OB Kahoots Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

A patient’s LNMP was January 28th. What is her EDB?

A

November 4

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2
Q

How many days in each month?

A

jan - 31

feb - 28

mar - 31

apr - 30

may -31

june - 30

july - 31

aug - 31

sep - 30

oct - 31

nov - 30

dec - 31

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3
Q

A prenatal client had twin boys at 35 weeks, a daughter at 38 weeks, 2 SAB’s at 7 weeks. GTPAL?

A

G5 T1 P1 A2 L3

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4
Q

To relieve a leg cramp, the patient should be instructed to?

A

dorsiflex the foot

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5
Q

The maternal task that begins in the first trimester and continues through the neonatal period?

A

developing attachment with the baby

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6
Q

The purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test is to?

A

apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus

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7
Q

A patient is worried that she has had nosebleeds. She is concerned about leukemia. The best response?

A

nosebleeds are a common occurence during pregnancy

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8
Q

The nurse explains that the patient can expect to see her provider every 4 weeks initially so that?

A

the condition of the mother and fetus can be monitored

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9
Q

The nurse teaches a patient that one of the best mothods for preventing venous stasis is to?

A

rest often with the feet elevated

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for patients in the clinic who are all 35 weeks. Which patient should be seen first?

a. ankle edema in the afternoon
b. backache with prolonged standing
c. SOB after climbing the stairs
d. abdominal pain

A

d - abdominal pain

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11
Q

To increase her folic acid intake, what snack would be most beneficial for a pregnant woman?

A

orange juice and fortified cereal

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12
Q

What is the nutritional recommendation for fluids for a pregnant patient?

A

daily intake should be 8-10 cups, mostly water

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13
Q

The usual reason for an amniocentesis at 35 weeks would be to?

A

determine fetal lung maturity

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14
Q

The results of an NST shows 3 accels in 10 mins. The nurse’s next action should be to?

A

document these findings

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15
Q

When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?

A

first trimester

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16
Q

Which diagnostic test evaluates the effect of fetal movement on fetal heart rate activity?

A

nonstress test (NST)

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17
Q

The patient is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The woman is in which phase of labor?

A

transition

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18
Q

Labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by?

A

pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac

19
Q

A patient is dilated to 5 cm. What phase of labor does the nurse recognize the woman to be in?

20
Q

During which phase is the best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to a woman?

21
Q

A woman received 25 mg of Demerol IV 1 hour before delivery. What drug should be available?

A

naloxone (narcan)

22
Q

A woman delivered a 9 lb, 10 oz baby 1 hour ago and states she “feels all wet underneath.” Your first action?

A

assess fundal firmness

23
Q

Ten minutes after delivery, the nurse can expect to palpate the fundus?

A

halfway between the pubic bone and the umbilicus

24
Q

The nurse should include in patient teaching that around day 6 or 7, the lochia should be what color?

25
During which phase will the mother relinquish her fantasy baby and accept the real baby?
letting go phase
26
What documentation on a woman's chart on postpartum day 10 shows a normal involution process?
fundus below the pubic bone and not palpable (no longer considered an abdominal organ, it is now a pelvic organ)
27
Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment? a. fundus is palpable at the umbilicus b. fundus is palpable 1 cm below umbilicus c. fundus is palpable 3 cm above umbilicus d. fundus is palpable 2 cm below umbilicus
c - fundus is palpable 3 cm above umbilicus
28
What assessment finding is most commonly associated with the presence of leiomyomas?
abnormal uterine bleeding
29
The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammography starting at what age?
40
30
Which patient is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast?
16 year old woman
31
Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic exam is NOT used with a pap test? a. speculum b. gloves c. lubricant d. fixident agent
c - lubricant
32
What may be the cause of primary dysmenorrhea?
it may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin
33
While evaluating a patient for osteoporosis, the nurse should be aware of what risk factor?
cigarette smoking
34
Patient education for preparation for a pap test?
advise the patient not to douche or have sex 24 hours prior to the test
35
The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called?
the climacteric
36
What is a common health risk NOT associated with menopause?
breast cancer
37
How is Hep A acquired?
by eating contaminated food or drink
38
PCOS is a ____ and ____ imbalance
hormone metabolic
39
What is the most common and fastest growing STI in women?
chlamydia
40
Which STI is most commonly spread through vaginal, anal, or oral sex?
gonorrhea
41
Which STI causes inflamed testicles, dysuria, and yellow/green discharge in men?
gonorrhea
42
What kind of vaginal discharge would the nurse expect to see in a patient with trichomoniasis?
frothy with a fishy smell
43
What are two significant topics to educate your patient on who has herpes?
you can spread the virus even with no visible symptoms and you can expect other outbreaks, each longer than the last