaller diameter endotracheal tube (___-___) with a semirigid stylet
6.0-6.5
167
Cesarean Section General Anesthesia: Induction Anticipation of a difficult airway or failed intubation attempt should invoke the ____ ____ ____
difficult airway algorithm.
168
Indications for General Anesthesia Maternal _____ or failure to cooperate with neuraxial technique
refusal
169
Indications for General Anesthesia Presence of comorbid conditions that contraindicate neuraxial:
Coagulopathy Infection at insertion site Sepsis Severe uncorrected hypovolemia Intracranial mass with increased ICP Known allergy to local anesthetic
170
Indications for General Anesthesia Insufficient time to induce neuraxial anesthesia for ____ ____
urgent delivery
171
Indications for General Anesthesia Failure of neuraxial technique _____ issues
Fetal
172
General Anesthesia: Maintenance - GOALS
Adequate maternal and fetal oxygenation with maintenance of normocapnia (30-32 mmHg) Appropriate depth of anesthesia to promote maternal comfort and optimize surgical conditions Minimal effects on uterine tone Minimal adverse effects on the neonate
173
Fetal oxygenation is maximal when maternal FiO2 _____ is used, but it does not seem to alter Apgar scores.
1.o
174
Excessive ventilation can cause uteroplacental vasoconstriction and shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the ______.
left
175
___ inhalational agent has been shown to be superior to others.
No
176
ET levels of inhalational agent of _______ MAC may reduce the effect of oxytocin on uterine tone > increased blood loss.
1-1.5 TEST QUESTION
177
IV _____ are usually withheld until after the clamping of the umbilical cord.
opioids
178
Additional _____ _____ is rarely needed
neuromuscular blockade
179
U-D interval longer than ____________ = lower Apgar scores and fetal pH
180 seconds
180
Post partum women are considered full stomachs for at least ___ weeks.
6
181
emergence and extubation ________ position Purposeful response to verbal commands Return of _____ _____ reflexes
Semirecumbent airway protective
182
Majority of deaths associated with hypoventilation or airway obstruction occurs during ______, _______, or _______!
emergence, extubation, or recovery
183
Propofol Rapid onset, rapid recovery, favorable side effect profile More ____ ______ in pregnancy Readily crosses the placenta _____ Apgar and neurobehavioral scores for neonates than thiopental Greater incidence of maternal hypotension ______ depth of anesthesia
rapid clearance Lower Lighter
184
Ketamine ________ properties make it an ideal induction agent for urgent delivery in patient with hypotension or acute asthma exacerbation ____ _____ in preeclampsia Hallucinations/delirium Ketamine for induction -> decreased _____ _____ _____ than thiopental induction
Sympathomimetic Not desirable postop morphine consumption
185
Etomidate Rapid onset – minimal _______ effects Ideal for hemodynamic instability or severe cardiac disease Rapid ______/rapid ______ Nausea and vomiting Transient reduction in neonatal _____ _____
cardiorespiratory hydrolysis recovery cortisol production
186
Midazolam ____ acting, ______ soluble Typically avoided due to amnestic properties Used with _____
Short water ketamine
187
Succinylcholine Muscle relaxant of choice for RSI of general anesthesia 1-1.5 mg/kg = Ideal intubating conditions in about 45 seconds Highly ______, ______ soluble, small amounts cross placenta Very large doses (10 mg/kg) required to lead to _____ _____ sufficient to cause neonatal weakness Rapidly metabolized by _________ (decreased in pregnancy)
ionized, water placental transfer pseudocholinesterase
188
Rocuronium Suitable alternative for RSI 0.6 mg/kg = ideal intubating conditions in about ____ ______ No impact on _____ ____
79 seconds Apgar scores
189
Vecuronium
0.1 mg/kg Slower onset (144 seconds)
190
Atricurium Less desirable agent for RSI because of ____ _____ required May result in significant ______ release and hypotension
high doses histamine
191
Nitrous Oxide _____ effect on maternal blood pressure Minimal effect on uterine _____ Allows for reduction in use of halogenated agents 50-67% nitrous alone => awareness in 12-26% of cases Transferred rapidly across the placenta Neonates exposed to nitrous required more ______
Minimal tone resuscitation
192
Volatile Agents Decreased uterine tone Oxytocin induced contractions completely _____ at ___ _____ Decreased (28%) MAC Return to normal by 72 hours post partum
inhibited at 2 MAC
193
Opioids All cross the placenta, especially high _______ solubility Usually avoid until after delivery Meperidine’s active metabolite _________________ can accumulate in the mother and neonate resulting in respiratory and neurobehavioral alterations
lipid normeperidine
194
Few reports of malignant hyperthermia during pregnancy The rarity of MH events in pregnancy suggests pregnancy _____ _____ the occurrence of MH
protects against
195
MH is an ________ __________ _________ gene
inherited autosomal dominant
196
All anesthetic agents ____ the _____
cross placenta
197
Cesarean delivery is a major abdominal surgical procedure May go to PACU, patient’s room, or somewhere else _____ _____ _____ has been cited as a recurring factor in maternal deaths
Inadequate postoperative care
198
“Appropriate equipment and personnel should be available for obstetric patients recovering from major _____ or ______ anesthesia.”
neuraxial or general
199
Oral intake – early intake (4-8 hours) associated with shorter time to return of ____ ____ and shorter hospital stay
bowel sounds
200
Urinary catheter No differences for general vs neuraxial Risk factors for urinary retention:
Post op opioid analgesia (especially epidural) Multiple gestation Low BMI
201
Anesthesia Complications _____ & ______ Avoidance of sedative premedication Deliberate low volatile concentration Use of muscle relaxants Reduced anesthetic doses in hypotension or hemorrhage Conversion to general after failed neuraxial technique Mistaken assumption that high baseline sympathetic tone is responsible for intraoperative tachycardia
Awareness and Recall
202
Dyspnea Hypo______ of brainstem Blunted thoracic ______ Position
perfusion proprioception
203
Anesthesia Complications Hypo______ Severe preeclampsia IV fluids Vasopressors
tension
204
Anesthesia Complications Neuraxial blockade _____ 4-14% of epidurals 0.5-4% of spinals
failure
205
Anesthesia Complications High neuraxial blockade Impaired ______ Unconsiousness Respiratory depression ______cardia Hypotension
phonation Brady
206
Anesthesia Complications ____ and _____ Hypotension Uterotonic agents, ergot alkaloids Surgical stimuli
Nausea and vomiting
207
Anesthesia Complications perioperative _____
pain
208
Anesthesia Complications Pruritus ___-____% incidence More common intrathecally than epidurally Not an _____
30-100 allergy
209
Anesthesia Complications Hypothermia and shivering 66 and 85% incidence respectively Spinal reduces ____ ____ more rapidly than epidural Shivering incidence similar but less severe in spinal group ______ improves for epidural, but not spinal
core temp Prewarming
210
Obstetric Complications _____ _____ Leading cause of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality worldwide
Postpartum Hemorrhage
211
Obstetric Complications _____ _____ More common with c-section High parity Overdistended uterus (multiple gestation, polyhydramnios, macrosomia) Prolonged labor (augmented by oxytocin) Chorioamnionitis Abnormal placentation Retained placental tissue Poor perfusion of the uterine myometrium (hypotension)
Uterine atony
212
Obstetric Complications Obstetric _______ 0.03-0.33% incidence High risk procedure GU injuries are common
hysterectomy
213
Obstetric Complications _________ ________ Operative delivery Physiologic changes of pregnancy History Highest risk in first week postpartum Prophylaxis? Hydration Early mobilization Pneumatic compression devices Pharmacologic prophylaxis in high risk patients
Thromboembolic events