OBGYN FINAL Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

physiological exam of ____ usually reveals a ….by granuloma cells within the ovarian structure

A

Follicle Cysts

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2
Q

which of the following is true?

a. alcohol has a direct toxic effect on cells, decreasing cell proliferation and growth
b. alcohol increases placental blood flow, resulting in fetal hypoxia
c. alcohol increases the risk of fetal macrosomia and uterine bleeding
d. alcohol is the leading cause of low birth weight babies

A

a or d

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3
Q

p/p at 35 weeks gestation with a week-long history of dizziness when getting up from a supine position

A

IVC syndrome

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4
Q

p/p at 32 weeks gestation weight severe itching across the superior half of the thorax and bilateral posterior arms without any skin changes

A

pruritis gravidarum

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5
Q

p/p at 30 weeks gestation complaining of left lower abdominal pain that radiates to the groin area with….

A

round ligament syndrome

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6
Q

leopold maneuver is a palpation procedure that evaluates for fetal_______&________.

A

li, position and presentation

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7
Q

which of the following uttering location is the ideal implantation site?

a. ant inf isthmus
b. ant sup funds
c. post inf isthmus
d. post sup fundus

A

anterior inferior isthmus

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8
Q

T/F labor is triggered by a decrease in progesterone and the release of oxytocin?

A

true

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9
Q

p/p at 10 weeks gestation with a 2 day history of vaginal bleeding, no cervical dilation

A

threatened abortion

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10
Q

p/p at 11 weeks gestation w/ a 9 day history of vaginal bleeding persistent abdominal cramping and moderate cervical effacement

A

complete abortion

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11
Q

expulsion of products of conception months after death of the embryo, no symptoms of pregnancy present

A

missed abortion

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12
Q

form of controception works by immobilizing and killing sperm

A

cooper t-iud

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13
Q

active phase

A

first stage of laber

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14
Q

consists of time from complete dilation to delivery of baby

A

second stage of labor

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15
Q

consists of the time from delivery of baby through delivery of placenta

A

third stage of labor

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16
Q

decent of baby

A

2nd stage of labor

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17
Q

epidural is administered in this stage

A

2nd stage of labor

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18
Q

the hour immediately following delivery

A

4th stage of labor

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19
Q

latent phase

A

first stage of labor

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20
Q

prostoglandin is released in this stage

A

1st stage of labor

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21
Q

signs of placental separation

A

3rd stage of labor

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22
Q

involution of the uterus begins immediately upon expulsion of the placenta

A

true

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23
Q

22 yr old patient, 5 weeks postpartum presents complaining of general malaise, fever, right breast swelling that is painful when nursing

A

pupural mastitis

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24
Q

35 yr old female presents with multiple painful breast nodules, nodule size and pain fluctuates w/ menstrual cycle

A

fibrocystic breast disease

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25
55 yr old female presents with a well defined breast lump in one breast that is swollen and painful, there is also clear nipple discharge present
intraductal papilloma
26
T/F: identical twins arise from the division of 2 fertilized ovum into 2 separate embryos
False
27
buttock presentation w/ flexed thigh and extended knees
brank breech
28
fetal "squat" position w/ both thighs and knees flexed
complete breech
29
most common form of breech presentation
frank breech
30
one or both thighs exteneded w/ one or both knees extended below fetal buttock
footling or incomplete
31
most commonly occuriring symptom associated with menopause
hot flashes
32
herniation of the bladder into the anterior....
cystocele
33
pastry is used to correct_______
uterine prolapse
34
small intestine prolapses through posterior vaginal....at the level of the cul de sac of douglas
enterocele
35
the condition can produce possible problems w/ fecal defacation
rectocele
36
first day of menstration
foll
37
swelling of gra...of stigma
ovulation
38
formation of the corpus luteum
luteum
39
due to the withdrawal of progesterone
mensuration
40
endometrium proliferation
follicle
41
production of "uterine milk"
luteum
42
alkaline cervical mucus formation
foliicular
43
cervical os closes
luteum
44
bladder dysfunction that is caused by neurological damage
neurogenic bladder
45
herniated disc is one etiology for this
neurogenic bladder
46
history of urine loss w/ symptoms of bladder irritation
detrusor dyssynergia
47
loss of anatomic angle b/t the bladder and the urethra
genuine stress incontinence
48
most commonly occuring form of urinary stress incontinence
detrusor dyssnegia
49
patient reports loss of urine w/ physical activities like coughing/sneezing
genuine stress incontinence
50
sudden inability to control the bladder followed by a delayed large loss of urine
detrusor dyssnergia
51
T/F: bacteria are the most common etiology for urinary....aureus produces 90% of these infections
false
52
T/F: implant antibacterial defenses ininclude free flow emptying of the bladder
true
53
contraceptive devices
foreign body vaginitis
54
produces clear fluid discharge
herpes simplex/infectious vaginitis
55
produces rotten odor w/ grey discharge
gard...vaginitis/nonspecific vaginitis
56
produces "strawberry cervix"
trichomonas vaginitis/infectious vaginitis
57
producesc sticky "cottage cheese" discharge
candida albicans/infectious vaginitis
58
seen in postmenopausal patients
atrophic vaginitis
59
sexual activity
traumatic vaginitis
60
T/F: Neisseria Gonnorhea is the most common etiology for PID?
True
61
T/F: PID is an infection of the lower genital tract in women that usually starts in the upper genital tract and descends to involve the lower genital tract
false
62
cystic nodule
more likely benign
63
complex/solid nodule
more likely malignant
64
nodule is adhered to adjacent structure
more likely malignant
65
nodule with areas of necrosis
more likely malignant
66
presence of ascites
more likely malignant
67
small nodule less than 1.5 cm
more likely benign
68
smooth, distinctly bordered nodule
more likely benign
69
T/F: functional ovarian cysts are cysts that are related to the menstraul cycle and...can resolve on own
True
70
T/F: cystic teratoma is a malignant tumor of embryonic origin
True?
71
T/F: polycystic....the multiple cysts taht develop with PCDS are... & w/ PCDS, the patient is both hyper energetic....
false
72
benign tumors composed of smooth muscle and connective tissue elements
leiomyoma
73
laser ablasion is one form of treatment for this condition
endometriosis
74
non painful, unless pressing against adjacent organ
leiomyoma
75
one treatment for this condition is myomectomy
leiomyoma
76
ovaries are the most common site of occurrence for this condition
endometriosis
77
presence of chocolate cysts on ovaries
endometriosis
78
presence of endometrial glands and stroma w/i uterine myometrium
adenomyosis
79
this condition presents w/ an enlarged uterus that is tender to palpate on pelvic examination
adenomyosis
80
triad of symptoms of dysphagia, dysmenorrheal, and dysphagia
endometriosis
81
postcoital bleeding is a symptom associated with
cervical cancer
82
which of the following conditions can present in its early stage?
cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, vulva cancer?
83
abnormal bleeding is the most important warning, s/s associated with
uterine cancer
84
T/F:primary infertility is defined as a woman who has never been pregnant despite more than a year of unprotected intercourse
true
85
laparotomy is the surgical procedure used to treat
ovarian cancer
86
which of the following is the most frequently chosen and most effective form of contraception?
sterilization
87
which of the following presentations is a red flag for mossible....menopausal patients
onset of menstrual bleeding after c section of menstrual flow
88
T/F: history of spontaneous abortion is a contraindication for using combined....contraceptive.
false
89
prevents pregnancy by impeding fertilized...
progestin only pill
90
G7-P42-1-6 is a formula used to state obstetric history...what do the numbers stand for?
``` 7=number of pregnancies 4=number of full term delivery 2= number of preterm delivery 1=number abortion/miscarriage 6=number living children ```
91
T/F: Rh factor is a protein found on the outside of the uterus
True
92
____is....placenta from the site of uterine implantation....
abrupt placenta
93
A ________is a p.....fortified by 2 sperm producing an abnormal fetus
Partial mole