Obligations of Users and General Rules Flashcards

1
Q

Define Accident

A

An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft in which: Any person suffers death or injury; the aircraft incurs substantial damage or structural failure, or the
aircraft is missing or inaccessible

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2
Q

Define Airprox

A

An occurrence in which 2 or more aircraft come into such close proximity that a
threat to the safety of the aircraft exists or may exist, in airspace where the aircraft are not subject to an air traffic separation standard or where separation is a pilot responsibility.

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3
Q

Define Air Transport Operation

A

An air transport operation is a passenger transport operation, a cargo transport operation or a medical transport operation that is conducted for hire or reward.

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4
Q

Define Incident

A

An incident is an occurrence, other than an accident or a serious incident, associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of the operation of the aircraft or another aircraft.

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5
Q

Define Overtaking Aircraft

A

An overtaking aircraft means an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter, that is to say, an aircraft that is in such a position with reference to another aircraft that at night it would be unable to see either of the forward navigation lights of the other aircraft.

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6
Q

Define Serious Incident

A

A serious incident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of the operation of the aircraft or that involves circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred.

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7
Q

Define Special VFR Flight

A

A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.

Typically to permit landing at an aerodrome.

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8
Q

To whom do the rules of the air apply to?

A

Aircraft bearing the nationality and registration of a Contracting State, wherever they may be, to the extent that they do not conflict with the rules published by the State having jurisdiction over the territory overflown.

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9
Q

What territories do the Civil Aviation Regulations apply to?

A

CAR 3

a) international air navigation within Australian territory;
b) air navigation in relation to trade and commerce with other countries and among the States;
c) air navigation within the Territories;
d) air navigation to or from the Territories;
e) air navigation in which a Commonwealth aircraft is engaged;
f) air navigation in controlled air space that is of a kind not specified in
paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e) but directly affects, or may endanger, the safety of persons or aircraft engaged in:
i. air navigation of a kind specified in paragraph (a), (b), (d) or (e); or
ii. air navigation in which a military aircraft is engaged; and
g) all air navigation within Australian territory of a kind not specified in
paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e)

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10
Q

The operation of aircraft either in flight or on the movement area of an aerodrome shall comply with ____

A

The general rules, and either:

  1. the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) 2.1
  2. the Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) 2.10
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11
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring an aircraft’s operation is in compliance with the rules of the air?

A

The PIC

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12
Q

When may a PIC depart from the rules of the air?

A

Where said departure is absolutely necessary in the interests of safety

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13
Q

What are the responsibilities of a pilot before flight?

A

PIC must ensure that:

  • the instruments and equipment required for the particular type of operation to be undertaken are installed in the aircraft and are functioning properly;
  • the gross weight of the aircraft does not exceed the limitations imposed and is such that flight performance in accordance with the standards specified by CASA for the type of operation to be undertaken is possible under the prevailing conditions; and - any directions of CASA with respect to the loading of the aircraft have been complied with;
  • the fuel supplies are sufficient for the particular flight;
  • the required operating and other crew members are on board and in a fit state to perform their duties;
  • the air traffic control instructions have been complied with;
  • the aircraft is safe for flight in all respects; and
  • the latest editions of the aeronautical maps, charts and other aeronautical information and instructions, published in AIP or by a person approved in writing, that are applicable:
    i. to the route to be flown; and
    ii. to any alternative route that may be flown on that flight; are carried in the aircraft and are readily accessible to the flight crew
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14
Q

Put simply, what is the PIC responsible for?

A
  1. the start, continuation, diversion and end of a flight by the aircraft; and
  2. the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time; and
  3. the safety of persons and cargo carried on the aircraft; and
  4. the conduct and safety of members of the crew on the aircraft
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15
Q

What powers does the PIC have?

A

The PIC, with such assistance as is necessary and reasonable, may:
- take such action, including the removal of a person from the aircraft or
the placing of a person under restraint or in custody, by force, as the
pilot considers reasonably necessary to ensure compliance with
regulations in or in relation to the aircraft; and
- detain the passengers, crew and cargo for such period as the pilot
considers reasonably necessary to ensure compliance with regulations in or in relation to the aircraft.

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16
Q

What are the rules regarding intoxication on aircraft?

A
  1. A person shall not, while in a state of intoxication, enter any aircraft.
  2. A crewmember or ATC shall not be in a state induced by “any alcoholic
    liquor, drug, pharmaceutical or medicinal preparation or any other substance” whereby their capacity to act is impaired.
  3. A person shall not act as, or perform any duties or functions preparatory
    to acting as, a member of the operating crew of an aircraft if the person
    has, during the period of 8 hours immediately preceding the departure
    of the aircraft consumed any alcoholic liquor.
  4. A person who is on board an aircraft as a member of the operating
    crew, or as a person carried in the aircraft for the purpose of acting as a
    member of the operating crew, shall not consume any alcoholic liquor.
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17
Q

What are ATS specific regulations regarding intoxication?

A
  1. A person shall not, while acting in any capacity in either air traffic control or Flight Service, be in a state in which, by reason of his or her having consumed, used, or absorbed any alcoholic liquor, drug, pharmaceutical or medicinal preparation or other substance, his or her capacity to act is impaired.
  2. A person shall not act in any capacity in either ATC or Flight Service if the person has, during the period of 8 hours immediately preceding the commencement of the period of duty in which he or she so acts, consumed any alcoholic liquor.
  3. A person who is on duty in either air traffic control or Flight Service shall not consume any alcoholic liquor.
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18
Q

When is an aircraft permitted to fly over congested areas (cities, towns, gatherings)

A
  1. When necessary for take-off or landing
  2. At such a height as will permit, in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
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19
Q

What does CASR 91 ch12 do?

A

Bans flying over any “regatta, race meeting or public gathering” without the express permission of CASA (unless landing or taking off from an aerodrome or passing from place to place in the normal course of navigation)

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20
Q

What are the rules regarding low flying?

A

Flight is prohibited over:

  1. any city, town or populous area at a height lower than 1000 feet; or
  2. any other area at a height lower than 500 feet.

The height specified is the minimum height above the highest point of terrain or any object within a 600m (300m for helicopters) radius of a point vertically below the aircraft.

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21
Q

What does the low flying rule not apply to?

A
  • helicopter access lanes;
  • low flying due to stress of weather;
  • Search and Rescue aircraft, and police operations;
  • flying training;
  • operations approved by CASA; and
  • aircraft landing and taking off from an aerodrome.
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22
Q

Dropping or Spraying - Annex 3.1

A

Nothing shall be dropped or sprayed from an aircraft in flight except under conditions prescribed by the appropriate authority and as indicated by relevant information, advice and/or clearance from the appropriate air traffic services unit.

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23
Q

Exemptions to Prohibition on Dropping of Articles

A

Nothing in this regulation shall prevent:

  1. The dropping of packages or other articles or substances:
    i. in the course of agricultural operations; or
    ii. in the course of cloud seeding operations; or
    iii. in the course of fire fighting operations; or
    iv. to initiate controlled burning; or
    v. in the course of search and rescue operations; or
    vi. to deliver emergency medical supplies; or
    vii. to deliver emergency food supplies; or
    viii. in the course of other operations;
  2. the dropping of ballast in the form of fine sand or water;
  3. the use of apparatus solely for the purpose of navigating an aircraft, with CASA approval;
  4. in an emergency, the jettisoning of liquid fuel or cargo over areas where hazard to persons or property on the ground or water is not created.
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24
Q

Aerobatic Flight - CAR 155

A

A PIC must not do any of the following:
i. Fly the aircraft in aerobatic flight at night;
ii. Fly the aircraft in aerobatic flight that is not in VMC;
iii. fly the aircraft in a particular kind of acrobatic flight if the certificate airworthiness, or the flight manual, for the aircraft does not specify that aircraft may perform that kind of acrobatic flight

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25
Q

Below what bank angle will a turn not be considered acrobatic flight?

A

60 degrees.

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26
Q

Is it an offence to conduct an aerobatic maneuver over over a populous area or public gathering?

A

Yes. Unless the person has obtained CASA’s written permission to do so.

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27
Q

Before engaging in aerobatic flight, what must the pilot of an aircraft do?

A

Take action as necessary to ensure the following:

i. any loose articles are removed from the aircraft or made secure;
ii. all locker and compartment doors are fastened;
iii. the safety harness or seat belt of any vacant seat is made secure as to avoid the fouling of the controls of the aircraft;
iv. the dual controls (if any) of the aircraft are removed from the aircraft rendered inoperative;
v. every person in the aircraft is secured with correctly adjustedharness or seat belt.

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28
Q

When is a hang glider exempt from CASR?

A

When used:
a) solely in private operations and only for recreational purposes; or
b) for flying training for the issue of a pilot certificate;

And the CAOs are complied with.

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29
Q

Who is responsible for the training and licensing of glider pilots?

A

The Gliding Federation of Australia

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30
Q

Does the PIC require the permission of CASA to tow anything using an aircraft.

A

Yes.

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31
Q

What are the rules regarding preventing collisions on water?

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft in flight, or in the process of manoeuvring near the surface of the water, must, as far as possible:
- keep clear of all vessels; and
- not impede their navigation.

The pilot in command of an aircraft on the water must comply with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea as set out in Schedule 3 to the Navigation Act 1912.

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32
Q

What rules must the PIC observe in respect to other aircraft and vessels?

A
  • when aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel are approaching one another and there is a risk of collision, the aircraft shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances and conditions including the limitations of the respective craft;
  • an aircraft which is converging with another aircraft or a vessel on its right shall give way so as to keep well clear of that aircraft or vessel;
  • an aircraft approaching another aircraft or a vessel head-on, or approximately head-on, shall alter its heading to the right so as to keep well clear of that aircraft or vessel;
  • an aircraft or vessel which is being overtaken has the right of way, and the one overtaking shall alter its heading to keep well clear of the aircraft or vessel being overtaken.
33
Q

What additional rules apply at a controlled water aerodrome?

A
  1. The pilot in command of an aircraft must not take off or alight if the alighting area:
    i. has not been swept; or
    ii. is not clear of floating debris dangerous to the navigation of the aircraft
  2. The pilot in command of an aircraft shall ensure that operations are conducted on the swept part of a water aerodrome by commencing his or her take-off or landing run from such a position that the control launch is on his or her left at no greater distance than seventy-five yards.
34
Q

How will the swept part of a controlled water aerodrome be indicated?

A

By the control launch which shall take up position at the leeward and on the left side of the area and shall head into the direction of an aircraft taking-off or landing.

35
Q

What should pilots or operators seeking to conduct aerial photography or survey operations in controlled airspace do?

A

Liaise with the appropriate ATC unit to ensure there are no restrictions on times/tracks/levels which could inhibit the proposed operations.

36
Q

Who must pilots or operators seeking to photograph military installations or areas including military installations contact?

A

The appropriate military authority so as to obtain any required permission or ascertain if such photography is not permitted.

37
Q

What is a model aircraft?

A

Any unmanned aircraft, other than a balloon or kite, which is flown for sport or recreational purposes, weighing not more than 150 kg including fuel and equipment installed in or attached to the aircraft at the commencement of its flight.

38
Q

Without approval, when are model aircraft up to 25kg permitted to be flown?

A
  1. when the weather is suitable;
  2. clear of the movement areas or runways of an aerodrome;
  3. below 400ft above ground level unless:
    i. clear of controlled airspace, and
    ii. further than 3 nautical miles from any aerodrome:
  4. within sight of the operator at all times;
  5. well clear of populous areas;
  6. at least 30m clear of persons, vessels, vehicles or structures
39
Q

When must the operator of a remote aircraft obtain the permission of an appropriate air traffic service or CASA?

A

Before flying above 400ft within controlled airspace or within 3 nautical miles of an aerodrome.

40
Q

How is an unmanned free balloon defined?

A

a “non-power driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free flight”.

Such balloons are classified as heavy, medium and light

41
Q

What regulations apply to tethered balloons and kites?

CASR 101-110

A

A person may operate a tethered balloon or a kite above 400 feet AGL outside an area approved under regulation 101.030 as an area for the operation of unmanned balloons or kites (as the case requires) only if:

a) the mass of the balloon or kite is no more than 15 kilograms; and

b) the horizontal visibility at the time is at least 5 kilometres; and

c) the person gives to CASA the information required about the proposed operation at least 1 working day before it is due to start

42
Q

When is a Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) considered to be operated in standard operating conditions?

A

When:

a) the RPA is operated within the visual line of sight of the person operating the RPA;

b) the RPA is operated at or below 400 ft AGL by day;

c) the RPA is not operated within 30 m of a person who is not directly associated with the operation of the RPA; and

d) the RPA is not operated:
(i) in a prohibited area; or
(ii) in a restricted area that is classified as RA3; or
(iii) in a restricted area that is classified as RA2 or RA1 otherwise than in accordance with regulation 101.065; or
(iv) over a populous area; or
(v) within 3 nautical miles of the movement area of a controlled aerodrome; and

e) the RPA is not operated over an area where a fire, police or other public safety or emergency operation is being conducted without the approval of a person in charge of the operation; and

f) the person operating the RPA operates only that RPA

43
Q

The pilot in command of an aircraft commits an offence if ________

A

CASR 91

  • the aircraft is being operated on the manoeuvring area of, or in the vicinity of, a non-controlled aerodrome; and
  • the pilot engages in conduct which results in the contravention of a rule set out in the following rules:
  1. the pilot must maintain a lookout for other aircraft that are being operated on the manoeuvring area of, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome to avoid collision;
  2. the pilot must ensure that the aircraft does not cause a danger to other aircraft that are being operated on the manoeuvring area of, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome;
  3. if the pilot is flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome, the pilot must:
    i. join the circuit pattern for the aerodrome; or
    ii. avoid the circuit pattern for the aerodrome;
  4. if the pilot joins the circuit pattern for the aerodrome for a landing at the aerodrome, the pilot must, after joining the circuit pattern, make all turns in accordance with Note (1);
  5. If the pilot takes off from the aerodrome, the pilot must, after taking off, make all turns in accordance with Note (1) while the aircraft is flying in
    the circuit pattern for the aerodrome;

Note (1): Turns must be made: in accordance with CASA’s directions; or if CASA directions do not apply and visual signals are displayed at the aerodrome indicating a direction to make all turns in accordance with the visual signals; or in any other case to the pilot’s left.

44
Q

If the pilot takes off from the aerodrome, the pilot must maintain the same track when?

A

From the take-off until the aircraft is 500 feet above the terrain.

This rule does not apply if a change to the track is necessary to avoid the terrain.

45
Q

Can the pilot take off or land from a part of the aerodrome that is outside the landing area of the aerodrome?

A

No

46
Q

When must a pilot take off or land into the wind?

A

If, at the time of take of or landing:

  1. the pilot is not permitted to take off or land downwind; and
  2. it is practicable to take off or land into the wind.
47
Q

When may a pilot take off or land downwind at a non controlled aerodrome?

A

If:

  1. The aircraft’s flight manual allows the aircraft to take off or land downwind; and
  2. after considering any other aircraft that are being operated on the manoeuvring area of, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome, the pilot believes that it is safe to do so.
48
Q

What must a PIC of an aircraft that is part of traffic at a controlled aerodrome do?

A
  1. maintain a lookout for other aerodrome traffic to avoid a collision;
  2. maintain a continuous watch on the radio frequency for the aerodrome control service; and
  3. obtain clearance by radio, or visual signals , prior to carrying out any taxiing, landing or take-off operations.
49
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

50
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with specified conditions.

51
Q

What is a danger area?

A

Airspace within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

52
Q

Where can information on prohibited, restricted and danger areas be found?

A
  1. In the Designated Area Handbook (DAH)
  2. On AIP aeronautical charts. Shown using boundaries outlined in magenta and containing the identification of the area as a letter (P, R or D) and a number
53
Q

What is an appropriate reason for establishing a prohibited area?

A

For defence of the commonwealth.

54
Q

Does flight within a danger area require specific approval?

A

No

55
Q

When should restricted areas be designated?

A

Whenever the activities of the administering authority of the airspace are a hazard to other users, or other users constitute a hazard to the activities of the administering authority.

56
Q

The PIC of an aircraft must not fly the aircraft over a restricted area if _____

A

The flight is not in accordance with conditions specified in the notice declaring the area to be a restricted area.

57
Q

Who must provide approval / clearance for flight into a restricted area?

A

The administering authority.

58
Q

When shall ATC seek clearance for flight into a restricted area?

A

When flight is required:

  1. from controlled airspace (CTA) into an adjoining active restricted area or airspace; or
  2. through an active restricted area or airspace into adjoining controlled airspace; or
  3. through an active restricted area or airspace within controlled airspace.
59
Q

What is CTA?

A

Controlled airspace.

60
Q

What does an RA conditional status indicate?

A

The likelihood of obtaining a clearance to fly through restricted airspace

61
Q

Outline each level of RA Conditional Status.

A

RA 1: Pilots may flight plan through the Restricted Area and upon request will be granted a clearance from ATC when the area is active unless a NOTAM indicates that a clearance is not available.

RA 2: Pilots may not flight plan through the Restricted Area or expect a clearance from ATC. However, tracking may be offered through the RA on a tactical basis by ATC unless a NOTAM indicates otherwise.

RA 3: Pilots may not flight plan through the Restricted Area and clearances will not be available. Flight within a Restricted Area with conditional status RA3 is not permitted. If the conditional status is uncertain, treat the airspace as conditional status RA3 and avoid the area.

62
Q

What must a PIC do if they find their aircraft is over a prohibited or restricted area?

A
  1. Immediately have the aircraft flown to a position that is not over the area; and
  2. when the aircraft reaches a position where it is not over the area, report the circumstances to air traffic control; and
  3. land at such aerodrome as is designated by air traffic control and, for that purpose, obey any instructions given by air traffic control as to the movement of the aircraft.
63
Q

Controlled airspace may be used for a variety of special purposes such as?

A
  • flying displays
  • race meetings
  • fireworks
  • flying training
  • gliding
64
Q

When may a temporary restricted area be established?

A

For one-off and short notice requirements.

e.g. Urgent police action (siege or pursuit), or major events like the Melbourne Cup or Olympics.

65
Q

For what purpose are blanket clearances issued?

A

For the temporary release of airspace to facilitate when practicable:
- joint use of airspace located in or adjacent to terminal areas;
- the operation of random and base–to–base military flights in controlled airspace;
- individual or general movement of aircraft during low density traffic conditions.

66
Q

What information will a blanket clearance indicate?

A
  1. the physical dimensions of the airspace;
  2. the period of validity;
  3. any special control/coordination requirements.
67
Q

The authority issuing a blanket clearance shall ________

A
  1. not provide for the separation of aircraft within the airspace released;
  2. ensure that activity under its control is kept clear of the released airspace
68
Q

An airspace reservation may be mutually agreed between authorities to allow ________

A
  1. Flights of special military significance requiring the use of controlled airspace, which would otherwise be subject to unacceptable restrictions if they were required to avoid that airspace or to conform with the terms of a blanket clearance or air traffic control clearance;
  2. Civil flights through a military airspace when circumstances make flight on the normal route inadvisable and use of alternative routing is impossible or would impose economic penalties on the aircraft. This is not intended to preclude civil diversions where military traffic conditions require.
69
Q

What types of airspace reservations are there?

A
  1. Those relating to fixed defined areas;
  2. Those, which are “mobile”, because they cover activities such as aerial refuelling, en–route formation flights.
70
Q

Who is responsible for the provision of air traffic services for aircraft using a reserved airspace?

A

The administering authority that made the reservation.

71
Q

Will ATC approve flying training in a designated training area in controlled airspace?

A

Yes. Approval may be granted on a short-term hour-to-hour basis or, in some cases, on a more regular basis.

72
Q

Will ATC provide separation for aircraft conducting flying training within a designated training area?

A

No.

However, traffic information will be provided.

73
Q

What actions will ATC take around a designated training area?

A
  1. Provide traffic information service.
  2. Route IFR traffic clear of the area.
  3. May reserve a level for transit of the area.
74
Q

To which flights do the provisions of the CARs apply?

A
  1. International air navigation within Australian Territory
  2. Air navigation in relation to trade and commerce with other countries and among the states
  3. Air navigation within the territories
  4. Air navigation to or from the territories
  5. Air navigation in which a Commonwealth aircraft is engaged
  6. Air navigation in controlled air space that is of a kind not specified in the above paragraphs but directly affects, or may endanger, the safety of persons engaged in:
    i. air navigation of a kind specified above
    ii. air navigation in which a military aircraft is engaged
  7. All air navigation within Australian territory of a kind not specified in the above.
75
Q

List examples of immediately reportable matters.

A
  • A person suffers a fatal aircraft-related injury in relation to the operation of the aircraft; or
  • A person suffers a serious aircraft-related injury in relation to the operation of the aircraft; or
  • The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure, or there are reasonable grounds for believing that the aircraft has sustained damage or structural failure, which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and
    would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component;
  • The aircraft is missing; or
  • The aircraft is completely inaccessible.
76
Q

List examples of routine reportable matters.

A

Hard landing
Airframe Overspeed
Stall warning
Incorrect configuration
Control issues
Weather events
Unstable Approach

77
Q

Above what height shall VFR flights not be conducted without CASA approval?

A

FL200

78
Q

When may an aircraft execute a turn contrary to traffic pattern?

A

When it is necessary to avoid terrain.

79
Q

When must a taxiing report be made?

A

Prior to obtaining taxiing clearance.