Obs/ Gynae Flashcards

1
Q

What happens to the total volume of the lungs in pregnancy?

A

Decreases

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2
Q

What happens to the tidal volume in pregnancy?

A

Increases

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3
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Infection and inflammation of female pelvic organs- uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum

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4
Q

What organisms cause pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis- most common
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Mycoplasma genitalium
Mycoplasma hominis

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5
Q

What are the features of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Lower abdominal pain
Fever
Deep dyspareunia
Dysuria and menstrual irregularities may occur
Vaginal or cervical discharge
Cervical excitation

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6
Q

What are the investigations for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Pregnancy test to exclude ectopic
High vaginal swab
Screen for chlamydia and gonorrhoea

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7
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease management?

A

Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

Removal IUD might give better short term outcomes

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8
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease complications?

A

Perihepatitis
Infertility
Chronic pelvic pain
Ectopic pregnancy

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9
Q

What are the harms and benefits of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

99% effective if taken correctly
Small risk of blood clots
Very small heart attack/stroke risk
Increased risk breast and cervical cancer

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10
Q

When does the combined oral contraceptive pill become effective?

A

Within first 5 days of cycle no need for additional contraception. Any other point 7 days of alternative contraception.

Same time every day

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11
Q

What may reduce COCP efficacy?

A

Vomiting within 2 hours of taking pill
Medications that induce diarrhoea or vomiting may reduce effectiveness eg orlistat
Liver enzyme inducing drugs

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12
Q

Risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutations
Many ovulations- early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

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13
Q

What are the clinical features of ovarian cancer?

A

Very vague

Abdominal distension and bloating
Abdominal and pelvic pain
Urinary symptoms- urgency
Early satiety
Diarrhoea

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14
Q

Ovarian cancer investigations?

A

CA125
If CA 125 raised then ultrasound of abdomen and pelvis
Diagnosis usually involves diagnositc laparotomy

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15
Q

Ovarian cancer management?

A

Surgery and chemotherapy

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16
Q

What are the features of placenta praevia?

A

Shock in proportion to visible loss
No pain
Uterus not tender
Lie and presentation my be abnormal
Fetal heart usually normal
Coagulation problems rare
Small bleeds before large

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17
Q

How to diagnose placenta praevia?

A

Digital vaginal examination should not be performed before USS as could cause bleeding

Often picked up on 20 week USS

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18
Q

Grading of placenta praevia?

A

I - placenta reaches lower segment but not the internal os
II - placenta reaches internal os but doesn’t cover it
III - placenta covers the internal os before dilation but not when dilated
IV (‘major’) - placenta completely covers the internal os

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19
Q

What are the barrier methods of contraception?

A

Condoms

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20
Q

What are the daily methods of contraception?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Progesterone only pill

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21
Q

What are the long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs)

A

Implantable contraceptives

Injectable contraceptives

Intrauterine system (IUS)- progesterone releasing coil

Intrauterine device (IUD)- copper coil

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22
Q

How does the combined oral contraceptive pill work?

A

Inhibits ovulation

Increased risk of VTE
Increased risk of breast and cervical cancer

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23
Q

How does the progesterone only pill work?

A

Thickens cervical mucus

Irregular bleeding common side effect

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24
Q

How does the injectable contraceptive work?

A

(Medroxyprogesterone acetate)
Primary: inhibits ovulation
Also thickens cervical mucus

Lasts 12 weeks

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25
Q

How does the implantable contraceptive work?

A

Etonogestrel
Primary: Inhibits ovulation
Also thickens cervical mucus

Irregular bleeding
Lasts 3 years

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26
Q

How does the intrauterine contraceptive device work?

A

Decreases sperm motility and survival

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27
Q

How does the intrauterine system work?

A

(Levonorgestrel)
Primary: prevents endometrial proliferation
Also thickens cervical mucus

Irregular bleeding

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28
Q

What is desogestrel?

A

A type of progestogen-only pill that also inhibits ovulation

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29
Q

Features of cervical cancer?

A

May be detected during routine cervical cancer screening
Abnormal vaginal bleeding- postcoital, intermenstrual or postmenopausal
Vaginal discharge

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30
Q

Which types of HPV cause cervical cancer?

A

16, 18 and 33

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31
Q

What are some cervical cancer risk factors?

A

HPV 16, 18 and 33
Smoking
HIV
Early first intercourse, many sexual partners
High parity
Lower socioeconomic status
COCP

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32
Q

When is endometrial cancer usually seen?

A

Post menopause

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33
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancers?

A

Excess oestrogen- nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen (HRT without progestogen)

Metabolic syndrome- obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome

Tamoxifen

Hereditary nonn-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

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34
Q

Protective factors against endometrial cancer?

A

Multiparity, COCP, smoking

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35
Q

Features of endometrial cancer?

A

Classic symptom- postmenopausal bleeding- slight before becoming heavier

Others-
Premenopausal women with menhorrhagia or intermenstrual bleeding
Pain uncommon
Vaginal discharge unusual

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36
Q

Endometrial cancer investigations?

A

Women older than 55 presenting with post menopausal bleeding reffered using cancer pathway

First line- trans vaginal ultrasound
Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

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37
Q

Endometrial cancer management?

A

Surgery- total abdominal hysterectomy

High risk patients may have postoperative radiotherapy

Progestogen therapy in frail elderly women not suitable for surgery

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38
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Seperation of normally sited placenta from uterine wall, causes maternal haemorrhage into intervening space

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39
Q

What are the factors associated with placental abruption?

A

Proteinuric hypertension
Cocaine use
Multiparity
Maternal trauma
Increasing maternal age

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40
Q

What are the clinical features of placental abruption?

A

Shock out of keeping with visible loss
Pain constant
Tender, tense uterus
Normal lie and presentation
Fetal heart- absent/distressed
Coagulation problems
Beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria

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41
Q

What happens with a negative hrHPV result?

A

Return to normal recall unless-
Test of cure pathway
Untreated CIN1 pathway
Follow up borderline changes in endocervical cells
Follow up incompletely excised cervical cancer

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42
Q

Positive hrHPV result?

A

Samples examined cytologically

If cytologically abnormal- colposcopy

If cytology normal- repeat test in 12 months

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43
Q

What are the different results from an abnormal colposcopy?

A

This includes the following results:
Borderline changes in squamous or endocervical cells.
Low-grade dyskaryosis.
High-grade dyskaryosis (moderate).
High-grade dyskaryosis (severe).
Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Glandular neoplasia

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44
Q

What are the options from a normal colposcopy?

A

Repeat after 12 months
If the repeat test is now hrHPV -ve → return to normal recall

If the repeat test is still hrHPV +ve and cytology still normal → further repeat test 12 months later:
If hrHPV -ve at 24 months → return to normal recall
if hrHPV +ve at 24 months → colposcopy

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45
Q

What to do with inadequate hrHPV?

A

Repeat within 3 months
If two consecutive inadequate- colposcopy

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46
Q

How often is Depo Provera given?

A

Via IM every 12 weeks

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47
Q

What are the adverse effects of the depo?

A

Irregular bleeding
Weight gain
Potential increase of osteoporosis- only use in adolescents if no other contraception is suitable
Not quickly reversed and fertility may return after varying time

Contraindications- breast cancer

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48
Q

What are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?

A

Advancing age
Previous pregnancy and childbirth
High BMI
Hysterectomy
Family history

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49
Q

What are the types of urinary incontinence?

A

Overactive bladder- detrusor overactivity
Stress incontinence- cough/laugh
Mixed incontinence- both urge and stress
Overflow incontinence- bladder outlet obstruction
Functional incontinence

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50
Q

Investigations for urinary incontinence?

A

Bladder diaries kept for minimum of 3 days
Vaginal examination
Urine dipstick and culture
Urodynamic studies

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51
Q

Management for urge incontinence?

A

Bladder retraining- lasts six weeks
Bladder stabilising drugs- antimuscarinics are first line- oxybutinin, tolterodine or darifenacin. No oxybutinin in frail old women
Mirabegron useful if concern over anticholinergic side effects in elderley patients

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52
Q

Management for stress incontinence?

A

Pelvic floor muscle training- at least 8 contractions performed 3 times a day for mimimum of 3 months
Surgical procedures
Duloxetine if decline surgery

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53
Q

What are the symptoms of the menopause?

A

Change in periods- length of menstrual cycles, dysfunctional uterine bleeding may occur

Vasomotor symptoms- hot flushes, night sweats- usually occur daily and may continue for 5 years

Urogenital changes- vaginal dryness and atrophy, urinary frequency

Psychological- anxiety and depression, short term memory impairment

Longer term complications- osteoporosis, increased risk of ischaemic heart disease

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54
Q

When should a urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria be carried out?

A

8-12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks)

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55
Q

What should happen at 8 - 12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks)?

A

Booking visit

General information e.g. diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, antenatal classes

BP, urine dipstick, check BMI

Booking bloods/urine

FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies
Hepatitis B, syphilis
HIV test is offered to all women
Urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria

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56
Q

10 - 13+6 weeks

A

Early scan to confirm dates, exclude multiple pregnancy

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57
Q

11 - 13+6 weeks

A

Down’s syndrome screening including nuchal scan

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58
Q

16 weeks

A

Information on the anomaly and the blood results. If Hb < 11 g/dl consider iron

Routine care: BP and urine dipstick

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59
Q

18 - 20+6 weeks

A

Anomaly scan

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60
Q

25 weeks (only if primip)

A

Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, symphysis-fundal height (SFH)

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61
Q

28 weeks

A

Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, SFH

Second screen for anaemia and atypical red cell alloantibodies. If Hb < 10.5 g/dl consider iron

First dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women

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62
Q

31 weeks (only if primip)

A

Routine care as above

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63
Q

34 weeks

A

Routine care as above
Second dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women*
Information on labour and birth plan

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64
Q

36 weeks

A

Routine care as above
Check presentation - offer external cephalic version if indicated
Information on breast feeding, vitamin K, ‘baby-blues’

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65
Q

40 weeks (only if primip)

A

Routine care as above
Discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy

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66
Q

41 weeks

A

Routine care as above
Discuss labour plans and possibility of induction

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67
Q

Which contraceptives take 7 days to become effective?

A

COCP
Nexplanon (implantable contraceptive)
Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Depo provera (injectable contraceptive)

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68
Q

Which contraceptives take 2 days to become effective?

A

Progesterone only pill

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69
Q

What are the two most common medical disorders complicating pregnancy?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Gestational diabetes
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70
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A

BMI of > 30 kg/m²

Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above

Previous gestational diabetes

First-degree relative with diabetes

Family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

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71
Q

What is the screening for gestational diabetes?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

Previous gestational diabetes: OGTT performed asap and at 24-28 weeks if first normal

Women with any other RFs offered at 24-28 weeks

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72
Q

What are the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes?

A

Fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L

2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L

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73
Q

What is the management of gestational diabetes?

A

Newly diagnosed seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week

Women taught about self monitoring blood glucose

Diet advice

If the fasting plasma glucose level is < 7 mmol/l a trial of diet and exercise should be offered

If glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise metformin should be started

If glucose targets are still not met insulin should be added to diet/exercise/metformin

Gestational diabetes is treated with short-acting, not long-acting, insulin

If at the time of diagnosis the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l insulin should be started

If the plasma glucose level is between 6-6.9 mmol/l, and there is evidence of complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios, insulin should be offered

Glibenclamide should only be offered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or those who fail to meet the glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin treatment

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74
Q

What is the management of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy?

A

Weight loss for women with BMI of > 27 kg/m^2

Stop oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, and commence insulin

Folic acid 5 mg/day from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation

Detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts

Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates

Treat retinopathy as can worsen during pregnancy

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75
Q

What are the target blood glucose levels for self monitoring pregnant women?

A

Fasting- 5.3 mmol/l

1 hour- 7.8 mmol/l

2 hour- 6.4 mmol/l

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76
Q

What is Hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Extreme morning sickness

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77
Q

When is hyperemesis gravidarum most common?

A

Between 8 and 12 weeks but may persist up to 20 weeks

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78
Q

What are the risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Increased levels of beta-hCG eg ( multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease)

Nulliparity

Obesity

Family or personal history of NVP

Smoking associated decreased incidence of hypermesis

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79
Q

When would you consider admission for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Continued nausea and vomiting and is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics

Continued nausea and vomiting with ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), despite treatment with oral antiemetics

A confirmed or suspected comorbidity (for example she is unable to tolerate oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection)

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80
Q

What triad should be present for the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

5% pre-pregnancy weight loss

Dehydration

Electrolyte imbalance

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81
Q

What scoring system is used to classify the severity of NVP?

A

Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE)

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82
Q

What is the management of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Simple measures
Rest and avoid triggers e.g. odours
Bland, plain food, particularly in the morning
Ginger
P6 (wrist) acupressure

First-line medications
Antihistamines: oral cyclizine or promethazine
Phenothiazines: oral prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine

Second-line medications
Oral ondansetron
Oral metoclopramide or domperidone- metoclopramide may cause extrapyramidal side effects so not to be used for more than 5 days

Admission for IV hydration
Normal saline with added potassium used to rehydrate

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83
Q

What are the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Triad of- dehydration, weight loss, electrolyte imbalance

AKI

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Oesophagitis, Mallory-Weiss tear

Venous thromboembolism

Fetal outcome- little adverse effect- maybe low birth weight, slight increase prem

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84
Q

What are the two types of emergency contraception?

A

Emergency hormonal contraception- levonorgestrel, ulipristal

Intrauterine device (IUD)

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85
Q

What are the two types of hormonal emergency contraception?

A

Levonorgestrel

Ulipristal

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86
Q

What are the features of levonorgestrel?

A

Taken as soon as possible- efficacy decreases with time

Must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI)

Single dose of 1.5mg should be doubled for those with BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg

If vomiting occurs within 3 hours dose should be repeated

Can be used more than once in a menstrual cycle if clinically indicated

Hormonal contraception can be started immediately after using levornogestrel

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87
Q

What are the features of ulipristal (EllaOne)?

A

30mg dose take as soon as possible, no later than 120 hours after intercourse

Don’t use with levonorgestrel

Ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of the hormonal contraceptive. Contraceptive with the pill, patch or ring should be started, or restarted, 5 days after having ulipristal. Barrier methods used during this time.

Caution exercised in patients with severe asthma

Ulipristal can be used more than once in the same cycle

Breastfeeding delayed one week after ulipristal, no restrictions with levonorgestrel

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88
Q

What are the features of IUD for emergency contraception?

A

Copper IUD most effective method of emergency contraception and offered to all women if they meet criteria

Must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI

If more than 5 days, may be fitted up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date

Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if patient at high risk of STI

99% effective no matter where used in cycle

May be left in situ for long term contraception. If to be removed, kept until at least next period

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89
Q

Ectopic pregnancy investigation?

A

A pregnancy test will be positive

Transvaginal ultrasound is the investigation of choice

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90
Q

Ectopic pregnancy management?

A

Expectant management

Medical management- methotrexate- patient must attend follow up

Surgical management- salpingectomy or salpingotomy

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91
Q

What are the features of expectant management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Size <35mm

Unruptured

Asymptomatic

No fetal heartbeat

hCG <1000IU/L

Compatable with another intrauterine pregnancy

Involves closely monitoring patient over 48 hours and if B-hCG levels rise again or symptom manifest intervention performed

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92
Q

What are the features of medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Size <35mm

Unruptured

No significant pain

No fetal heartbeat

hCG<1500 IU/L

Not suitable if intrauterine pregnancy

Medical management involves using methotrexate and only done if patient willing to attend follow up

Methotrexate is teratogenic no pregnacy 3 months after

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93
Q

What are the features of surgical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Size >35mm

Can be ruptured

Pain

Visible fetal heartbeat

hCG >5000IU/L

Compatible with another intrauterine pregnancy

Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomoy

Salpingectomy is the first-line for women with no other risk factors for infertility

Salpingotomy considered for women with risk factors for infertility such as contralateral tube damage-
Around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment (methotrexate and/or salpingectomy)

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94
Q

What is the triad of pre-eclampsia?

A

New-onset hypertension

Proteinuria

Oedema

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95
Q

What is the definition of pre-eclampsia?

A

New-onset blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, AND 1 or more of the following:

Proteinuria

Other organ involvement (see list below for examples): e.g. renal insufficiency (creatinine ≥ 90 umol/L), liver, neurological, haematological, uteroplacental dysfunction

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96
Q

Pre eclampsia consequences?

A

Eclampsia- also altered mental status, blindness, stroke, clonus, severe headaches or persistent visual scotomata

Fetal complications- Intrauterine growth retardation
Prematurity

Liver involvement- elevated transaminases

Haemorrhage- placental abbruption, intra-abdominal, intro-cerebral

Cardiac failure

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97
Q

Features of severe pre eclampsia?

A

Hypertension- typically >160/110 and proteinuria

Proteinuria: dipstick ++/+++

Headache

Visual disturbance

Papilloedema

RUQ/epigastric pain

Hyperreflexia

Platelet count < 100 * 106/l, abnormal liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome

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98
Q

Risk factors for pre eclampsia?

A

High risk factors

Hypertensive in previous pregnancy
CKD
Autoimmune disease
DM T1/T2
Chronic hypertension

Moderate risk factors

First pregnancy
Over 40
Pregnancy interval over 10 years
BMI 35 or more
FH pre eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy

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99
Q

Pre eclampsia prevention?

A

Women with the following should take aspirin 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks gestation until the birth

≥ 1 high risk factors
≥ 2 moderate factors

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100
Q

Pre eclampsia initial management?

A

Emergency secondary care assessment for any woman with suspected pre-eclampsia

Women with blood pressure ≥ 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and observed

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101
Q

Further management of pre-eclampsia?

A

Oral labetalol first line. Nifedipine if asthmatic, hydralazine may also be used

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102
Q

What are the features of endometriosis?

A

Chronic pelvic pain

Secondary dysmenorrhoea- pain often starts days before bleeding

Deep dyspareunia

Subfertility

Non-gynaecological: urinary symptoms e.g. dysuria, urgency, haematuria. Dyschezia (painful bowel movements)

On pelvic examination reduced organ mobility, tender nodularity in the posterior vaginal fornix and visible vaginal endometriotic lesions may be seen

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103
Q

Investigations for endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy is gold standard

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104
Q

Endometriosis management?

A

NSAIDs and/or paracetamol are first line

If analgesia doesn’t work then COCP or progestogens (medroxyprogesterone acetate)

If analgesia does not improve symptoms or fertility a priority refer to secondary care

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105
Q

Endometriosis secondary care management?

A

GnRH analogues

Drug therapy has no significant impact on fertility rates

Surgery
If trying to conceive can use laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis

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106
Q

At what time after birth will women require contraception?

A

After day 21

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107
Q

What are the options for postpartum contraception?

A

Progesterone only pill (POP)

Can start POP anytime postpartum

After day 21 additional contraception for first 2 days

Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

Absolute contraindication if breastfeeding <6 weeks post partum

UKMEC 2 if 6 weeks-6 months postpartum and breastfeedng

Not used in the first 21 days due to increase VTE risk post partum

After day 21 additional contraception for first 7 days

IUD or IUS inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks

Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breast feeding, amenorrhoeic and < 6 months post-partum

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108
Q

What is conceiving within 12 months associated with?

A

Increased risk preterm birth, low birth weight and small for gestational age babies

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109
Q

What scale may be used to screen for postnatal depression?

A

Edinburgh postnatal depression scale

10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30

Indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week

Score > 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’

Includes a question about self-harm

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110
Q

What are the three types of postpartum mental health problems?

A

‘Baby-blues’

Postnatal depression

Puerperal psychosis

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111
Q

‘Baby blues’ features?

A

Typically 3-7 days after giving birth and more common in primips

Mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful and irritable

Reassurance and support

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112
Q

Postnatal depression feaetures?

A

10% women

Most cases start within a month and peak at 3 months

Features similar to depression

Support and reassurance

CBT may be helpful

Sertraline and paroxetine may be beneficialif symptoms are severe

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113
Q

Puerperal psychosis features?

A

Onset 2-3 weeks after birth

Severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar) and disordered perception (auditory hallucinations)

Admission to hospital- ideally mother and baby unit

25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

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114
Q

What is the name for chickenpox exposure in pregnancy?

A

Fetal varicella syndrome

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115
Q

What is the risk to the mother in fetal varicella syndrome?

A

5x risk pneumonitis

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116
Q

Features of feta varicella synrome for fetus?

A

Skin scarring
Eye defects (microphthalmia)
Limb hypoplasia
Microcephaly
Learning disabilities

Other risks
Shingles in infacy
Severe neonatal varicella

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117
Q

Chicken pox exposure management?

A

If doubt about mother previously having chicken pox maternal blood should be checked for varicella antibodies

If the pregnant woman <= 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella she should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible

VZIG effective up to 10 days after exposure

If the pregnant woman > 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella then either VZIG or antivirals (aciclovir or valaciclovir) should be given days 7 to 14 after exposure

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118
Q

Management of chicken pox in pregnancy?

A

Specialist advice

Risk of serious chicken pox infection (maternal), fetal varicella risk and the safety of aciclovir in pregnancy

Oral aciclovir given if pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash

If the woman is < 20 weeks the aciclovir should be ‘considered with caution’

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119
Q

What is the scale of UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC)?

A

UKMEC 1: a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method

UKMEC 2: advantages generally outweigh the disadvantages

UKMEC 3: disadvantages generally outweigh the advantages

UKMEC 4: represents an unacceptable health risk

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120
Q

UKMEC 3 example conditions COCP?

A

More than 35 years old and smoking less than 15 cigarettes/day

BMI > 35 kg/m^2*

Family history of thromboembolic disease in first degree relatives < 45 years

Controlled hypertension

Immobility e.g. wheel chair use

Carrier of known gene mutations associated with breast cancer (e.g. BRCA1/BRCA2)

Current gallbladder disease

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121
Q

UKMEC 4 example conditions COCP?

A

More than 35 years old and smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day

Migraine with aura

History of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation

History of stroke or ischaemic heart disease

Breast feeding < 6 weeks post-partum

Uncontrolled hypertension

Current breast cancer

Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation

Positive antiphospholipid antibodies (e.g. in SLE)

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122
Q

Is DM UKMEC classified for COCP?

A

Diabetes mellitus diagnosed > 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity

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123
Q

What is postpartum haemorrhage?

A

Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss of > 500 ml after a vaginal delivery and may be primary or secondary

Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours

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124
Q

What are the causes of PPH?

A

4 Ts:
Tone (uterine atony): the vast majority of cases

Trauma (e.g. perineal tear)

Tissue (retained placenta)

Thrombin (e.g. clotting/bleeding disorder)

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125
Q

Risk factors for primary PPH?

A

Previous PPH

Prolonged labour

Pre-eclampsia

Increased maternal age

Polyhydramnios

Emergency Caesarean section

Placenta praevia, placenta accreta

Macrosomia

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126
Q

PPH management?

A

PPH life threatening- senior members of staff involved immediately

ABC approach

Mechanical:
Palpate the uterine fundus and rub it to stimulate contractions
Catheterisation to prevent bladder distension and monitor urine outpur

Medical:
IV oxytocin (syntocinon): slow IV injection followed by an IV infusion
Ergometrine slow IV or IM (unless hypertension history)
Carboprost IM (unless history of asthma)
Misoprostol sublingual

Surgical:
Intrauterine balloon tamponade first line surgical management
B-lynch suture, ligation uterine arteries etc
If severe uncontrolled then hysterectomy sometimes performed

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127
Q

When does secondary PPH occur?

A

24 hours- 6 weeks due to retained placental tissue or endometritis

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128
Q

What to do if someone misses one COC pill?

A

Take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day

No additional contraceptive protection needed

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129
Q

What to do if someone misses 2 or more pills?

A

Take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills and then continue taking pills daily, one each day

The women should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row

If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7): emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1

If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14): after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception

If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21): she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day; thus omitting the pill free interval

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130
Q

High risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

Hypertensive in previous pregnancy
CKD
Autoimmune disease
DM T1/T2
Chronic hypertension

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131
Q

Moderate risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

First pregnancy
Over 40
Pregnancy interval over 10 years
BMI 35 or more
FH pre eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy

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132
Q

What to do woman with previous VTE who is pregnant?

A

Input from expert

Add low molecular weight heparin

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133
Q

What makes a woman intermediate VTE risk in pregnancy?

A

Hospitalisation, surgery, comorbidities or thrombophilia

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134
Q

Risk factors increase chances of VTE in pregnancy

A

Age > 35
Body mass index > 30
Parity > 3
Smoker
Gross varicose veins
Current pre-eclampsia
Immobility
Family history of unprovoked VTE
Low risk thrombophilia
Multiple pregnancy
IVF pregnancy

4+ warrants immediate treatment with LMWH continued until 6 weeks postnatal

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135
Q

What drugs should be avoided in pregnancy related to VTE?

A

Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)

Warfarin

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136
Q

What is gestational hypertension?

A

New onset hypertension diagnosed after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria

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137
Q

What are the categories of gestational hypertension?

A

Mild 140-149 over 90-99
Moderate 150-159 over 100-109
Severe >160 over >110

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138
Q

What are the three groups of gestational hypertension?

A

Pre-existing HTN- over 140/90 before pregnancy or before 20 weeks, no proteinuria/oedema
If already on an ACE/ARB stop

Pregnancy induced HTN- occuring in second half of pregnancy (after 20 weeks), no proteinuria, no oedema, resolves following birth

Pre-eclampsia- pregnancy induced hypertension in association with proteiuria, oedema may occur

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139
Q

Management of gestational hypertension?

A

1st- Oral labetalol (not for asthmatics)
2nd- Oral nifeddipine

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140
Q

Rules for traditional POPs if missed? (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen)

A

If less than 3 hours late
no action required, continue as normal

If more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken)
action needed

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141
Q

Rules for Cerazette (desogestrel) if missed?

A

If less than 12 hours late
no action required, continue as normal

If more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken)
action needed - see below

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142
Q

Action if any POP missed, and needs action?

A

Action required, if needed:
take the missed pill as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed just take one pill. Take the next pill at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day
continue with rest of pack
extra precautions (e.g. condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours

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143
Q

What are the red flags for group b strep in a baby?

A

Two or more minor risk factors or one red flag antibiotic therapy with benzylpenicillin and gentamicin.

One minor risk observe for 24 hours

Red flags:
Suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy

Parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection (such as septicaemia) at any time during labour, or in the 24-hour periods before and after the birth [This does not refer to intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis]

Respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth

Seizures

Need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby

Signs of shock

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144
Q

Risk factors for GBS infection?

A

Prematurity

Prolonged rupture of the membranes

Previous sibling GBS infection

Maternal pyrexia e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis

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145
Q

First choice antibiotic for GBS?

A

Benzylpenicillin

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146
Q

Who should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) for GBS?

A

Previous GBS in a pregnancy (or offer testing late in pregnancy and antibiotics if positive)

Women with a previous baby with early or late onset GBS disease

Preterm labour regardless of GBS status

Women with pyrexia of >38 during labour

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147
Q

RFs for perineal tears?

A

Primigravida

Large babies

Precipitant labour

Shoulder dystocia

Forceps delivery

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148
Q

Perineal tears classification?

A

First degree- superficial no muscle involvement, do not require repair

Second degree- injury to perineal muscle but not involving anal sphincter, requires suturing

Third degree- injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex, require repair in theatre

Fourth degree- injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, repair on theatre

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149
Q

What are the features of uterine fibroids?

A

May be asymptomatic

Menorrhagia

Bulk related symptoms- lower abdo pain, cramping, bloating, urinary symptoms

Subfertility

Rare features- polycythemia secondary to autonomous production of erythropietin

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150
Q

How to diagnose uterine fibroids?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

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151
Q

Uterine fibroids management?

A

Asymptomatic- review periodically

Treatment to shrink:

Medical- GnRH agonists- use for short periods loss of bone density

Surgical:
Myomectomy- performed abdominally, laparoscopically or hysteroscopically

Hysteroscopic endometrial ablation

Polycythaemia due to autonomous production of erythropoietin

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152
Q

Treatment of menhorrhagia secondary to fibroids?

A

1st Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)

NSAIDs- mefeanamic acid

Tranexamic acid

COCP

Oral progestogen

Injectable progestogen

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153
Q

What are the three stages of postpartum thyroiditis?

A
  1. Thyrotoxicosis
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Normal thyroid function (but high recurrence rate in future pregnancies)

Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients

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154
Q

What is the management of postpartum thyroiditis?

A

Thyrotoxic phase- propanolol for symptom control

Hypothyroid phase- treat with thyroxine

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155
Q

Contraceptive effectiveness times (if not on first day of period)?

A

Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period):
instant: IUD
2 days: POP
7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS

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156
Q

Most common adverse effect of POP?

A

Irregular vaginal bleeding is the most common

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157
Q

POP cover start?

A

Up to and including day 5 immediate, otherwise 2 days and use condoms inbetween

If switching from COCP immediate protection if continued from end of pill packet

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158
Q

What conditions are a contraindication to breast feeding?

A

Galactosemia

Viral infections

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159
Q

Which drugs can be given to breastfeeding mothers?

A

The following drugs can be given to mothers who are breastfeeding:
Antibiotics: penicillins, cephalosporins, trimethoprim

Endocrine: glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), levothyroxine*
epilepsy: sodium valproate, carbamazepine
asthma: salbutamol, theophyllines

Psychiatric drugs: tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics**

Hypertension: beta-blockers, hydralazine

Anticoagulants: warfarin, heparin

Digoxin

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160
Q

Which drugs are contraindicated while breastfeeding?

A

The following drugs should be avoided:
Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides

Psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines

Aspirin

Carbimazole

Methotrexate

Sulfonylureas

Cytotoxic drugs

Amiodarone

Clozapine

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161
Q

What does primary amenhorroea, little or no axillary and pubic hair and elevated testosterone mean?

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

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162
Q

Features of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

Primary amenorrhoea

Little or no axillary and pubic hair

Undescended testes causing groin swellings

Breast development may occur as a result of the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

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163
Q

What are the three components of the risk malignancy index (RMI) in ovarian cancer?

A

US findings

Menopausal status

CA125 levels

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164
Q

RFs for shoulder dystocia?

A

Fetal macrosomia (association with maternal diabetes)

High maternal BMI

DM

Prolonged labour

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165
Q

Shoulder dystocia management?

A

Senior help called immediately

McRoberts manoeuvre should be perfromed- this manoeuvre entails flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, bringing the mother’s thighs towards her abdomen
this rotation increases the relative anterior-posterior angle of the pelvis and often facilitates a successful delivery.

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166
Q

Shoulder dystocia compliations?

A

Potential complications include:
Maternal:
Postpartum haemorrhage
Perineal tears
Fetal:
Brachial plexus injury
Neonatal death

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167
Q

Which antidepressant for breastfeeding women?

A

Sertraline

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168
Q

HRT side effects?

A

Nausea
Breast tenderness
Fluid retention and weight gain

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169
Q

Complications of HRT?

A

Increased risk of breast cancer- increased by progesterone

Increased risk of endometrial cancer- oestrogen by itself not given to women with a womb- reduced by the addition of progesterone

Increased risk VTE- increased by addtion of progesterone, transdermal HRT does not increase VTE risk

Increased risk of stroke

Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease

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170
Q

What are the investigations for reduced fetal movements?

A

If past 28 weeks-
1. Handheld doppler to confirm fetal heartbeat
2. If not detected immediate ultrasound offered
3. If present CTG used for at least 20 mins to monitor fetal HR

If fetal movements not felt by 24 weeks referral should be made

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171
Q

What are some causes of folic acid deficiency?

A

Phenytoin

Methotrexate

Pregnancy

Alcohol excess

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172
Q

What are the concequences of folic acid deficiency?

A

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia

Neural tube defects

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173
Q

What is the prevention of neural tube defects during pregnancy?

A

All women should take 400mcg of folic acid until 12th week of pregnancy

Women at higher risk of NTD should take 5mg folic acid from before conception until 12th week of pregnancy

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174
Q

Which women are higher risk for neural tube defects?

A

Either partner has a NTD, FH or previous prgnancy with NTD

Woman taking antiepileptic drugs, coeliac disease, DM or thalassaemia

Woman is obese 30 BMI or more

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175
Q

How long can the mirena coil stay in?

A

5 years

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176
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Development of seizures in association with pre-eclampsia

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177
Q

What is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia and treat sezirues when they develop (eclampsia)?

A

Magnesium sulphate

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178
Q

What should be monitored while giving magnesium sulphate?

A

Urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations

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179
Q

What is the treatment for respiratory depression when using magnesium sulphate?

A

Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression

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180
Q

How long to treat with magnesium sulphate in eclampsia?

A

Treatment should continue for 24 hours after last seizure of delivery

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181
Q

What else should you do in severe pre eclampsia/eclampsia?

A

Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload

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182
Q

What are the features of vulval cancer?

A

In older women

Lump or ulcer on labia majora
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
May be associated with itching/irritation

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183
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Anything slowing ovum’s passage to the uterus:

Damage to tubes (pelvic inflammatory disease, surgery)
Previous ectopic
Endometriosis
IUCD
Progesterone only pill
IVF (3% of pregnancies are ectopic)

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184
Q

Look at induction of labour

A

N

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185
Q

When should an ectopic pregnancy be managed surgically?

A

> 35mm

hCG over 5000IU/L

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186
Q

What is amniotic fluid embolism?

A

This is when fetal cells/ amniotic fluid enters the mothers bloodstream and stimulates a reaction

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187
Q

When can amniotic fluid embolism occur?

A

During labour, after delivery in the immediate post partum or during caesarean insection

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188
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

Symptoms include: chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety and coughing.
Signs include: cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia and myocardial infarction.

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189
Q

Management of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

Critical care unit

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190
Q

What is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

A

Uterine atony

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191
Q

What is syntocinon?

A

Synthetic oxytocin

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192
Q

What are the three features of Meig’s syndrome?

A

A benign ovarian tumour

Ascites

Pleural effusion

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193
Q

What are the four main types of ovarian tumour?

A

Surface derived tumours

Germ cell tumours

Sex cord-stromal tumours

Metastasis

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194
Q

What is the management of placenta praevia on a 20 week scan?

A
  1. Rescan at 32 weeks
  2. No need to limit activity or intercourse unless they bleed
  3. If still present at 32 weeks then scan every 2 weeks
  4. Final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks to determine method of delivery- elective aesarean section for grades III/IV between 37-38 weeks, trial of vaginal may be offered if grade I
  5. If know placenta praevia goes into labour prior to the electve caesarean secton emergency caesarean section should be performed due to PPH risk
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195
Q

Placent praevia with bleeding management?

A
  1. Admit
  2. ABC approach to stabilise woman
  3. If not able to stabilise- emergency caesarean section
  4. If in labour or term reached- emergency caesarean section
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196
Q

What is the investigation for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Transvaginal utrasound

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197
Q

How to differentiate between causes of bleeding in pregnancy?

A

Painless Praevia
Agony Abruption

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198
Q

What type of bleeding in placena praevia?

A

Painless and bright red

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199
Q

What type of bleeding in placental abruption?

A

Pain and dark red

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200
Q

What is dysmenorrhoea?

A

Excessive pain during the menstrual period

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201
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

No underlying pelvic pathology. Usually appears within 1-2 years of menarche.

Pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of period starting

Suprapubic cramping pains which may radiate to the back or down the thigh

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202
Q

What is the management of primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

1st- NSAIDs such as mefenamc acid and ibuprofen

2nd- COCP

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203
Q

What is secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Develops many years after the menarche. Is the result of underlying pathology. Pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset period.

Causes incude:
Endometriosis
Adenomyosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Intrauterine devices (copper coil, inrauterine system (mirena) may help)
Fibroids

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204
Q

What is the management for seconday dysmenorrhoea?

A

Refer to gynae

Depends on cause

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205
Q

What suggests Down’s syndrome on a 12 weeks combined screening test result?

A

High HCG

Low PAPP-A

Nuchal translucency- thickened

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206
Q

When can a chorionic villous sampling test be performed?

A

Between 11 weeks and the end of the 13th week

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207
Q

When can amniocentesis be performed?

A

From the 15th week onwards

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208
Q

What are the guidelines on antenatal testing for Down’s?

A

The combined test is now standard- tests should be done between 11-13+6 weeks
Combined is- nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
Trisomy 18 and 13 give similar results to Down’s but HCG lower

Quadruple test

If women book later in pregnancy quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks

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209
Q

What is in the quadruple test?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

Unconjugated oestriol

Human chorionic gonadotrophin

Inhibin A

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210
Q

What is in the combined test?

A

Nuchal translucency measurement

Serum B-HCG

Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

211
Q

Downs syndrome result on quadruple test?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein- low

Unconjugated oestriol- low

HCG- high

Inhibin A- high

212
Q

What results come from the combined and quadruple tests?

A

Both tests return a lower chance or higher chance result

Lower chance- 1 in 150 or more

High chance- 1 in 150 or less

213
Q

What is non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)

A

If a woman has a higher chance result she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test (amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS). Given NIPT non-invasive and highly sensitive and specific this is preffered choice

214
Q

What are the features of NIPT?

A

Analyses small DNA fragments that circulate in the blood of a pregnant woman

cffDNA derives from placental cells

Analysis of cffDNA allows early detection chromosomal abnormalities

Sensitivity and specificity are very high for trisomy 21 (>99%)- similarly high for other chromosomal abnormalities

215
Q

What should women on epileptics who are trying to conceive receive?

A

5mg folic acid instead of 400mcg

216
Q

What is vaginal candidiasis?

A

Thrush- very common 80% caused by Candida albicans

217
Q

Risk factors for vaginal candidiasis?

A

DM

Drugs- antibiotics, steroids

Pregnancy

Immunosuppression- HIV

218
Q

What are the features of vaginal candidiasis?

A

Cottage cheese, non offensive discharge

Vulvitis- superficial dyspareunia, dysuria

Itch

Vulval erythema, fissuring, satellite lesions

219
Q

What are the investigations for vaginal candidiasis?

A

High vaginal swab- not indicated if the clinical features consistent with candidiasis

220
Q

Management vaginal candidiasis?

A

Local or oral

1st- Oral fluconazole

Clotrimazole 500mg intravaginal pessary as single dose if oral therapy contraindicated

If there are vulval symptoms consider adding topical imidazole in addition to an oral or intravaginal antifungal

If pregnant only local treaments may be used

221
Q

Recurrent vaginal candidiasis management?

A

4 or more episodes per year

Compliance checked

Confirm candidiasis with high vaginal swab

Blood glucose to exclude diabetes

Consider induction maintinence regime-
Induction: Oral fluconazole every 3 days for 3 doses
Maintinence- oral fluconazole weekly for 6 months

222
Q

What are the characteristics of ovarian torsion?

A

Sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain. May coincide with exercise

N+V common

Unilateral, tender adnexal mass on examination

223
Q

What is it called if fallopian tube also involved in torsion?

A

Adnexal torsion

224
Q

RFs for ovarian torsion?

A

RFs

Ovarian mass
Being reproductive age
Pregnancy
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

225
Q

Features of ovarian torsion?

A

Usually sudden onset of deep seated colicky abdominal pain

Vomiting and distress

Fever in minority

Vaginal examination shows adnexial tenderness

Ultrasound may show whirlpool sign

Laparoscopy both diagnostic and theraputic

226
Q

Features for PID case?

A

Pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria and menstrual irregularities

Cervical excitation may be found on examination

227
Q

What virus causes rubella?

A

Togavirus

228
Q

Features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Sensorineural deafness

Congenital cataracts
Congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus)

Growth retardation

Hepatosplenomegaly

Purpuric skin lesions

‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis

Microphthalmia

Cerebral palsy

229
Q

How to diagnose rubella in pregnancy?

A

Suspected cases should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit

IgM antibodies raised in women recently exposed to the virus

Difficult to differentiate between rubella and parvovirus B19

230
Q

Rubella in pregnancy management?

A

Discuss with local Health Protection Unit

If a woman has no immunity advise to keep away from people who might have rubella

Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period- MMR should not be given to known pregnant mothers or ones trying to get pregnant

231
Q

Do antibiotics have any effect on the POP?

A

No

232
Q

What is the range for the combined test?

A

11-13+6 weeks

233
Q

What is the rage for the quadruple test?

A

15-20 weeks

234
Q

What is the main problem with the Nexplanon implant?

A

Irregular heavy bleeding

235
Q

When can levonorgestrel be taken vs ulipristal?

A

Levonorgestrel within 72 hours

Ulipristal within 120 hours

236
Q

Management for early delivery?

A

Administer tocolytics and steroids

237
Q

Infertility management in PCOS?

A

Weight reduction

Metformin, clomifene or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation

Clomifene 1st, metformin more used in overweight

238
Q

General management of PCOS?

A

Weight reduction

COC may help regulate cycle if contraception required

239
Q

Hirstuism and acne management in PCOS?

A

COC may help

2nd Eflornithine

240
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

The attachment of the placenta to the myometrium. Placenta does not properly seperate during labour higher risk of post partum haemorrhage

241
Q

What are the three types of placenta accreta?

A

Accreta: chorionic villi attach to the myometrium

Increta: chorionic villi will invade into the myometrium

Percreta: chorionic villi will invade through the perimetrium

242
Q

What is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Most common liver disorder in pregnancy

243
Q

What are the features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Pruritis- often in palms and soles

Clinicallydetectable jaundice

Raised bilirubin

244
Q

What is the management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief

Weekly liver function tests

Women are typically induced at 37 weeks

245
Q

What are the features of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Abdominal pain

Nausea & vomiting

Headache

Jaundice

Hypoglycaemia

Severe disease may result in pre-eclampsia

246
Q

What is the investigation for acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

ALT is typically elevated e.g. 500 u/l

247
Q

What is the management of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Support care

Once stabilised- delivery

248
Q

What is the investigation for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

249
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding >80ml per menses

250
Q

What are the menorrhagia investigations?

A

Full blood count

Transvaginal ultrasound scan if symptoms suggest structural or histological abnormality (intermenstrual or post coital bleeding, pelvic pain/pressure symptoms)

251
Q

What is the management for menorrhagia for women who do not require contraception?

A

Either mefenamic acid (particularly with dysmenorrhoea) or tranexamic acid

Both started on first day of period

252
Q

What is the management for menorrhagia for women who require contraception?

A

1st- intraterine system (Mirena)

2nd- COCP

3rd- long acting progestogens (depo provera)

253
Q

What are the characteristics of malignant ovarian cysts?

A

Irregular, solid tumour

Ascites

At least 4 papillary structures

Strong blood flow

254
Q

What are the types of physiological cysts?

A

Follicular cysts- commonest type ovarian cyst

Corpus luteum cyst- more likely to intraperitoneal bleed than follicular

255
Q

What to do to prophylactically treat someone for pre-eclampsia?

A

Low dose aspirin started at 12-14 weeks

256
Q

When should IUD copper be offered as emergency contraception?

A

In all cases as more effective especially if ovulation has just occured (14 days) as other two stop ovulation

Unless contraindicatted

257
Q

What are the feaetures of PCOS?

A

Subfertility and infertility

Menstrual disturbances- oligomenorrhoea and amenorrhoea

Hirsutism, acne

Obesity

Acanthosis nigricans

258
Q

What are the investigations for PCOS?

A

Pelvic ultrasound- multiple cysts on the ovaries

Baseline investigations- FSH, LH, Prolactin, TSH, testosterone, sex hormone-binding globulin
Raised LH:FSH ratio
Prolactin normal to mildly elevated
Testosterone normal to mildly elevated
SHBG normal to low

Check impaired glucose tolerance

259
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?

A

Rotterdam criteria- PCOS diagnosis made if 2 of the following 3 are present:

Infrequent/no ovulation

Clinical and biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne or elevated levels of testosterone)

Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan

260
Q

How late does Cerazette (desogestrel) have to be before action needed?

A

12 hours

261
Q

What makes you think adenomyosis?

A

> 30 with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and an enlarged boggy uterus

262
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Endometrial tissue within the myometrium

More common in multiparous women towards the end of their reproductive years

263
Q

Features of adenomyosis?

A

Dysmenorrhoea

Menorrhagia

Enlarged, boggy uterus

264
Q

Investigations for adenomyosis?

A

1st- Transvaginal ultrasound

MRI is alternative

265
Q

Management of adenomyosis?

A

Symptomatic treatment- tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia

GnRH agonists

Uterine artery embolisation

Hysterectomy- definitive treatment

266
Q

What is the max end of normal hCG results and what does a high one make you think?

A

210,000 mIU/ml

If higher suggests a molar pregnancy- complete hydatidiform mole

267
Q

What are the features of a molar pregnancy?

A

Vaginal bleeding

Uterus size greater than expected for gestational age

Abnormally high hCG

Ultrasound: Snow storm appearance of mixed echogenicity

268
Q

What should be monitored during treatment with magnesium sulphate?

A

Urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations

269
Q

How often is smear testing done?

A

Between 25-64 years

25-49 years- 3-yearly

50-64 years- 5-yearly

Cervical screening not offered to patients over 64

270
Q

What are the special situations related to cervical screening?

A

Cervical screening in pregnancy delayed until 3 months post partum unless missed screening/previous abnormal smears

Women never sexually active before are low risk so may want to opt out

271
Q

What are the three types of gestational trophoblastic disorders?

A

Complete hydatidiform mole

Partial hydatidiform mole

Choriocarcinoma

272
Q

What are the features of complete hydatidiform mole?

A

Bleeding in first or early second trimester

Exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy- hyperemesis

Uterus large for dates

Very high hCG

Hyertension and hyperthyroidism my be seem (hCG can mimick TSH)

273
Q

What is the management of a molar pregnancy?

A

Urgent referral to specialist centre- evacuation of uterus performed

Effective contraception recommended to avoid a pregnancy in the next 12 months

274
Q

What is expectant management of miscarriage?

A

Waiting for spontaneous miscarrige

Wait 7-14 days for miscarrige to complete spontaneously

If expectant management unsuccessful then medical or surgical management offered

Situations where medical or surgical:
Increased risk of haemorrhage- late first trimester or coagulopathies

Previous adverse/ traumatic pregnancy- stillbirth, miscarrige, antepartum haemorrhage

Evidence of infection

275
Q

What is the medical management of miscarrige?

A

Tablets to expedite the miscarrige

Vaginal misprostol- prostaglandin analogue

Contact doctor if bleeding not stopped within 24 hours

Given antiemetics and pain relief

276
Q

What is the surgical management of miscarrige?

A

Surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic

Vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre

Vacuum aspiration done under local anaesthetic as an out patient

277
Q

What must be given to rhesus D negative women having a termination after 10 weeks?

A

anti-D prophylaxis

278
Q

What are the medical options for termination of pregnancy?

A

Mifepristone (anti-progestogen) followed 48 hours later by prostaglandins (e.g. misoprostol) to stimulate uterine contractions

Takes hours/days to complete

Pregnancy test required at 2 weeks to confirm the pregnancy has ended. Should detect the level of hCG (rather than positive or negative)- termed a multi level pregnancy test

279
Q

What are the surgical options for termination of pregnancy?

A

Transcervical procedures- vacuum aspiration, electric vacuum aspiration and dilitation and evacuation

Following surgical abortion an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity

280
Q

Choice of termination of pregnancy?

A

Choice between medical and surgical offered up to and including 23+6 weeks gestation

After 9 weeks medical abortions less common- increased likelihood of products of conception seen and decreased success rate

Before 10 weeks medical abortions usually done at home

281
Q

What to do if a woman with hypertension on ACEi/ARB gets pregnant?

A

Stop immediately and give alternative antihypertensives (labetalol) while awaiting specialist review

282
Q

Define hypertension in pregnancy?

A

systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg

Increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic

Then catagorise into pre-existing, pregnancy induced or pre- eclampsia

Proteinuria/oedema

283
Q

What do fibroids appear as on ultrasound?

A

Hypoechoic masses

284
Q

What does a complete hydatidiform mole appear as on ultrasound?

A

Snow-storm appearance

285
Q

What is the treatment for CIN (cervical intraepitheliar neoplasia)?

A

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)

286
Q

How long should 400IU vitamin D be taken during pregnancy?

A

It should be taken for the full duration of pregnancy

287
Q

What are the reasons for taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg?

A

Either partner has NTD, previous pregnancy NTD or FH NTD

Woman taking antiepileptic drugs, has coeliac, diabetes or thalassemia

Obese 30+ BMI

288
Q

What is tested for on booking visit?

A

4 3 2 1
4 blood (FBC, rhesus, blood group, alloantibodies)
3 virus (hepB, HIV, syphilis) rubella no more
2 UTI (dipstick, culture)
1 full physical examination (breast, BMI, BP)

289
Q

What are the three main catagories of anovulation?

A

Class 1 (hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation) - notably hypothalamic amenorrhoea (5-10% of women)

Class 2 (normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation) - polycystic ovary syndrome (80% of cases)

Class 3 (hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation) - premature ovarian insufficiency (5-10% of cases). In this class, any attempts at ovulation induction are typically unsuccessful and therefore usually require in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) with donor oocytes to conceive

290
Q

What are the forms of ovarian induction?

A

Exercise and weight loss

Letrozole

Clomiphene

Gonadotrphin therapy

291
Q

What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is one of the potential side effects of ovulation induction

Hypovolaemic shock
Acute renal failure
Venous or arterial thromboembolism

292
Q

What are the indications for induction of labour?

A

Prolonged pregnancy, e.g. 1-2 weeks after the estimated date of delivery

Prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, where labour does not start

Maternal medical problems:
diabetic mother > 38 weeks
pre-eclampsia
obstetric cholestasis

Intrauterine fetal death

293
Q

What is the Bishop’s score used for?

A

Use to assess whether the induction of labour is required

Score of <5 indicates labour unlikely to start without an induction

Score of ≥ 8 indicates high chance of spontaneous labour

294
Q

What are the components of a Bishop’s score?

A

Look up table

Cervical postition
0- posterior
1- intermediate
2- anterior

Cervical consistency
0- firm
1- intermediate
2- soft

Cervical effacement
0- 0-30%
1- 40-50%
2- 60-70%
3- 80%

Cervical dilitation
0- <1 cm
1- 1-2 cm
2- 3-4 cm
3- >5 cm

Fetal station

0- -3
1- -2
2- -1, 0
3- +1,+2

295
Q

Management of induction of labour?

A

Options-

1st- Membrane sweep

Vaginal prostoglandin E2 (PGE2)- dinoprostone

Oral prostoglandin E1- misoprostol

Maternal oxytocin

Amniotomy

Cervical ripening balloon

if the Bishop score is ≤ 6
vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol
mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean
if the Bishop score is > 6
amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

296
Q

NICE guidelines on labour induction?

A

If the Bishop score is ≤ 6
vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol

Mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean

If the Bishop score is > 6
amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

297
Q

What are the complications of labour induction?

A

Uterine hyperstimulation:
Prolonged and frequent uterine contractions
Fetal hypoxia
Uterine rupture

Management:
Removing the vaginal prostaglandins if possible and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started
Consider tocolysis

298
Q

What used for tocolysis?

A

It’s Not My Time

Indomethacin

Nifedipine

Magnesium sulphate

Terbutaune

299
Q

What is ruptured endometrioma?

A

Intense pain

Ruptured endometriosis, fluid in abdomen

300
Q

Learn the hand innervation

A

Rock, Paper, Scissors –> Median, Radial, Ulnar

301
Q

What is the management of placental abruption?

A

Fetus alive and under <36 weeks
Fetal distress: emergency caesarean
No fetal distress: observe closely, steroids, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation

Fetus alive and >36 weeks
Fetal distress: immediate caesarean
No foetal distress: deliver vaginally

Foetus dead- induce vaginal delivery

302
Q

Features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Pruritus - may be intense - typical worse palms, soles and abdomen

Clinically detectable jaundice occurs in around 20% of patients

Raised bilirubin is seen in > 90% of cases

303
Q

Management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks is common practice but may not be evidence based

Ursodeoxycholic acid

Vitamin K supplementation

304
Q

Why give higher folate?

A

MORE folic acid (5mg) for:

M- Metabolism diseases- Diabetes and Coeliac
O- Obesity (BMI >30)
R- Relative (Family or personal Hx of NTDs)
E- Epilepsy (on anti-epileptic meds)

(+Thalassaemia and Sickle Cell- less likely in exams)

Antipsychotics too

305
Q

Edward’s syndrome quadruple test result?

A

EdwardIAn- inhibin A stands out

Alpha fetoprotein- low
Unconjugated oestriol- low
hCG- low
Inhibin A- normal

306
Q

Which one out of Edward’s, Patau and Down’s gives high hCG?

A

Down’s

307
Q

Down’s syndrome quadruple test result?

A

Alpha fetoprotein- low
Unconjugated oestriol- low
hCG- high
Inhibin A- high

308
Q

Neural tube defects quadruple test result?

A

Alpha fetoprotein- High
Unconjugated oestriol- normal
hCG- normal
Inhibin A- normal

309
Q

Who should be prescribed aspirin throughout preganncy?

A

Anyone with risk factors for pre-eclampsia- 1 high risk or two moderate risks

High risk factors:
Hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
Chronic kidney disease
Autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome
Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
Chronic hypertension

Moderate risk factors:
First pregnancy
Age 40 years or older
Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
Body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m² or more at first visit
Family history of pre-eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy

310
Q

What is umbilical cord prolapse?

A

The umbilical cord descending before the presenting part of the uterus

311
Q

What are the risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Prematurity

Multiparity

Polyhydraminos

Twin pregnancy

Cephalopelvic disproportion

Abnormal presentation- breech, transverse lie

312
Q

When do most cord prolapses happen?

A

At artificial rupture of the membranes

313
Q

What is the management of umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Obstetric emergency

Presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression

If cord past the level of introitus, there should be minimal handling and it should be kept warm and moist to avoid vasospasm

Ask patient to go on all fours until immediate caesarian ready

Tocolytics may be used to reduce the uterine contractions

Retrofilling the bladder with 500-700ml of saline may be helpful

Instrumental vaginal possible if cervix fully dilated and head is low

314
Q

Which contraception is contraindicated in PID?

A

Intrauterine device

Intrauterine system

Both last for 5 years

315
Q

What is the most effective form of contraception?

A

Implantable contraceptive

Contraindications- current breast cance- UKMEC 4

316
Q

What can happen when you stop l-dopa?

A

Similar to neuroleptic malignant sydrome

317
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of bleeding in the first trimester?

A

Miscarriage

Ectopic pregnancy

Implantation bleeding

318
Q

Difference between traditional POPs and desogestrel (Cerazette)

A

Latest traditional can be- 3 hours

Latest desogestrel can be- 12 hours

319
Q

What are the three types of foetal lie?

A

Longitudinal lie

Transverse Lie

Oblique

320
Q

Risk factors for transverse presentation?

A

Women who have had previous pregnancy most common

Fibroids and pelvic tumours

Twins or triplets

Prematurity

Polyhydraminos

Foetal abnormalities

321
Q

How to diagnose transverse lie?

A

Abnormal foetal lie detected during routine antenatal appointments

Abdominal examination

Ultrasound scan

322
Q

Complications of transverse lie?

A

Pre-term rupture membranes (PROM)

Cord-prolapse

323
Q

What is the management of transverse/oblique lie?

A

Before 36 weeks none most resolve

After 36 weeks:

Active management- external cephalic version (ECV) of the foetus- can be late in pregnancy or early in labour- contraindications- maternal rupture in last 7 days, multiple pregnancy (except 2nd twin), major uterine abnormality.

Elective caesarean section

324
Q

Which insertable contraceptive should you avoid in heavy menstrual bleeding or those with a history of it?

A

Copper intrauterine device

325
Q

Postpartum contraception options?

A

POP anytime- contraception used first two days

COCP- UKMEC 4 if less than 6 weeks post partum, UKMEC2 6 weeks to 6 months, not in first 21 days as VTE risk, after 21 days additional contraception for first 7 days

IUD or IUS can be used within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks

Lactationnal amenorrhoea method 98% effective if fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic and <6 months post partum

326
Q

What to do with a woman 10 weeks presenting with confusion, ataxia, nystagmus?

A

Give Pabrinex (B vitamins)

Wernicke’s encephalopathy can come from vomiting (hyperemesis gravidarum)

327
Q

What is the name of trying to turn a breech baby after 36 weeks?

A

External cephalic version (ECV)

328
Q

How to sort breech babies?

A

If less then 36 weeks reassureit might move round

If over 36 weeks give external cephalic version (ECV) a go

If it fails offer planned caesarean or vaginal delivery

329
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for ECV?

A

Where caesarean delivery is required

Antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days

Abnormal cardiotocography

Major uterine anomaly

Ruptured membranes

Multiple pregnancy

330
Q

What is used for rehydration in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Admit for IV saline with potassium replacement

331
Q

What is the medical management for miscarrige?

A

Just vaginal misoprostol

Contact doctor if bleeding not stopped in 24 hours

Misoprostol expels products of contraception, don’t need mifepristone to end pregnancy as would be the case in an abortion

332
Q

What are the surgical options for miscarrige?

A

Vaccum aspiration

Surgical management

333
Q

What are the side effects of GnRH analogues?

A

Menopausal symptoms and loss off mineral bone density

Used in fibroids

334
Q

Check fibroids

A

On Passmed

335
Q

How to suppress lactation?

A

Stop lactation reflex- stop suckling

Supportive measures- well supported bra and analgesia

Cabergoline is the medication of choice

336
Q

What is given before fibroid surgery?

A

GnRH analogues to try and reduce the size of the fibroid (uterus) before surgery- particularly for hysterectomy

COCP not taken 4-6 weeks before surgery due to VTE risk

337
Q

At what point is the menopause said to have happened?

A

12 months since last period

Women under 50 who menopause require contraception for 2 years, over 50 only 1 year

338
Q

How long should women use contraception after the menopause?

A

If menopause happened over 50- 1 year

If menopause happened under 50- 2 years

339
Q

What are the two types of caesarean section?

A

Lower segment caesarean- now over 99% of cases

Classic caesarean- longitudinal incision

340
Q

What are the indications for caesarean section?

A

Absolute cephalopelvic disproportion

Placenta praevia grades 3/4

Pre-eclampsia

Post-maturity

IUGR

Fetal distress in labour/prolapsed cord

Failure of labour to progress

Malpresentations: brow

Placental abruption: only if fetal distress; if dead deliver vaginally

Vaginal infection e.g. active herpes

Cervical cancer (disseminates cancer cells)

341
Q

What are the catagories of caesarean section?

A

Category 1- immediate threat to life of mother or baby- suspected uterine rupture, cord prolapse, foetal hypoxia, persistent fetal bradycardia- to be delivered within 30 mins

Category 2- Maternal or fetal compromise not immediately life threatening - delivery should occur within 75 minutes

Category 3- delivery required but mother and baby stable

Category 4- elective caesarean

342
Q

What are contraindications to vaginal birth after caesarean?

A

Previous uterine rupture

Classical caesarean scar

343
Q

How can you differentiate between a seizure and a pseudoseizure?

A

Elevated prolactin 10-20 mins after episode can differentiate between general tonic clonic/partial and non-epileptic pseudo seizure

Serum prolactin raised in true seizures
Tongue biting in true seizures

344
Q

What factors favour pseudo seizures over true seizures?

A

Pelvic thrusting

Family member with epilepsy

Much more common in females

Crying after seizure

Don’t occur when alone

Gradual onset

345
Q

What is the target time for thrombectomy in acute stroke?

A

6 hours

346
Q

Stroke features?

A

pelvic thrusting
family member with epilepsy
much more common in females
crying after seizure
don’t occur when alone
gradual onset

347
Q

What is the management of primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

1st- NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen

COCP is 2nd line

348
Q

What is cervical ectropion?

A

Ectocervix transformation. Caused by elevated levels of oestrogen (pregnancy. COCP, ovulatory phase)

Features:
Vaginal discharge
Post coital bleeding

Ablative treatment

349
Q

What is fibroid degeneration and when might it occur?

A

Uterine fibroids are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy

If growth outstrips blood supply can undergo red degeneration

This presents with low grade fever, pain and vomiting

Conservative management- rest, analgesia- should resolve within 4-7 days

350
Q

What is the management for endometrial cancer?

A

Surgery

Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Patients with high risk disease may have post operative chemotherapy

351
Q

What are the long term complications of vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair?

A

Enterocele and vaginal vault prolapse

Urinary retention may occur acutely

352
Q

What are the investigations for bladder incontience?

A

All types of incontinence

Bladder diaries

Vaginal examination to exclude prelvic organ prolapse

Urine dipstick and culture

Urodynamic studies

353
Q

Is Carbamazepine enzyme inducing?

A

Yes, can’t use with UKMEC 3COCP, POP UKMEC2 implant

354
Q

Hb normal values in pregnancy?

A

Before 115

First trimester Hb less than 110 g/l

Second/third trimester Hb less than 105 g/l

Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l

Normocytic or microcytic anaemia a trial of oral iron should be considered as the first step, and further investigations only required if no rise in haemaglobin after 2 weeks.

355
Q

What is the management for anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Normocytic or microcytic

Oral ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate

Treatment continued for 3 months after iron deficieny corrected to allow iron stores to be replenished

356
Q

How long can bHCG remain raised after an abortion?

A

For 3/4 weeks

Do a pregnancy test with hCG level 2 weeks after the termination to confirm

357
Q

When can hormonal contraception be started after levornogestrel and ulipristal?

A

Levornogestrel- imediately

Ulipristal- 5 days after taking- barrier methods used during this period
Ulipristal used with caution in asthmatics

Both can be used more than once in a menstrual cycle

358
Q

Bleeding in the first trimester management?

A

<6 weeks- if no pain or risk factors then expectant management, return if bleeding develops, repeat pregany test in 7-10 days

> 6 weeks if bleeding refer to the early pregnancy assesment unit for a transvaginal ultrasound scan

359
Q

What fluid should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

IV normal saline with potassium chloride

Treat hypokalaemia

360
Q

First line for overactive bladder?

A

Bladder retraining

361
Q

What is syntometrine?

A

Syntocinon and ergometrine

362
Q

What are the types of miscarriage?

A

Threatened-
Painless vaginal bleeding occurring before 24 weeks, but typically occurs at 6 - 9 weeks
The bleeding is often less than menstruation
Cervical os is closed

Missed-
A gestational sac which contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion
Mother may have light vaginal bleeding / discharge and the symptoms of pregnancy which disappear.
Pain is not usually a feature
Cervical os is closed
When the gestational sac is > 25 mm and no embryonic/fetal part can be seen it is sometimes described as a ‘blighted ovum’ or ‘anembryonic pregnancy’

Inevitable-
Heavy bleeding with clots and pain
Cervical os is open

Incomplete-
Not all products of conception have been expelled
Pain and vaginal bleeding
Cervical os is open

363
Q

When does gestational cardiac activity begin?

A

Around 5 weeks of age

364
Q

When to check serum progesterone?

A

7 days before next period as that is when it is highest

365
Q

Fetus alive and < 36 weeks

Placental abruption

A

Fetal distress- immediate caesarean

No fetal distress- observe closely, SteroidS, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation

366
Q

What factors reduce vertical HIV transmission in pregancy?

A

Maternal antiretroviral therapy
Mode of delivery (caesarean section)
Neonatal antiretroviral therapy
Infant feeding (bottle feeding)

Offer HIV screening to everyone

367
Q

Should women with HIV be offered antiretroviral therapy?

A

Yes everyone with HIV

368
Q

How should baby be delivered in a mother with HIV?

A

Vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended

A zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section

369
Q

Should the baby get antiretroviral therapy?

A

Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks

Breast feeding not reccomended in UK

370
Q

After how long should women treated for CIN1, CIN2, or CIN3 be recalled?

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

6 months for test of cure

371
Q

What is the most common cause of post menopausal bleeding?

A

Vaginal atrophy

(Can occur in women taking HRT)
(Can occur in endometrial hyperplasia?

372
Q

Who gets OGTT at 24-28 weeks?

A

Anyone with risk factors:

BMI of > 30 kg/m²

Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above

Previous gestational diabetes

First-degree relative with diabetes

Family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

373
Q

Gastroschisis vs Exomphalos

A

Gastroschisis
Vaginal can be attempted
- without a peritoneal covering.
- lateral to the umbilical
Mx - surgical correction ASAP
- cover with sling-film(since no peritoneal covering)

Omphalocele
Caesarean indicated
- with peritoneal covering
- umbilical site
Mx - no need csling film BUT surgical treatment usually in staged (may take months) to allow lung adaptation

374
Q

When emergency contaception on COCP?

A

If 7 days missed consecutively- start again as new user

375
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

Sheehan syndrome describes hypopituitarism caused by ischemic necrosis due to blood loss and hypovolaemic shock

Amenorrhoea and symptoms of hypothyroidism

(Big cause is PPH)

376
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

May occur after dilitation and cutterage

Can prevent endometrium responding to oestrogen- could cause amenorrhoea

377
Q

Define secondary and primary amenorrhoea?

A

Primary: defined as the failure to establish menstruation by 15 years of age in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics (such as breast development), or by 13 years of age in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics

Secondary: cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses, or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea

378
Q

Causes of secondary amernorrhoea?

A

Hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary stress, excessive exercise)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

Hyperprolactinaemia

Premature ovarian failure

Thyrotoxicosis*

Sheehan’s syndrome

Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)

379
Q

What is a galactocele?

A

Presents in women who have recently stopped breast feeding

Should be painless

380
Q

When does fibroid degeneration usually happen?

A

Within the first or second trimester

381
Q

What is the presentation of chorioamnionitis?

A

RF is premature membrane rupture

Deliver foetus and IV antibiotics

Fever, tachycardia, neutrophilia, uterine tenderness and foul smelling discharge

382
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Acronym for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelet count

Can develop in the late stages of pregnancy

Got a cross over with severe pre eclampsia

383
Q

What are the features of HELLP syndrome?

A

Nausea & vomiting
Right upper quadrant pain
Lethargy

Investigations: haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

Treatment: Delivery

384
Q

What is the management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief

Weekly liver function tests

Women are typically
induced at 37 weeks

385
Q

What are the investigation results for PCOS?

A

Raised LH:FSH ratio

Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated

Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) is normal to low

386
Q

Why are all newborns offered vitamin K?

A

All relatively deficient and breastmilk poor source- reduces the risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

Either IM or orally

387
Q

What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A

Emotional and physical symptoms women may experience before the luteal phase

Doesn’t occur pre puberty, in pregnancy or post menopause

388
Q

PMS symptoms?

A

Emotional symptoms include:
anxiety
stress
fatigue
mood swings

Physical symptoms:
bloating
breast pain

389
Q

What is the management of PMS?

A

Mild symptoms- lifestyle advice- sleep, exercise, smoking, alcohol, small regular meals

Moderate symptoms- COCP

Severe symptoms- SSRIs

390
Q

What is the cause of secondary amenorrhoea in a very athletic woman?

A

Hypothalamic hypogonadism

391
Q

What are the causes of puerperal pyrexia?

A

Temperature of > 38ºC in the first 14 days following deliver

Endometritis: most common cause

Urinary tract infection

Wound infections (perineal tears + caesarean section)

Mastitis

Venous thromboembolism

Management:
If endometritis is suspected the patient should be referred to hospital for intravenous antibiotics (clindamycin and gentamicin until afebrile for greater than 24 hours)

392
Q

What is the treatment for vaginal vault prolapse?

A

Sacrocolpoplexy

393
Q

Surgical options for urogenital prolapse?

A

Cystocele/cystourethrocele: anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension

Uterine prolapse: hysterectomy,
sacrohysteropexy

Rectocele: posterior colporrhaphy

394
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Abnormal proliferation of the endometrium- abnormal intermentrual bleeding- higher risk for endometrial cancer

Simple or atypical

Simple- high dose progestogens, levornogestrel system

Atypia- hysterectomy

395
Q

What to do with Hep B women who give birth?

A

Babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who’ve had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

Hep B cannot be transmitted through breast feeding but HIV can

396
Q

When to do ECV?

A

36 weeks in nulliparous

37 in multiparous

397
Q

What is premature ovarian insufficiency syndrome?

A

Onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40

398
Q

What are the causes of premature menopause?

A

Idiopathic

Bilateral oophorectomy

Radiotherapy

Chemotherapy

Infection

Autoimmune disorders

399
Q

What are the features of premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

Similar to normal climacteric

Climacteric symptoms- hot flushes, night sweats
Infertility
Secondary amenorrhoea
Raised FSH, LH levels (elevated FSH from two samples taken 4-6 weeks apart)
Low oestradiol

400
Q

What is the management of premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

HRT or COCP until average age of menopause (51)

401
Q

Must a woman be exclusively breast feeding for lactational amenorrhoea method to be affective?

A

Yes

402
Q

Where is the most dangerous place for an ectopic?

A

The isthmus- most at risk of rupture

Most common in the ampulla

403
Q

Features allowing for the expectant management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy can only be performed for
1) An unruptured embryo
2) <35mm in size
3) Have no heartbeat
4) Be asymptomatic
5) Have a B-hCG level of <1,000IU/L and declining

404
Q

Placental abruption risk factors?

A

A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen);
P for Polyhydramnios;
T for Twins or multiple gestation;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

405
Q

Examples of GnRH analogues?

A

Goserelin

Triptorelin

406
Q

Features of the patch contraception?

A

For the first 3 weeks, the patch is worn everyday and needs to be changed each week. During the 4th week, the patch is not worn and during this time there will be a withdrawal bleed

407
Q

Delayed changing of the patch contraception?

A

If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2:
If the delay in changing the patch is less than 48 hours, it should be changed immediately and no further precautions are needed.

If the delay is greater than 48 hours, the patch should be changed immediately and a barrier method of contraception used for the next 7 days. If the woman has had sexual intercourse during this extended patch-free interval or if unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred in the last 5 days, then emergency contraception needs to be considered.

If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3:

The patch should be removed as soon as possible and the new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.

408
Q

Investigation for menorrhagia?

A

FBC

Ultrasound scan

409
Q

Management of menorrhagia?

A

Requires contraception:
Mirena coil- intrauterine system
COCP
Long-acting progestogens

Does not require contraception:
Mefenamic acid (helps with dysmenorrhoea)or tranexamic acid

410
Q

What is tested for at booking appointment?

A

HIV, syphillis, Hep B

Sickle cell, thalassemia

411
Q

What is the classic triad of vasa praevia?

A

Rupture of the membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and foetal bradycardia

412
Q

What to monitor with magnesium sulphate

A

Respiratory rate and reflexes

(urine output, oxygen sats)

413
Q

Complications of HRT?

A

Increased risk of breast cancer- by addition of progestogen

Increased risk of endometrial cancer- oestrogen by itself not given to women with a womb

Increased risk of VTE- due to addition of progestogen- not the case for transdermal

Increased risk of stroke

Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease if taken 10 years after menopause

414
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia vs vaginal atrophy as a cause of PMB?

A

Both have bleeding

Vaginal atrophy- most common and assocaited with dryness and dyspareunia, post coital bleeding

Endometrial hyperplasia- associated with obesity, no pain or post coital bleeding

415
Q

How to confirm pre term premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM)?

A

A sterile speculum examination should be performed (to look for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault) but digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection

if pooling of fluid is not observed NICE recommend testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) (e.g. AmniSure®) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein‑1

Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios

416
Q

What is the management of PPROM?

A

Admission

Regular observations to ensure chorioamnionitis is not developing

Oral erythromycin should be given for 10 days

Antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome

Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation - there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis with a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses

417
Q

Monitoring results of a molar pregnancy?

A

bHCG- High
TSH- Low
Thyroxine- High

bHCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, negative feedback so TSH low

418
Q

What is the management of pre menstrual syndrome?

A

Mild symptoms- lifestyle advice- exercise, smoking, alcohol

Moderate symptoms- new-generation COCP (contains drospirenone)

Severe symptoms- SSRI

419
Q

Management of GBS in pregnancy?

A

Women with previous GBS offered intrapartum antibiotic prophlaxis or testing late in pregnancy and then antibiotics

If woman has GBS requires intrapartum benzylpenicillin

420
Q

Which contraceptive is assocaited with weight gain?

A

Depo provera

Also delay in fertility returning of up to 1 year, increased risk osteoporosis and irregular bleeding

421
Q

What are the features of ovarian failure (including premature)?

A

Amenorrhoea, climateric symptoms (hot flushes, night sweats), lost oestradiol, raised gonadotrophins

422
Q

What is the treatment of mastitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

Continue breastfeeding

423
Q

Are positive antiphospholipid antibodies (e.g. in SLE) UKMEC 4 in the COCP?

A

Yes

424
Q

SSRIs and pregnancy?

A
  • BNF says to weigh up benefits and risk when deciding whether to use in pregnancy.
  • Use during the first trimester gives a small increased risk of congenital heart defects
  • Use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
  • Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester
425
Q

Ectopic vs miscarrige?

A

In the case of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 points toward a diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy

426
Q

COCP cancer associations?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill
increased risk of breast and cervical cancer
protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer

427
Q

Most important risk factor for placenta accreta?

A

Caesarean sections

428
Q

Can the mirena coil act as the progesterone part of HRT?

A

Yes for up to 4 years

The patient can then just take oestradiol

429
Q

What are the signs of labour?

A

Regular and painful uterine contractions

A show (shedding of mucous plug)

Rupture of the membranes (not always)

Shortening and dilation of the cervix

430
Q

What are the three stages of labour?

A

Labour may be divided in to three stages
stage 1: from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated
stage 2: from full dilation to delivery of the fetus
stage 3: from delivery of fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered

431
Q

How do you monitor labour?

A

Monitoring in Labour
FHR monitored every 15min (or continuously via CTG)
Contractions assessed every 30min
Maternal pulse rate assessed every 60min
Maternal BP and temp should be checked every 4 hours
VE should be offered every 4 hours to check progression of labour
Maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours

432
Q

What are the components of stage 1 labour?

A

Stage 1 - from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. In a primigravida lasts typical 10-16 hours
latent phase = 0-3 cm dilation, normally takes 6 hours
active phase = 3-10 cm dilation, normally 1cm/hr

Also

Latent- 0-3cm
Active- 3-7cm
Transition- 7-10cm

433
Q

Components of stage 2 labour?

A

Stage 2 - from full dilation to delivery of the fetus
‘passive second stage’ refers to the 2nd stage but in the absence of pushing (normal)
active second stage’ refers to the active process of maternal pushing
less painful than 1st (pushing masks pain)
lasts approximately 1 hours
if longer than 1 hour (can be left longer if epidural) consider Ventouse extraction, forceps delivery or caesarean section
episiotomy may be necessary following crowning
associated with transient fetal bradycardia

434
Q

When can IUD be fitted for emergency contraception?

A

must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or
if a woman presents after more than 5 days then an IUD may be fitted up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date

Likely ovulation date is normal length of period (take the shortest one) and subtract 14

435
Q

Extremley friendly and extroverted, short, learning difficulties, transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and a supravalvular aortic stenosis?

A

William’s syndrome

436
Q

What are the contraindications for planned vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)

A

Previous uterine rupture or classical caesarean scar

437
Q

SSRI of choice in breastfeeding women?

A

Paroxetine

438
Q

What are the normal physiological changes in pregancy?

A

Reduced urea, reduced creatinine, increased urinary protein loss

439
Q

What to do with babies who don’t breastfeed well and lose 10% bodyweight in the first week?

A

Refer to speacialist midwife led clinic

440
Q

PID management?

A

Intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

Remove copper IUD

441
Q

PMS syndrome management?

A

Mild- Lifestyle advice

Moderate- new generation COCP

Severe- SSRI

442
Q

Tamoxifen causes which type of cancer?

A

Endometrial

443
Q

Difference between IgM and IgG in chickenpox?

A

IgG- got antibodies

IgM- met someome with virus, immediate infection

444
Q

When does pregnancy test become negative after abortion?

A

4 weeks

Pregnancy test taken 2 weeks after

445
Q

What is a macrosomic baby in weight?

A

Over 4.5 kg

446
Q

How many miscarriges for it to be recurrent?

A

3 or more

Causes:
Antiphospholipid syndrome

Endocrine disorders: poorly controlled diabetes mellitus/thyroid disorders. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Uterine abnormality: e.g. uterine septum

Parental chromosomal abnormalities

Smoking

447
Q

Who is at risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome when undergoing IVF?

A

PCOS women

Abdominal pain/bloating
N+V
Oliguria
Ascites
Thromboembolism
Acute respiratory distress syndrome

448
Q

Increased/Decrease alpha fetoprotein causes?

A

Increased

Increased AFP
Neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly)
Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis)
Multiple pregnancy

Decreased

Down’s syndrome
Trisomy 18
Maternal diabetes mellitus

449
Q

When is primary amenorrhoea diagnosed?

A

15 if secondary sexual characteristics

13 with no secondary sexual characteristics

450
Q

What are the PCOS investigations?

A

PElvic ultrasound

FSH, LH, TSH, testosterone, sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)

LH:FSH ratio raised
Prolactin normal or elevated
Testosterone normal or elevated
SHBG normal to low

Rotterdam criteria:

Infrequent/no ovulation

Clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism

Polycystic ovaries on USS

451
Q

Do you get increased ketones in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Yes

452
Q

Any bleeding over 55 and post menopausal?

A

Refferal using suspected cancer pathway

First-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound - a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm) has a high negative predictive value

Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

453
Q

Are antiepileptics safe in preganancy?

A

Yes

454
Q

Management of no foetal distress less than 36 weeks placental abruption?

A

Admit for obersvation and give steroids

455
Q

Which group B streptococcus causes sepsis in neonates?

A

Streptococcus agalacticae

In chains

456
Q

Random information about food in pregancy?

A

Vit A may be teratogenic- so avoid liver

Take folic acid and vit D

No drinking

No smoking

457
Q

Cervical cancer treatment?

A

For stage IA
Most likely to preserve fertility- cone biopsy
Recommended for women who don’t want children- hysterectomy with lymph node clearance- gold standard

Later sage- radiotherapy and chemotherapy

458
Q

Who is the legal mother is surregacy?

A

The woman who gave birth, not the genetic parents

459
Q

When are croup and bronchiolitis more common?

A

Croup- Autumn
Bronchiolitis- Winter

460
Q

Neonatal resuscitation guidelines?

A

Neonatal resuscitation guidelines
Birth: Dry the baby, remove any wet towels and cover and start the clock or note the time.
Within 30 seconds: Assess tone, breathing and heart rate.
Within 60 seconds: If gasping or not breathing - open the airway and give 5 inflation breaths
Re-assess: If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement
If chest not moving: Recheck head position, consider 2-person airway control and other airway manoeuvres, repeat inflation breaths and look for a response.
If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement
When the chest is moving: If heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60 min-1) - start chest compressions with 3 compressions to each breath.
Reassess heart rate every 30 seconds. If heart rate is not detectable or slow (<60 beats per minute) consider venous access and drugs

461
Q

What is Mittelschmerz?

A

Usually mid cycle pain.
Often sharp onset.
Little systemic disturbance.
May have recurrent episodes.
Usually settles over 24-48 hours.

462
Q

Fine adhesions between liver and abdomiinal wallM

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis (PID complication)
it is characterised by right upper quadrant pain and may be confused with cholecystitis

463
Q

When is the copper coil contraindicated for emergency contraception?

A

PID or suspected STI

464
Q

When should COCP be discontinued before surgury?

A

4 weeks before

465
Q

Which contraceptive causes weight gain?

A

Depo provera

466
Q

Who is adenomyosis more common in?

A

Multiparous women towards the end of their reproductive years

dysmenorrhoea
menorrhagia
enlarged, boggy uterus

NICE recommend transvaginal ultrasound as the first-line investigation
MRI is an alternative

symptomatic treatment
tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia
GnRH agonists
uterine artery embolisation
hysterectomy
considered the ‘definitive’ treatment

467
Q

What is the triad for chorioamnionitis?

A

Maternal pyrexia

Maternal tachycardia

Foetal tacycardia

More likely in pre-term PROM

468
Q

What type of contraception can patients who have had a gastric band/bypass/duodenal switch not have?

A

Oral contraceptives due to lack of efficacy

469
Q

If semen sample is abnormal in infertility, in how long should it be retested?

A

In 3 months

Should be performed after minimum of 3 days and max of 5 days of abstinence

Deliver to lab within an hour

470
Q

In what situations is miscarriage better managed medically than surgically?

A

Increased risk of haemorrhage
she is in the late first trimester
if she has coagulopathies or is unable to have a blood transfusion

Previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with
pregnancy (for example, stillbirth, miscarriage or antepartum haemorrhage)

Evidence of infection

471
Q

What is the surgical intervention for miscarriage?

A

Vacuum aspiration

472
Q

Blood pressure over what level in pregnancy needs to be admitted?

A

160/110

473
Q

POP including desogestrel to become active?

A

2 days

474
Q

What could presence of pelvic pain in pregnancy on the background of menhorhagia be?

A

Fibroid degeneration

Grow in pregnancy due to oestrogen

Enlarged uterus

475
Q

Remember postpatum thyroiditis

A

Three stages:
1.Thyrotoxicosis
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Normal thyroid function

476
Q

What is hCG produced by?

A

First the embryo
Then the placental trophoblast

Main role is to prevent the disintergration of the corpus luteum

477
Q

When are progesterone levels highest?

A

When you measure for ovulation

7 days before end of cycle

478
Q

Hb cut offs for iron supplelemtation in pregnancy?

A

First trimester < 110 g/L
Second/third trimester < 105 g/L
Postpartum < 100 g/L

Treat with oral ferrous sulphate

479
Q

Treatment for fibroids causing infertility?

A

Myomectomy

480
Q

Contraindication for progesterone injectabe?

A

Breast cancer

481
Q

Abruption RFs?

A

ABRUPTION:
A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen- C-section);
P for Polyhydramnios;
T for Twins or multiple gestation/multiparity;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

482
Q

When can the implant be inserted after birth?

A

Immediately

After 4 weeks if breast feeding

483
Q

Do all women with secondary dysmenorrhoea need reffering to gynaecology?

A

Yes

484
Q

Does pre eclampisa/ pregnancy induced hypertension have to occur after 20 weeks?

A

Yes, if before it is pre existing hypertension

485
Q

How is vesicoureteric reflux diagnosed?

A

A micturating cystourethrogram

486
Q

Contraception if COCP started on day 0-5 of menstrual cycle?

A

None it works straight away

487
Q

Does phenytoin reduce folic acid?

A

Yes

488
Q

OGTT when?

A

Previous gestational diabetes- at booking and 24-28 weeks

Other risk factors- just 24-28 weeks

489
Q

Causes for oligohydraminos?

A

Causes:

Premature rupture of membranes

Potter sequence
bilateral renal agenesis + pulmonary hypoplasia

Intrauterine growth restriction

Post-term gestation

Pre-eclampsia

490
Q

Ovarian cancer staging?

A

Stage 1 (1 word) = ovary
Stage 2 (2 words) = ovary + pelvis
Stage 3 (3 words) = ovary + pelvis + abdomen
Stage 4 = distant metastasis

Stage 1 Tumour confined to ovary
Stage 2 Tumour outside ovary but within pelvis
Stage 3 Tumour outside pelvic but within abdomen
Stage 4 Distant metastasis

491
Q

Shoulder dystocia baby complications?

A

Erb’s palsy occurs due to damage to the upper brachial plexus most commonly from shoulder dystocia. Damage to these nerve roots results in a characteristic pattern: adduction and internal rotation of the arm, with pronation of the forearm. This classic physical position is commonly called the ‘waiter’s tip’

Klumpke’s palsy occurs due to damage of the lower brachial plexus and commonly affects the nerves innervating the muscles of the hand

492
Q

What should all women with previous hypertension or a high risk factor for pre-eclampsia/eclampsia get?

A

Aspirin from 12 weeks to all pregnant women who are at moderate or high risk of pre-eclampsia

493
Q

How many features need to be present for PCOS to be diagnosed?

A

2/3 on the Rotterdam scale:

oligomenorrhoea
clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

494
Q

Management of endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Management

Simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia: high dose progestogens with repeat sampling in 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may be used

Atypia: hysterectomy is usually advised

495
Q

What does fetal fibronectin mean?

A

High level related to early labour

Give steroids incase go into labour, monitor BMs if diabetic as can mess them up

496
Q

Vasomotor symptoms such as flushes in meopause can be treated with what?

A

Fluoxetine

497
Q

Potenitally sensitising events for rhesus negative women?

A

Potentially sensitising events in pregnancy:
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Evacuation of retained products of conception and molar pregnancy
- Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks, only if painful, heavy or persistent
- Vaginal bleeding > 12 weeks
- Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis
- Antepartum haemorrhage
- Abdominal trauma
- External cephalic version
- Intra-uterine death
- Post-delivery (if baby is RhD-positive)

498
Q

How often should HIV women be screened for HPV?

A

Every year

Women who are HIV positive are at an increased risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer due to a decreased immune response and decreased clearance of the human papilloma virus

499
Q

How long to carry on magnesium in pre eclampsia?

A

Until 24 hours after EITHER last seizure or delivery

500
Q

Can a raised alphafeto protein suggest gastrochsis and exomphalos?

A

Yes

501
Q

Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Secondary amenorrhoea due to uterine adhesions following surgery or trauma from birth

502
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

The three features of Meig’s syndrome are:
a benign ovarian tumour
ascites
pleural effusion

503
Q

Types of prolapse and the surgical options?

A

Types
cystocele, cystourethrocele
rectocele
uterine prolapse
less common: urethrocele, enterocele (herniation of the pouch of Douglas, including small intestine, into the vagina)

Surgical options
cystocele/cystourethrocele: anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension
uterine prolapse: hysterectomy, sacrohysteropexy
rectocele: posterior colporrhaphy

504
Q

VEAL CHOP?

A

VEAL CHOP

Variable decelerations –> Cord compression
Early decelerations –> Head compression
Accelerations –> Okay!
Late decelerations –> Placental Insufficiency

505
Q

Can ECV be attempted in labour?

A

Only if amniotic sac not ruptured

506
Q

COCP effect on cancers?

A

Higher risk of screening cancers- cervical and breast

Lower risk of old age cancers- ovarian and endometrial

507
Q

SSRIs in preganancy?

A

1st trimester- CHD

3rd trimester- persistant pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

508
Q

Type of ultrasound for PCOS?

A

Pelvic ultrasound

509
Q

How long can lochia last?

A

Up to 6 weeks

510
Q

How to remember placental abruption?

A

ABRUPTION:
A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen);
P for Polyhydramnios;
T for Twins or multiple gestation;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

511
Q

Potter sequence?

A

Cause of oligohydraminos- renal agenesis and pulmonary hypoplasia

512
Q

Does pheytoin reduce folate levels?

A

Yes, phenytoin reduces folate

513
Q

Dribbling urine after a prolonged labour?

A

Vesicovaginal fistula

514
Q

Membrane rupture sepsis risk?

A

Prolonged rupture of the membranes >24 hours

515
Q

Patau vs Edwards on quadruple?

A

Same

On quadruple/combined similar to Down’s but hCG lower

516
Q

What to do with baby in Hep B mother?

A

Can breastfeed as doesn’t go into the milk

Babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who’ve had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

Vaccine+HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Hep B vaccine 1-2 months then 6 months

517
Q

Ovulation hormone locations?

A

FSH/LH- anterior pituitary

Oestrogen- ovaries

Proesterone- corpus luteum of ovary

518
Q

What are the phases of the cycle?

A

Menstration

Follicular phase

Ovulatory phase

Luteal phase- last 14 days

FSH causes maturation of an egg

Oestrogen causes lining of uterus to grow

LH causes ovulation

Progesterone maintains the uterus lining, inhibits both LH and FSH

519
Q

Cells seen in bacterial vaginosis?

A

Clue cells

520
Q

UTI treatment?

A

Trimethoprim tetarogenic

1st- nitrofurantoin (avoid near term)
2nd- amoxicillin

MEN- 7 days treatment

Women- 3 days

521
Q

Russell’s sign?

A

Calluses on knuckles or back of hand in bulimia

522
Q

EEG benign rolandic epilepsy?

A

Face seizures at night

Centrotemporal spikes

523
Q

Secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Referral to gynae

524
Q

Endometriosis treatment?

A

NSAIDs/Paracetamol

COCP or progestogens

GnRH analogues

Surgery- ablation, laparoscopic excision