OB-GYNE Flashcards
(250 cards)
1
Q
Nullipara is a woman who has never completed a pregnancy beyond
- 10 weeks
- 20 weeks
- 30 weeks
A
20 weeks
2
Q
a woman who been delivered only once of a fetus or fetuses born alive or dead with an estimted AOG of at least 20 weeks
- primipara
- multipara
- grand multipara
A
- primipara
3
Q
a woman who has completed 2 or more pregnancies to 20 weeks’ gestation or more
- primipara
- multipara
- grand multipara
A
- multipara
4
Q
a woman who has had at least 5 births (live or still born) that are at least 20 weeks age of gestation
- primipara
- multipara
- grand multipara
A
gran multipara
5
Q
time of fertilization until 8 weeks (10 weeks gestational age)
- embryo
- fetus
- infant
- term
- postterm
A
embryo
6
Q
after 8 weeks until time of birth
- embryo
- fetus
- infant
- term
- postterm
A
fetus
7
Q
between delivery to 1 year
- embryo
- fetus
- infant
- term
- postterm
A
infant
8
Q
37 weeks - 42 weeks
- embryo
- fetus
- infant
- term
- postterm
A
term
9
Q
beyond 42 weeks
- embryo
- fetus
- infant
- term
- postterm
A
postterm
10
Q
up to completion of 14 weeks
- first trimester
- second trimester
- third trimester
A
first trimester
11
Q
up through 28 weeks
- first trimester
- second trimester
- third trimester
A
second trimester
12
Q
through 42
- first trimester
- second trimester
- third trimester
A
third trimester
13
Q
AOG is usually _______ more than the DA
- 1 week
- 2 weeks
- 3 weeks
A
2 weeks
14
Q
primigravida quickening
- 16-18 weeks
- 18-20 weeks
- 20-22 weeks
A
18-20 weeks
15
Q
multigravida quickening
- 16-18 weeks
- 18-20 weeks
- 20-22 weeks
A
16-18 weeks
16
Q
Naegele Rule
A
subtract 3 months, add 7 days to the first day of the last period
17
Q
conditions with very high hCG
A
- multiple pregnancy
- molar pregnancy
- exogenous injection
- impaired renal clearance
- hCG-secreting tumors from GI, ovary, bladder lungs
18
Q
mnemonic of gynecologic history
MIDAS
A
- menarche
- interval
- duration of flow
- amount
- symptoms
19
Q
parts of OB score
A
Gravidy, Parity followed by (term, preterm, abortion, living children)
20
Q
the height of the uterine fundus in cm correlates with the AOG in weeks between ________
A
20-34 weeks AOG
21
Q
identifies which fetal pole occupies the uterine fundus
- first leopold
- second leopold
- third leopold
- fourth leopold
A
first leopold
22
Q
palms are placed on either side of the maternal abdomen
- first leopold
- second leopold
- third leopold
- fourth leopold
A
second leopold
23
Q
determines whether the presenting part is engaged or not
- first leopold
- second leopold
- third leopold
- fourth leopold
A
third leopold
24
Q
the examiner faces the mother’s feet and with the tips of the first three fingers of each hand, exerts deep pressure in the direction of the axis
- first leopold
- second leopold
- third leopold
- fourth leopold
A
fourth leopold
25
Doppler ultrasound
- 10 weeks
- 22 weeks
- 30 weeks
10 weeks
26
stethoscope in 80% of women
- 10 weeks
- 22 weeks
- 30 weeks
22 weeks
27
heart sounds are expected to be heard in all
- 10 weeks
- 22 weeks
- 30 weeks
22 weeks
28
weight gain with normal bmi
11.5 to 16 kg overall
25 to 35 lb overall
1 lb/week in 2nd and 3 trimester
29
laboratory test on first ob visit
- CBC
- blood typing
- pap smear
- FBS
- urine culture
- hepatitis B surface antigen
- rubella antibody screening
- syphilis serology (RPR or VDRL)
- HIV serology offered
30
laboratory test at 24-28 weeks
- CBC
| - 75-gram OGTT
31
immunization in pregnancy (3)
- tetanus-diptheria-acellular pertussis (TDaP)
- influenza vaccine
- hepatitis B
32
contraindicated immunization in pregnancy
- measles
- mumps
- rubella
- varicella
- HPV
33
prenatal visit schedule
- every 4 weeks until 28 weeks
- every 2 weeks until 36 weeks
- weekly thereafter
34
most common presentation of abortion
vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain
35
what is recurrent pregnancy loss
when a woman who has had 3 or more consecutive spontaneous abortions
36
diagnostics for abortion
- urine or serum beta-hCG
- CBC, blood typing
- transvaginal ultrasound
37
cervix closed
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
threatened, missed, complete
38
cervix open
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
incomplete, inevitable
39
compatible uterus
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
threatened, missed
40
uterus incompatible
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
incomplete, inevitable, complete
41
bed rest, tocolysis
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
threatened
42
cervical ripening +/- curettage
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
missed
43
curettage
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
incomplete
44
expectant, oxytocin, curettage
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
inevitable
45
observe
- threatened
- missed
- incomplete
- inevitable
- complete
complete
46
abortion medical management less than 12 weeks
prostaglandin, methotrexate
47
abortion medical management more than 12 weeks
prostaglandin, methotrexate, oxytocin
48
classic triad of symptoms in ectopic pregnancy
- amenorrhea
- abdominal pain
- vaginal bleeding/spotting
49
presentation of ruptured ectopic pregnancy
hypotension, tachycardia, or signs of peritoneal irritation secondary to hemoperitoneum
50
most common type of ectopic pregnancy
tubal pregnancy
51
types of ectopic pregnancy
- tubal pregnancy
- heterotropic pregnancy
- cervical pregnancy
- ovarian pregnancy
- abdominal pregnancy
- cesarean scar pregnancy
52
most to least common types of tubal pregnancy
ampulla, isthmic, fimbrial, and interstitial
53
most common medical management for ectopic pregnancy
methotrexate (MTX)
54
mechanism of action of mtx
folic acid antagonist; binds to dihydrofolate reductase which reduces dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, the active form of folic acid > arrested DNA, RNA and protein synthesis of rapidly proliferating tissue such as trophoblasts
55
patient selection for mtx
- asymptomatic, compliant, hemodynamically stable patient
- low initial b-hCG (usually <5,00- mIU/mL)
- small ectopic pregnancy size (<3.5 cm)
- no cardiac activity
56
used to remove unruptured pregnancy that is <2 cm in size; 10 to 15 mm linear incision is made at the antimesenteric border; products of conception will extrude or will be flushed out; incision will not be sutured
- salpingostomy
- salpingotomy
- salpingectomy
salpingostomy
57
same as salpingostomy except that the incision is closed with delayed-absorbable suture
- salpingostomy
- salpingotomy
- salpingectomy
salpingotomy
58
complete excision of the fallopian tube
- salpingostomy
- salpingotomy
- salpingectomy
salpingectomy
59
risk factor of hydatidiform mole
- extremes in maternal age
- paternal age
- OB history
- racial factors
- diet and nutrition
60
46 XX karyotype
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
61
initial hCG level >100k mIU/mL
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
62
theca lutein cysts 25/30%
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
63
rate of subsequent GTN 15-25%
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
64
embryo-fetus absent
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
65
villous edema widespread
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
66
moderate to severe trohpoblastic proliferation
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
67
negative p57(KIP2) immunostaining
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
68
paternal chromosome only plus empty ovum
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
69
gives rise to generalized swelling of placental villi with marked trophoblastic proliferation and absent fetal component
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
chm
70
1 maternal (23X) and 2 paternal chromosomes (23X, 23Y)
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
71
maternal chromosome gives rise to fetal component
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
72
paternal chromosome causes focal swelling of placental villi and milder form of trophoblastic invasion
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
73
69 XXX or 69 XXY
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
74
initial hCG <100k mIU/mL
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
75
theca lutein cysts are rare
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
76
rate of subsequent GTN is 0.4-5%
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
77
embryo-fetus often present
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
78
villous edema is focal
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
79
throphoblastic proliferation is focal, slight to moderate
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
80
positive p57(KIP2) immunostaining
- complete h. mole/CHM
- partial h. mole/PHM
phm
81
common presentation of h. mole
- vaginal bleeding - most common
- amenorrhea
- (+) PT
- uterus large for AOG
- absence of FHT
82
first and second line chemoprophylaxis
- first line: methotrexate
| - second line: actinomycin D
83
normal fetal activity: ____ fetal movements in up to ___ hours is normal
10 fetal movements in up to 2 hours is normal
84
what is the contraction stress test (CST) a test of?
uteroplacental function
85
requirements for satisfactory CST (3)
- 3 or more contractions
- 40 seconds or more
- 10 minute period
86
methods of CST
- oxytocin infusion
| - nipple stimulation
87
no late or significant variable decelerations
- negative
- positive
- equivocal-suspicious
- equivocal-hyperstimulatory
- unsatisfactory
negative
88
later decelerations following 50% or more of contractions (even if there are fewer than 3 contractions in 10 min)
- negative
- positive
- equivocal-suspicious
- equivocal-hyperstimulatory
- unsatisfactory
positive
89
intermittent late or significant variable decelerations
- negative
- positive
- equivocal-suspicious
- equivocal-hyperstimulatory
- unsatisfactory
equivocal-suspicious
90
decelerations in the presence of contractions more frequent than every 2 min or lasting longer than 90 sec
- negative
- positive
- equivocal-suspicious
- equivocal-hyperstimulatory
- unsatisfactory
equivocal-hyperstimulatory
91
less than 3 contractions in 10 min or uninterpretable tracing
- negative
- positive
- equivocal-suspicious
- equivocal-hyperstimulatory
- unsatisfactory
unsatisfactory
92
what are the 4 BPS parameters
- fetal tone
- fetal movement
- fetal breathing
- fetal heart reactivity
93
CNS center is cortex-subcortical area
- fetal tone
- fetal movement
- fetal breathing
- fetal heart reactivity
fetal tone
94
CNS center is cortex-nuclei
- fetal tone
- fetal movement
- fetal breathing
- fetal heart reactivity
fetal movement
95
CNS center is ventral surface of 4th ventricle
- fetal tone
- fetal movement
- fetal breathing
- fetal heart reactivity
fetal breathing
96
CNS center is medulla & posterior hypothalamus
- fetal tone
- fetal movement
- fetal breathing
- fetal heart reactivity
fetal heart reactivity
97
in the hypoxia cascade, what is the order that BPS parameters are affected?
fetal heart reactivity > fetal breathing > fetal movement > fetal tone
98
normal fetal heart rate (fhr) patterns
- baseline fetal heart rate: 110-160 bpm
- moderate variability: amplitude 6-25 bpm
- no late or variable decelerations
- presence or absence of early decelerations
- presence of absence of accelerations
99
what is accelerations of fetal heart rate?
visually apparent abrupt increase (onset to peak in less than 30 sec) in FHR
100
mostly the onset, nadir, and recovery of deceleration are coincident with the beginning, peak, and ending of a contraction, respectively
- early deceleration
- late deceleration
- variable deceleration
- prolonged deceleration
- sinusoidal pattern
early deceleration
101
most the onset, nadir, and recovery of deceleration occur after the beginning, peak, and ending of a contraction, respectively
- early deceleration
- late deceleration
- variable deceleration
- prolonged deceleration
- sinusoidal pattern
- late deceleration
102
deceleration pattern due to umbilical cord occlusion
- early deceleration
- late deceleration
- variable deceleration
- prolonged deceleration
- sinusoidal pattern
variable deceleration
103
decrease in FHR >/= bpm, lasting for >/=2 min but < 10 min duration
- early deceleration
- late deceleration
- variable deceleration
- prolonged deceleration
- sinusoidal pattern
prolonged deceleration
104
visually apparent, smooth, sine wave-like undulating pattern in FHR baseline with a cycle frequency of 3-5 bpm which persists for >/= 20 min
- early deceleration
- late deceleration
- variable deceleration
- prolonged deceleration
- sinusoidal pattern
sinusoidal pattern
105
abnormal fetal heart rate assessment
Either:
* absent baseline variability + any of the following:
- recurrent late deceleration
- recurrent variable deceleration
- bradycardia
- sinusoidal pattern
106
Bishop score of 9
high likelihood for a successful induction
107
Bishop score of = 4
unfavorable cervix and may be an indication for cervical ripening
108
floating
- 5
0
+ 5
-5
109
engaged
- 5
0
+ 5
0
110
crowning
- 5
0
+ 5
+5
111
pharmacological techniques for preinduction cervical ripening
- dinoprostone
- misoprostol
- nitric oxide donors
112
mechanical techniques for preinduction cervical ripening
- transcervical catheter
| - hygroscopic cervical dilator
113
methods of labor induction (4)
- membrane stripping
- oxytocin
- nipple stimulation
- amniotomy
114
relation of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother
- fetal lie
- fetal presentation
- fetal attitude or posture
- fetal position
fetal lie
115
presenting part foremost in the birth canal or in closest proximity with it
- fetal lie
- fetal presentation
- fetal attitude or posture
- fetal position
fetal presentation
| cephalic, breech, shoulder
116
fetus is flexed or extended
- fetal lie
- fetal presentation
- fetal attitude or posture
- fetal position
fetal attitude or posture
117
relationship of an arbitrarily chosen presenting part to the right or left side of the maternal birth canal
- fetal lie
- fetal presentation
- fetal attitude or posture
- fetal position
fetal position
118
stage of cervical effacement and dilation
- 1st stage
- 2nd stage
- 3rd stage
1st stage
119
stage of fetal expulsion
- 1st stage
- 2nd stage
- 3rd stage
2nd stage
120
stage of placental separation and expulsion
- 1st stage
- 2nd stage
- 3rd stage
3rd stage
121
divisions of labor (3)
- preparatory division
- dilational division
- pelvic division
122
cervix dilate little but connective tissue components change
- preparatory division
- dilational division
- pelvic division
preparatory division
123
dilation proceeds at its most rapid rate, unaffected by sedation
- preparatory division
- dilational division
- pelvic division
dilational division
124
cardinal fetal movements take place in this division
- preparatory division
- dilational division
- pelvic division
pelvic division
125
prolonged latent phase of > 20 hours
- nullipara
- multipara
nullipara
126
prolonged latent phase of >14 hours
- nullipara
- multipara
multipara
127
rate of cervical dilation for nullipara
- 1.2 cm/hr
- 1.5 cm/hr
- 1.8 cm/hr
1.2 cm/hr
128
rate of cervical dilation for multipara
- 1.2 cm/hr
- 1.5 cm/hr
- 1.8 cm/hr
1.5 cm/hr
129
Median duration of 2nd stage of cardinal movements (nullipara, multipara)
- nullipara: 50 min
| - multipara: 20 min
130
what are the cardinal movements
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
131
biparietal diameter passes through the pelvic usually either transversely or obliquely
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
- engagement
132
first requisite for birth of the newborn
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
descent
133
the chin is brought into more intimate contact with the fetal thorax
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
flexion
134
the occiput gradually moves toward the symphysis pubis anteriorly from its original position
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
internal rotation
135
base of the occiput is in direct contact with the inferior margin of the symphysis pubis
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
extension
136
rotation of the fetal body and serves to bring its biacromial diameter into relation with the anterposterior diameter of the pelvic outlet
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
external rotation
137
gentle downward traction to deliver the anterior shoulder > upward traction to deliver the posterior shoulder > the rest of the body
- engagement
- descent
- flexion
- internal rotation
- extension
- external rotation
- expulsion
expulsion
138
pelvic planes are (3)
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
139
landmarks: promontory, alae of the sacrum, linea terminalis, pubic rami, symphysis pubis
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
inlet
140
landmark: at the level of the ischial spines
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
midplane
141
landmark: ischial tuberosities
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
outlet
142
diameters: diagonal conjugate (dc), obstetric conjugate, true/anatomic conjugate
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
inlet
143
diameters: anterposterior diameter, interspinous diameter
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
midplane
144
diameters: pubic arch, interberous diameter
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
outlet
145
during labor, engagement is defined by the fetal BPD passing through this plane
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
inlet
146
plane of least dimensions
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
midplane
147
seldom obstructs vaginal delivery
- inlet
- midplane
- outlet
outlet
148
promontory, alae of the sacrum
- posterior inlet landmark
- lateral inlet landmark
- anterior inlet landmark
posterior inlet landmark
149
linea terminalis
- posterior inlet landmark
- lateral inlet landmark
- anterior inlet landmark
lateral inlet landmark
150
pubic rami, symphysis pubis
- posterior inlet landmark
- lateral inlet landmark
- anterior inlet landmark
anterior inlet landmark
151
> 11.5 cm
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
diagonal conjugate
152
promontory to lower margin of symphysis
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
diagonal conjugate
153
> 10 cm
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
obstetric conjugate
154
shortest distance between the promontory and symphysis pubis
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
obstetric conjugate
155
11 cm
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
true/anatomic conjugate
156
promontory to upper margin of symphysis
- diagonal conjugate (DC)
- obstetric conjugate
- true/anatomic conjugate
true/anatomic conjugate
157
signs of placental separation (4)
- sudden gush of blood
- globular and firmer fundus
- lengthening of umbilical cord
- rise of uterus into the abdomen
158
unang yakap/essential newborn care (DOH) (4)
- immediate and thorough drying
- early skin-to-skin contact
- properly timed cord clamping
- non-separation for early breastfeeding
159
First-line uterotonic
high-dose oxytocin
160
Second-line uterotonic
- methylergonovine maleate
- carbetocin
- carboprost
161
surgical repair relatively easy
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
162
faulty healing is rare
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
163
anatomical results is excellent
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
164
less blood loss
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
165
dyspareunia is rare
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
166
extensions are common
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- midline episiotomy
167
surgical repair
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
168
faulty healing is more common
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
169
postoperative pain is common
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
170
anatomical results occasionally faulty
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
171
more blood loss
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
172
occasional dyspareunia
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
173
extensions uncommon
- midline episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
- mediolateral episiotomy
174
fourchette, perineal skin, and vaginal mucous membrane but not the underlying fascia and muscle
- 1st degree perineal laceration
- 2nd degree perineal laceration
- 3rd degree perineal laceration
- 4th degree perineal laceration
1st degree
175
aside from skin and mucous membrane, the fascia and muscles of the perineal body are involved
- 1st degree perineal laceration
- 2nd degree perineal laceration
- 3rd degree perineal laceration
- 4th degree perineal laceration
2nd degree
176
lacerations extend through skin, mucous membrane, perineal body and anal sphincter (EAS) is torn
- 1st degree perineal laceration
- 2nd degree perineal laceration
- 3rd degree perineal laceration
- 4th degree perineal laceration
3rd degree
177
extension of laceration through the rectal mucosa to expose lumen of the rectum
- 1st degree perineal laceration
- 2nd degree perineal laceration
- 3rd degree perineal laceration
- 4th degree perineal laceration
4th degree
178
<50% of the external anal sphincter (EAS) is torn
- 3a lacerations
- 3b lacerations
- 3c lacerations
3a
179
>50% of EAS is torn, internal anal sphincter (IAS) is intact
- 3a lacerations
- 3b lacerations
- 3c lacerations
3b
180
EAS and IAS are torn
- 3a lacerations
- 3b lacerations
- 3c lacerations
3c
181
what are the indications for operative vaginal delivery (OVD)
- maternal indications
- prolonged second stage
- suspicion of immediate or potential fetal compromise
- shortening of 2nd stage for maternal benefit
182
how is prolonged second stage defined for nulliparous
>3 hours with regional anesthesia
| >2 hours without regional anesthesia
183
how is prolonged second stage defined for multiparous
>2 hours with regional anesthesia
| >1 hour without regional anesthesia
184
criteria for outlet forceps extraction (OFE) (5)
- scalp is visible at introitus without separating the labie
- fetal skull has reached pelvic floor
- sagittal suture is in AP diameter or ROA/LOA or ROP/LOP
- fetal head is at or on perineum
- rotation does not exceed 45 degrees
185
prerequisites (forceps)
- fully dilated cervix
- occiput/vertex presentation
- ruptured membranes
- CPD not suspected
- engaged head, experience operator, emptied bladder
- position known, painless (adequate anesthesia)
- size (fetal weight) estimated
186
where is the flexion point for vacuum extraction?
approximately 3 cm in front of the posterior fontanel and approximately 6 cm from the anterior fontanel
187
risk factors
- extremes of amniotic fluid volume
- multifetal gestation
- hydrocephaly
- anencephaly
- structural uterine abnormalities
- placenta previa
- pelvic tumors
- prior breech delivery
188
fetus is expelled entirely without any traction or manipulation other than support of the newborn
- spontaneous breech delivery
- partial breech extraction
- total breech extraction
spontaneous breech delivery
189
fetus is delivered spontaneously as far as the umbilicus, but the remainder of the body is delivered by provider traction and assisted maneuvers, with or without maternal expulsive efforts
- spontaneous breech delivery
- partial breech extraction
- total breech extraction
partial breech extraction
190
entire fetal body is extracted by the provider
- spontaneous breech delivery
- partial breech extraction
- total breech extraction
total breech extraction
191
cardinal movements in breech presentation
- engagement and descent
- internal rotation
- lateral flexion
- external rotation
- internal rotation
- expulsion
192
maternal indications for cesarean delivery
- prior cesarean delivery
- abnormal placentation (e.g. placenta accrete)
- prior classical hysterotomy
- unknown uterine scar type
- uterine incision dehiscence
- select prior surgeries (full-thickness, myomectomy, trachelectomy, pelvic reconstructive surgery)
- genital tract obstructive mass (e.g. tumor previa)
- invasive cervical cancer
- HIV or HSV infection
- perimortem delivery
193
maternal-fetal indications for cesarean delivery
- CPD
- failed OVD
- placenta previa or placental abruption
194
fetal indications for cesarean delivery
- nonreassuring fetal status
- malpresentation
- macrosomia
- congenital anomoly
- abnormal umbilical cord doppler study
- thrombocytopenia
- prior neonatal birth trauma
195
Types of suprapubic transverse incision
- Pfannenstiel
- Maylard
- Joel-Cohen
- Misgav Ladach
196
Skin incised in a transverse, slightly curvilinear manner 3cm above the border of the symphysis
- Pfannenstiel
- Maylard
- Joel-Cohen
- Misgav Ladach
Pfannenstiel
197
main difference with Pfannenstiel is that rectus abdominis muscle bellies are transected in this technique
- Pfannenstiel
- Maylard
- Joel-Cohen
- Misgav Ladach
Maylard
198
greater use of blunt dissection; a straight 10cm transverse skin incision is made 3cm below the ASIS
- Pfannenstiel
- Maylard
- Joel-Cohen
- Misgav Ladach
Joel-Cohen
199
differs from Joel-Cohen in that the peritineum is entered bluntly
- Pfannenstiel
- Maylard
- Joel-Cohen
- Misgav Ladach
Misgav Ladach
200
low transverse cesarean incision
- Kerr
- Kronig
Kerr
201
preferred and most common uterine incision
- Kerr
- Kronig
Kerr
202
associated with less bleeding and risk of rupture
- Kerr
- Kronig
Kerr
203
low-vertical incision
- Kerr
- Kronig
Kronig
204
confined to the lower uterine segment (LUS)
- Kerr
- Kronig
Kronig
205
periurethral glands
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
206
lesser vestibular glands
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
207
homologous of prostrate
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
208
tubulo alveolar gland type
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
209
adjacent to the urethra
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
210
common pathology is urethral diverticulum
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- skene's glands
211
vulvovaginal glands
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- bartholin's glands
212
greater vestibular glands
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- bartholin's glands
213
compound alveolar/compound acinar gland type
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- bartholin's glands
214
4 and 8 o'clock of the vagina
- skene's glands
- bartholin's glands
- bartholin's glands
215
supplied by the cervico-vaginal branch of uterine artery
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- upper 1/3
216
external and internal iliac nodes
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- upper 1/3
| - middle 1/3
217
innervated by sympathetic via hypogastric plexus; parasympathetic via S2-S4 (low density)
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- upper 1/3
| - middle 1/3
218
supported by upper portion of cardinal ligaments
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- upper 1/3
219
inferior vesical artery blood supply
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- middle 1/3
220
supported by levator ani muscle and lower portion of cardinal ligaments
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- middle 1/3
221
supplied by middle rectal and internal pudendal artery
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- lower 1/3
222
drained by inguinal nodes
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- lower 1/3
223
innervated by general somatic via the pudendal nerve
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- lower 1/3
224
supported by the urogenital and pelvic diaphragm
- upper 1/3
- middle 1/3
- lower 1/3
- lower 1/3
225
what are the segments of the fallopian tube?
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
226
1 to 2 cm in length and is surrounded by myometrium
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
- intramural interstitial
227
ectopic pregnancy at this area result in severe maternal morbidity
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
- intramural interstitial
228
the narrow portion of the tube that adjoins the uterus, passes gradually into the wider, lateral portion
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
isthmus
229
narrowest portion
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
isthmus
230
preferred portion for applying clips and tubal ligation
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
isthmus
231
it is wider and more tortuous in its course than other segments
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
ampulla
232
most common site of fertilization
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
ampulla
233
tunnel shaped opening of the distal end of the fallopian tube
- intramural interstitial
- isthmus
- ampulla
- infundibulum
infundibulum
234
ligaments of the ovary
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
235
attaches to the anterior border of the ovary
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
mesovarium
236
contains the arterial anastomotic branches of the ovarian and uterine arteries, a plexus of veins, and the lateral end of the ovarian ligament
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
- mesovarium
237
narrow, short, fibrous band that extends from the lower pole of the ovary to the uterus
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
- ovarian ligament
238
contains the ovarian artery, ovarian veins, and accompanying nerves
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
239
attaches the upper pole of the ovary to the lateral pelvic wall
- mesovarium
- ovarian ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
- infundibulopelvic ligament
240
blood supply of the ovaries
- ovarian arteries
| - ovarian veins
241
left ovarian vein drains into
- renal vein
- inferior vena cava
left renal vein
242
right ovarian vein drains into
- renal vein
- inferior vena cava
inferior vena cava
243
diaphragms and ligaments of the ovaries
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
244
important in the control of urination, in parturition, and in maintaining fecal continence
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
pelvic diaphragm
245
facilitates equal distribution of intrabdominal pressure during activities such as coughing
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
pelvic diaphragm
246
divide the pelvic cavity into anterior and posterior compartments
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
broad ligament
247
carries the reproductive structures, ovarian arteries and ligaments, and uterine arteries and ligaments
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
- broad ligament
248
provide the major support of the uterus and cervix
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
cardinal ligament
249
from posterolateral to the supravaginal portion of the cervix encircling the rectum then inserts into the fascia over S2 and S3
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
uterosacral ligament
250
Extend from the lateral portion of the
uterus, arising below and anterior to origin of the oviducts, that is continuous with the broad ligament, outward and downward to the inguinal canal terminating at upper portion of labia majora
- pelvic diaphragm
- urogenital diaphragm
- broad ligament
- cardinal ligament
- uterosacral ligament
- round ligament
round ligament
