Obs Flashcards
(97 cards)
Oligohydraminos is often called Potter sequence - why
Pulmonary hypoplasia -> often leads to death
Oligohydraminos
Twisted skin (wrinkles)
Twisted face - often flattened face
Extremity - Eg club food
Renal agensis - this is usual cause or some kind of obstruction as the urine from fetus is what makes amniotic fluid
Booking visit
When does it occur?
What is the purpose / what happens?
8-12wks ideally <10
general information e.g. diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, antenatal classes
BP, urine dipstick, check BMI
Booking bloods/urine
FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies
hepatitis B, syphilis, rubella
HIV test is offered to all women
urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria
When does scan to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancy occur?
10-13 + 6 weeks
What happens at 16 weeks?
Information on the anomaly and the blood results. If Hb < 11 g/dl consider iron
Routine care: BP and urine dipstick
Who gets a 25 week scan and what does it involve? When else do they get one?
Primip
Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, symphysis-fundal height (SFH)
31 weeks
28 week scan purpose?
Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, SFH
Second screen for anaemia and atypical red cell alloantibodies. If Hb < 10.5 g/dl consider iron
First dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women
Purpose of 34 week ?
Routine care
Second dose of anti D if needed
Info on labour and birth plan
Mx of breach <36 weeks ? After 36wks ? If treatment fails?
if < 36 weeks: many fetuses will turn spontaneously
if still breech at 36 weeks NICE recommend external cephalic version (ECV)- this has a success rate of around 60%. The RCOG recommend ECV should be offered from 36 weeks in nulliparous women and from 37 weeks in multiparous women
if the baby is still breech then delivery options include planned caesarean section or vaginal delivery
A 19 year old woman who is 9 weeks into her first pregnancy is seen in the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding. Her ultrasound scan confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy. However, the high vaginal swab has isolated group B streptococcus (GBS). How should she be managed?
Intrapartum IV benzylpenicillin
Interpret bishops scores for induction?
a score of < 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction
a score of > 9 indicates that labour will most likely commence spontaneously
What is placenta accreta? RF?
Placenta accreta describes the attachment of the placenta to the myometrium, due to a defective decidua basalis. As the placenta does not properly separate during labour there is a risk of post-partum haemorrhage.
Risk factors
previous caesarean section
placenta praevia
A 45-year-old woman presents at 10 weeks gestation for a routine check. She has a previous history of severe pre-eclampsia. Her BMI is 38 kg/m^2. Her blood pressure was 145/94 mmHg.
What treatment would you advise to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia?
Aspirin
[Not labetalol as NICE don’t recommend antihypertensives for mild hypertension <150/100]
VBAC CIs?
previous classical caesarean scars, previous episodes of uterine rupture and patients with other contraindications to vaginal birth (e.g. placenta praevia).
Risks of Caesarian Serious maternal? Future pregnancies? Frequent maternal? Fetal?
Serious Maternal: emergency hysterectomy need for further surgery at a later date, including curettage (retained placental tissue) admission to intensive care unit thromboembolic disease bladder injury ureteric injury death (1 in 12,000)
Future pregos
Future pregnancies:
increased risk of uterine rupture during subsequent pregnancies/deliveries
increased risk of antepartum stillbirth
increased risk in subsequent pregnancies of placenta praevia and placenta accreta)
Maternal:
persistent wound and abdominal discomfort in the first few months after surgery
increased risk of repeat caesarean section when vaginal delivery attempted in subsequent pregnancies
readmission to hospital
haemorrhage
infection (wound, endometritis, UTI)
Fetal:
lacerations, one to two babies in every 100
Why is anti D prophylaxis not given to Rh negative women who have been sensitised?
By then it is too late and irreversible
What should happen to all babies born to Rh negative mothers?
all babies born to Rh -ve mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group & direct Coombs test
Coombs test: direct antiglobulin, will demonstrate antibodies on RBCs of baby
Kleihauer test: add acid to maternal blood, fetal cells are resistant
Management of PPH
ABC
IV syntocinon (oxytocin) 10 units or IV ergometrine 500 micrograms
IM carboprost
other options include: B-Lynch suture, ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries
if severe, uncontrolled haemorrhage then a hysterectomy is sometimes performed as a life-saving procedure
What is the cause of secondary PPH ?
Retained placental tissue or endometritis
Causes of increased nuchal translucency (3)
Down’s syndrome
congenital heart defects
abdominal wall defects
Causes of hyperechogenic bowel?
cystic fibrosis
Down’s syndrome
cytomegalovirus infection
Most common benign ovarian tumour in <25?
Most common cause of ovarian enlargement In women of reproductive age?
Dermoid cyst
Follicular cyst
Most common cyst ? What usually happens to it?
Follicular
Regresses after several menstrual cycles
A 23-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of epigastric pain and severe headache, that has increased in severity. On examination, she has a heart rate of 110 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 21 /min, a temperature of 36.8ºC, mild pitting oedema of the ankles and brisk tendon reflexes.
Given the likely diagnosis of pre-eclampsia, which of the following is the most important sign to elicit? HR RR Oedema Temp Brisk. Tendon reflexes
Brisk reflexes are commonly associated with pre-eclampsia and are more specific than the other answers, which are general clinical signs.
Who should be given low dose asprin to prevent pre eclampsia?
High risk groups include:
hypertensive disease during previous pregnancies
chronic kidney disease
autoimmune disorders such as SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome
type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus