Obs/ Gynae Flashcards

(524 cards)

1
Q

What happens to the total volume of the lungs in pregnancy?

A

Decreases

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2
Q

What happens to the tidal volume in pregnancy?

A

Increases

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3
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Infection and inflammation of female pelvic organs- uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum

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4
Q

What organisms cause pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis- most common
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Mycoplasma genitalium
Mycoplasma hominis

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5
Q

What are the features of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Lower abdominal pain
Fever
Deep dyspareunia
Dysuria and menstrual irregularities may occur
Vaginal or cervical discharge
Cervical excitation

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6
Q

What are the investigations for pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Pregnancy test to exclude ectopic
High vaginal swab
Screen for chlamydia and gonorrhoea

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7
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease management?

A

Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

Removal IUD might give better short term outcomes

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8
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease complications?

A

Perihepatitis
Infertility
Chronic pelvic pain
Ectopic pregnancy

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9
Q

What are the harms and benefits of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

99% effective if taken correctly
Small risk of blood clots
Very small heart attack/stroke risk
Increased risk breast and cervical cancer

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10
Q

When does the combined oral contraceptive pill become effective?

A

Within first 5 days of cycle no need for additional contraception. Any other point 7 days of alternative contraception.

Same time every day

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11
Q

What may reduce COCP efficacy?

A

Vomiting within 2 hours of taking pill
Medications that induce diarrhoea or vomiting may reduce effectiveness eg orlistat
Liver enzyme inducing drugs

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12
Q

Risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutations
Many ovulations- early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

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13
Q

What are the clinical features of ovarian cancer?

A

Very vague

Abdominal distension and bloating
Abdominal and pelvic pain
Urinary symptoms- urgency
Early satiety
Diarrhoea

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14
Q

Ovarian cancer investigations?

A

CA125
If CA 125 raised then ultrasound of abdomen and pelvis
Diagnosis usually involves diagnositc laparotomy

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15
Q

Ovarian cancer management?

A

Surgery and chemotherapy

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16
Q

What are the features of placenta praevia?

A

Shock in proportion to visible loss
No pain
Uterus not tender
Lie and presentation my be abnormal
Fetal heart usually normal
Coagulation problems rare
Small bleeds before large

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17
Q

How to diagnose placenta praevia?

A

Digital vaginal examination should not be performed before USS as could cause bleeding

Often picked up on 20 week USS

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18
Q

Grading of placenta praevia?

A

I - placenta reaches lower segment but not the internal os
II - placenta reaches internal os but doesn’t cover it
III - placenta covers the internal os before dilation but not when dilated
IV (‘major’) - placenta completely covers the internal os

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19
Q

What are the barrier methods of contraception?

A

Condoms

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20
Q

What are the daily methods of contraception?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill

Progesterone only pill

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21
Q

What are the long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs)

A

Implantable contraceptives

Injectable contraceptives

Intrauterine system (IUS)- progesterone releasing coil

Intrauterine device (IUD)- copper coil

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22
Q

How does the combined oral contraceptive pill work?

A

Inhibits ovulation

Increased risk of VTE
Increased risk of breast and cervical cancer

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23
Q

How does the progesterone only pill work?

A

Thickens cervical mucus

Irregular bleeding common side effect

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24
Q

How does the injectable contraceptive work?

A

(Medroxyprogesterone acetate)
Primary: inhibits ovulation
Also thickens cervical mucus

Lasts 12 weeks

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25
How does the implantable contraceptive work?
Etonogestrel Primary: Inhibits ovulation Also thickens cervical mucus Irregular bleeding Lasts 3 years
26
How does the intrauterine contraceptive device work?
Decreases sperm motility and survival
27
How does the intrauterine system work?
(Levonorgestrel) Primary: prevents endometrial proliferation Also thickens cervical mucus Irregular bleeding
28
What is desogestrel?
A type of progestogen-only pill that also inhibits ovulation
29
Features of cervical cancer?
May be detected during routine cervical cancer screening Abnormal vaginal bleeding- postcoital, intermenstrual or postmenopausal Vaginal discharge
30
Which types of HPV cause cervical cancer?
16, 18 and 33
31
What are some cervical cancer risk factors?
HPV 16, 18 and 33 Smoking HIV Early first intercourse, many sexual partners High parity Lower socioeconomic status COCP
32
When is endometrial cancer usually seen?
Post menopause
33
What are the risk factors for endometrial cancers?
Excess oestrogen- nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen (HRT without progestogen) Metabolic syndrome- obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome Tamoxifen Hereditary nonn-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
34
Protective factors against endometrial cancer?
Multiparity, COCP, smoking
35
Features of endometrial cancer?
Classic symptom- postmenopausal bleeding- slight before becoming heavier Others- Premenopausal women with menhorrhagia or intermenstrual bleeding Pain uncommon Vaginal discharge unusual
36
Endometrial cancer investigations?
Women older than 55 presenting with post menopausal bleeding reffered using cancer pathway First line- trans vaginal ultrasound Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy
37
Endometrial cancer management?
Surgery- total abdominal hysterectomy High risk patients may have postoperative radiotherapy Progestogen therapy in frail elderly women not suitable for surgery
38
What is placental abruption?
Seperation of normally sited placenta from uterine wall, causes maternal haemorrhage into intervening space
39
What are the factors associated with placental abruption?
Proteinuric hypertension Cocaine use Multiparity Maternal trauma Increasing maternal age
40
What are the clinical features of placental abruption?
Shock out of keeping with visible loss Pain constant Tender, tense uterus Normal lie and presentation Fetal heart- absent/distressed Coagulation problems Beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria
41
What happens with a negative hrHPV result?
Return to normal recall unless- Test of cure pathway Untreated CIN1 pathway Follow up borderline changes in endocervical cells Follow up incompletely excised cervical cancer
42
Positive hrHPV result?
Samples examined cytologically If cytologically abnormal- colposcopy If cytology normal- repeat test in 12 months
43
What are the different results from an abnormal colposcopy?
This includes the following results: Borderline changes in squamous or endocervical cells. Low-grade dyskaryosis. High-grade dyskaryosis (moderate). High-grade dyskaryosis (severe). Invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Glandular neoplasia
44
What are the options from a normal colposcopy?
Repeat after 12 months If the repeat test is now hrHPV -ve → return to normal recall If the repeat test is still hrHPV +ve and cytology still normal → further repeat test 12 months later: If hrHPV -ve at 24 months → return to normal recall if hrHPV +ve at 24 months → colposcopy
45
What to do with inadequate hrHPV?
Repeat within 3 months If two consecutive inadequate- colposcopy
46
How often is Depo Provera given?
Via IM every 12 weeks
47
What are the adverse effects of the depo?
Irregular bleeding Weight gain Potential increase of osteoporosis- only use in adolescents if no other contraception is suitable Not quickly reversed and fertility may return after varying time Contraindications- breast cancer
48
What are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?
Advancing age Previous pregnancy and childbirth High BMI Hysterectomy Family history
49
What are the types of urinary incontinence?
Overactive bladder- detrusor overactivity Stress incontinence- cough/laugh Mixed incontinence- both urge and stress Overflow incontinence- bladder outlet obstruction Functional incontinence
50
Investigations for urinary incontinence?
Bladder diaries kept for minimum of 3 days Vaginal examination Urine dipstick and culture Urodynamic studies
51
Management for urge incontinence?
Bladder retraining- lasts six weeks Bladder stabilising drugs- antimuscarinics are first line- oxybutinin, tolterodine or darifenacin. No oxybutinin in frail old women Mirabegron useful if concern over anticholinergic side effects in elderley patients
52
Management for stress incontinence?
Pelvic floor muscle training- at least 8 contractions performed 3 times a day for mimimum of 3 months Surgical procedures Duloxetine if decline surgery
53
What are the symptoms of the menopause?
Change in periods- length of menstrual cycles, dysfunctional uterine bleeding may occur Vasomotor symptoms- hot flushes, night sweats- usually occur daily and may continue for 5 years Urogenital changes- vaginal dryness and atrophy, urinary frequency Psychological- anxiety and depression, short term memory impairment Longer term complications- osteoporosis, increased risk of ischaemic heart disease
54
When should a urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria be carried out?
8-12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks)
55
What should happen at 8 - 12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks)?
Booking visit General information e.g. diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, antenatal classes BP, urine dipstick, check BMI Booking bloods/urine FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies Hepatitis B, syphilis HIV test is offered to all women Urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria
56
10 - 13+6 weeks
Early scan to confirm dates, exclude multiple pregnancy
57
11 - 13+6 weeks
Down's syndrome screening including nuchal scan
58
16 weeks
Information on the anomaly and the blood results. If Hb < 11 g/dl consider iron Routine care: BP and urine dipstick
59
18 - 20+6 weeks
Anomaly scan
60
25 weeks (only if primip)
Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, symphysis-fundal height (SFH)
61
28 weeks
Routine care: BP, urine dipstick, SFH Second screen for anaemia and atypical red cell alloantibodies. If Hb < 10.5 g/dl consider iron First dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women
62
31 weeks (only if primip)
Routine care as above
63
34 weeks
Routine care as above Second dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women* Information on labour and birth plan
64
36 weeks
Routine care as above Check presentation - offer external cephalic version if indicated Information on breast feeding, vitamin K, 'baby-blues'
65
40 weeks (only if primip)
Routine care as above Discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy
66
41 weeks
Routine care as above Discuss labour plans and possibility of induction
67
Which contraceptives take 7 days to become effective?
COCP Nexplanon (implantable contraceptive) Intrauterine system (Mirena) Depo provera (injectable contraceptive)
68
Which contraceptives take 2 days to become effective?
Progesterone only pill
69
What are the two most common medical disorders complicating pregnancy?
1. Hypertension 2. Gestational diabetes
70
What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?
BMI of > 30 kg/m² Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above Previous gestational diabetes First-degree relative with diabetes Family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)
71
What is the screening for gestational diabetes?
Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) Previous gestational diabetes: OGTT performed asap and at 24-28 weeks if first normal Women with any other RFs offered at 24-28 weeks
72
What are the diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes?
Fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L
73
What is the management of gestational diabetes?
Newly diagnosed seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week Women taught about self monitoring blood glucose Diet advice If the fasting plasma glucose level is < 7 mmol/l a trial of diet and exercise should be offered If glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise metformin should be started If glucose targets are still not met insulin should be added to diet/exercise/metformin Gestational diabetes is treated with short-acting, not long-acting, insulin If at the time of diagnosis the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l insulin should be started If the plasma glucose level is between 6-6.9 mmol/l, and there is evidence of complications such as macrosomia or hydramnios, insulin should be offered Glibenclamide should only be offered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or those who fail to meet the glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin treatment
74
What is the management of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy?
Weight loss for women with BMI of > 27 kg/m^2 Stop oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, and commence insulin Folic acid 5 mg/day from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation Detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates Treat retinopathy as can worsen during pregnancy
75
What are the target blood glucose levels for self monitoring pregnant women?
Fasting- 5.3 mmol/l 1 hour- 7.8 mmol/l 2 hour- 6.4 mmol/l
76
What is Hyperemesis gravidarum?
Extreme morning sickness
77
When is hyperemesis gravidarum most common?
Between 8 and 12 weeks but may persist up to 20 weeks
78
What are the risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Increased levels of beta-hCG eg ( multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease) Nulliparity Obesity Family or personal history of NVP Smoking associated decreased incidence of hypermesis
79
When would you consider admission for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?
Continued nausea and vomiting and is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics Continued nausea and vomiting with ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), despite treatment with oral antiemetics A confirmed or suspected comorbidity (for example she is unable to tolerate oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection)
80
What triad should be present for the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
5% pre-pregnancy weight loss Dehydration Electrolyte imbalance
81
What scoring system is used to classify the severity of NVP?
Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE)
82
What is the management of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Simple measures Rest and avoid triggers e.g. odours Bland, plain food, particularly in the morning Ginger P6 (wrist) acupressure First-line medications Antihistamines: oral cyclizine or promethazine Phenothiazines: oral prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine Second-line medications Oral ondansetron Oral metoclopramide or domperidone- metoclopramide may cause extrapyramidal side effects so not to be used for more than 5 days Admission for IV hydration Normal saline with added potassium used to rehydrate
83
What are the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Triad of- dehydration, weight loss, electrolyte imbalance AKI Wernicke's encephalopathy Oesophagitis, Mallory-Weiss tear Venous thromboembolism Fetal outcome- little adverse effect- maybe low birth weight, slight increase prem
84
What are the two types of emergency contraception?
Emergency hormonal contraception- levonorgestrel, ulipristal Intrauterine device (IUD)
85
What are the two types of hormonal emergency contraception?
Levonorgestrel Ulipristal
86
What are the features of levonorgestrel?
Taken as soon as possible- efficacy decreases with time Must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) Single dose of 1.5mg should be doubled for those with BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg If vomiting occurs within 3 hours dose should be repeated Can be used more than once in a menstrual cycle if clinically indicated Hormonal contraception can be started immediately after using levornogestrel
87
What are the features of ulipristal (EllaOne)?
30mg dose take as soon as possible, no later than 120 hours after intercourse Don't use with levonorgestrel Ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of the hormonal contraceptive. Contraceptive with the pill, patch or ring should be started, or restarted, 5 days after having ulipristal. Barrier methods used during this time. Caution exercised in patients with severe asthma Ulipristal can be used more than once in the same cycle Breastfeeding delayed one week after ulipristal, no restrictions with levonorgestrel
88
What are the features of IUD for emergency contraception?
Copper IUD most effective method of emergency contraception and offered to all women if they meet criteria Must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI If more than 5 days, may be fitted up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if patient at high risk of STI 99% effective no matter where used in cycle May be left in situ for long term contraception. If to be removed, kept until at least next period
89
Ectopic pregnancy investigation?
A pregnancy test will be positive Transvaginal ultrasound is the investigation of choice
90
Ectopic pregnancy management?
Expectant management Medical management- methotrexate- patient must attend follow up Surgical management- salpingectomy or salpingotomy
91
What are the features of expectant management of ectopic pregnancy?
Size <35mm Unruptured Asymptomatic No fetal heartbeat hCG <1000IU/L Compatable with another intrauterine pregnancy Involves closely monitoring patient over 48 hours and if B-hCG levels rise again or symptom manifest intervention performed
92
What are the features of medical management of ectopic pregnancy?
Size <35mm Unruptured No significant pain No fetal heartbeat hCG<1500 IU/L Not suitable if intrauterine pregnancy Medical management involves using methotrexate and only done if patient willing to attend follow up Methotrexate is teratogenic no pregnacy 3 months after
93
What are the features of surgical management of ectopic pregnancy?
Size >35mm Can be ruptured Pain Visible fetal heartbeat hCG >5000IU/L Compatible with another intrauterine pregnancy Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomoy Salpingectomy is the first-line for women with no other risk factors for infertility Salpingotomy considered for women with risk factors for infertility such as contralateral tube damage- Around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment (methotrexate and/or salpingectomy)
94
What is the triad of pre-eclampsia?
New-onset hypertension Proteinuria Oedema
95
What is the definition of pre-eclampsia?
New-onset blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, AND 1 or more of the following: Proteinuria Other organ involvement (see list below for examples): e.g. renal insufficiency (creatinine ≥ 90 umol/L), liver, neurological, haematological, uteroplacental dysfunction
96
Pre eclampsia consequences?
Eclampsia- also altered mental status, blindness, stroke, clonus, severe headaches or persistent visual scotomata Fetal complications- Intrauterine growth retardation Prematurity Liver involvement- elevated transaminases Haemorrhage- placental abbruption, intra-abdominal, intro-cerebral Cardiac failure
97
Features of severe pre eclampsia?
Hypertension- typically >160/110 and proteinuria Proteinuria: dipstick ++/+++ Headache Visual disturbance Papilloedema RUQ/epigastric pain Hyperreflexia Platelet count < 100 * 106/l, abnormal liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome
98
Risk factors for pre eclampsia?
High risk factors Hypertensive in previous pregnancy CKD Autoimmune disease DM T1/T2 Chronic hypertension Moderate risk factors First pregnancy Over 40 Pregnancy interval over 10 years BMI 35 or more FH pre eclampsia Multiple pregnancy
99
Pre eclampsia prevention?
Women with the following should take aspirin 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks gestation until the birth ≥ 1 high risk factors ≥ 2 moderate factors
100
Pre eclampsia initial management?
Emergency secondary care assessment for any woman with suspected pre-eclampsia Women with blood pressure ≥ 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and observed
101
Further management of pre-eclampsia?
Oral labetalol first line. Nifedipine if asthmatic, hydralazine may also be used
102
What are the features of endometriosis?
Chronic pelvic pain Secondary dysmenorrhoea- pain often starts days before bleeding Deep dyspareunia Subfertility Non-gynaecological: urinary symptoms e.g. dysuria, urgency, haematuria. Dyschezia (painful bowel movements) On pelvic examination reduced organ mobility, tender nodularity in the posterior vaginal fornix and visible vaginal endometriotic lesions may be seen
103
Investigations for endometriosis?
Laparoscopy is gold standard
104
Endometriosis management?
NSAIDs and/or paracetamol are first line If analgesia doesn't work then COCP or progestogens (medroxyprogesterone acetate) If analgesia does not improve symptoms or fertility a priority refer to secondary care
105
Endometriosis secondary care management?
GnRH analogues Drug therapy has no significant impact on fertility rates Surgery If trying to conceive can use laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis
106
At what time after birth will women require contraception?
After day 21
107
What are the options for postpartum contraception?
Progesterone only pill (POP) Can start POP anytime postpartum After day 21 additional contraception for first 2 days Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) Absolute contraindication if breastfeeding <6 weeks post partum UKMEC 2 if 6 weeks-6 months postpartum and breastfeedng Not used in the first 21 days due to increase VTE risk post partum After day 21 additional contraception for first 7 days IUD or IUS inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breast feeding, amenorrhoeic and < 6 months post-partum
108
What is conceiving within 12 months associated with?
Increased risk preterm birth, low birth weight and small for gestational age babies
109
What scale may be used to screen for postnatal depression?
Edinburgh postnatal depression scale 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30 Indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week Score > 13 indicates a 'depressive illness of varying severity' Includes a question about self-harm
110
What are the three types of postpartum mental health problems?
'Baby-blues' Postnatal depression Puerperal psychosis
111
'Baby blues' features?
Typically 3-7 days after giving birth and more common in primips Mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful and irritable Reassurance and support
112
Postnatal depression feaetures?
10% women Most cases start within a month and peak at 3 months Features similar to depression Support and reassurance CBT may be helpful Sertraline and paroxetine may be beneficialif symptoms are severe
113
Puerperal psychosis features?
Onset 2-3 weeks after birth Severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar) and disordered perception (auditory hallucinations) Admission to hospital- ideally mother and baby unit 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies
114
What is the name for chickenpox exposure in pregnancy?
Fetal varicella syndrome
115
What is the risk to the mother in fetal varicella syndrome?
5x risk pneumonitis
116
Features of feta varicella synrome for fetus?
Skin scarring Eye defects (microphthalmia) Limb hypoplasia Microcephaly Learning disabilities Other risks Shingles in infacy Severe neonatal varicella
117
Chicken pox exposure management?
If doubt about mother previously having chicken pox maternal blood should be checked for varicella antibodies If the pregnant woman <= 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella she should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible VZIG effective up to 10 days after exposure If the pregnant woman > 20 weeks gestation is not immune to varicella then either VZIG or antivirals (aciclovir or valaciclovir) should be given days 7 to 14 after exposure
118
Management of chicken pox in pregnancy?
Specialist advice Risk of serious chicken pox infection (maternal), fetal varicella risk and the safety of aciclovir in pregnancy Oral aciclovir given if pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash If the woman is < 20 weeks the aciclovir should be 'considered with caution'
119
What is the scale of UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC)?
UKMEC 1: a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method UKMEC 2: advantages generally outweigh the disadvantages UKMEC 3: disadvantages generally outweigh the advantages UKMEC 4: represents an unacceptable health risk
120
UKMEC 3 example conditions COCP?
More than 35 years old and smoking less than 15 cigarettes/day BMI > 35 kg/m^2* Family history of thromboembolic disease in first degree relatives < 45 years Controlled hypertension Immobility e.g. wheel chair use Carrier of known gene mutations associated with breast cancer (e.g. BRCA1/BRCA2) Current gallbladder disease
121
UKMEC 4 example conditions COCP?
More than 35 years old and smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day Migraine with aura History of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation History of stroke or ischaemic heart disease Breast feeding < 6 weeks post-partum Uncontrolled hypertension Current breast cancer Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation Positive antiphospholipid antibodies (e.g. in SLE)
122
Is DM UKMEC classified for COCP?
Diabetes mellitus diagnosed > 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity
123
What is postpartum haemorrhage?
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss of > 500 ml after a vaginal delivery and may be primary or secondary Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours
124
What are the causes of PPH?
4 Ts: Tone (uterine atony): the vast majority of cases Trauma (e.g. perineal tear) Tissue (retained placenta) Thrombin (e.g. clotting/bleeding disorder)
125
Risk factors for primary PPH?
Previous PPH Prolonged labour Pre-eclampsia Increased maternal age Polyhydramnios Emergency Caesarean section Placenta praevia, placenta accreta Macrosomia
126
PPH management?
PPH life threatening- senior members of staff involved immediately ABC approach Mechanical: Palpate the uterine fundus and rub it to stimulate contractions Catheterisation to prevent bladder distension and monitor urine outpur Medical: IV oxytocin (syntocinon): slow IV injection followed by an IV infusion Ergometrine slow IV or IM (unless hypertension history) Carboprost IM (unless history of asthma) Misoprostol sublingual Surgical: Intrauterine balloon tamponade first line surgical management B-lynch suture, ligation uterine arteries etc If severe uncontrolled then hysterectomy sometimes performed
127
When does secondary PPH occur?
24 hours- 6 weeks due to retained placental tissue or endometritis
128
What to do if someone misses one COC pill?
Take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day No additional contraceptive protection needed
129
What to do if someone misses 2 or more pills?
Take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills and then continue taking pills daily, one each day The women should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7): emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1 If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14): after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21): she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day; thus omitting the pill free interval
130
High risk factors for preeclampsia?
Hypertensive in previous pregnancy CKD Autoimmune disease DM T1/T2 Chronic hypertension
131
Moderate risk factors for preeclampsia?
First pregnancy Over 40 Pregnancy interval over 10 years BMI 35 or more FH pre eclampsia Multiple pregnancy
132
What to do woman with previous VTE who is pregnant?
Input from expert Add low molecular weight heparin
133
What makes a woman intermediate VTE risk in pregnancy?
Hospitalisation, surgery, comorbidities or thrombophilia
134
Risk factors increase chances of VTE in pregnancy
Age > 35 Body mass index > 30 Parity > 3 Smoker Gross varicose veins Current pre-eclampsia Immobility Family history of unprovoked VTE Low risk thrombophilia Multiple pregnancy IVF pregnancy 4+ warrants immediate treatment with LMWH continued until 6 weeks postnatal
135
What drugs should be avoided in pregnancy related to VTE?
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) Warfarin
136
What is gestational hypertension?
New onset hypertension diagnosed after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria
137
What are the categories of gestational hypertension?
Mild 140-149 over 90-99 Moderate 150-159 over 100-109 Severe >160 over >110
138
What are the three groups of gestational hypertension?
Pre-existing HTN- over 140/90 before pregnancy or before 20 weeks, no proteinuria/oedema If already on an ACE/ARB stop Pregnancy induced HTN- occuring in second half of pregnancy (after 20 weeks), no proteinuria, no oedema, resolves following birth Pre-eclampsia- pregnancy induced hypertension in association with proteiuria, oedema may occur
139
Management of gestational hypertension?
1st- Oral labetalol (not for asthmatics) 2nd- Oral nifeddipine
140
Rules for traditional POPs if missed? (Micronor, Noriday, Nogeston, Femulen)
If less than 3 hours late no action required, continue as normal If more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken) action needed
141
Rules for Cerazette (desogestrel) if missed?
If less than 12 hours late no action required, continue as normal If more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken) action needed - see below
142
Action if any POP missed, and needs action?
Action required, if needed: take the missed pill as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed just take one pill. Take the next pill at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day continue with rest of pack extra precautions (e.g. condoms) should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours
143
What are the red flags for group b strep in a baby?
Two or more minor risk factors or one red flag antibiotic therapy with benzylpenicillin and gentamicin. One minor risk observe for 24 hours Red flags: Suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy Parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection (such as septicaemia) at any time during labour, or in the 24-hour periods before and after the birth [This does not refer to intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis] Respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth Seizures Need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby Signs of shock
144
Risk factors for GBS infection?
Prematurity Prolonged rupture of the membranes Previous sibling GBS infection Maternal pyrexia e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis
145
First choice antibiotic for GBS?
Benzylpenicillin
146
Who should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) for GBS?
Previous GBS in a pregnancy (or offer testing late in pregnancy and antibiotics if positive) Women with a previous baby with early or late onset GBS disease Preterm labour regardless of GBS status Women with pyrexia of >38 during labour
147
RFs for perineal tears?
Primigravida Large babies Precipitant labour Shoulder dystocia Forceps delivery
148
Perineal tears classification?
First degree- superficial no muscle involvement, do not require repair Second degree- injury to perineal muscle but not involving anal sphincter, requires suturing Third degree- injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex, require repair in theatre Fourth degree- injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, repair on theatre
149
What are the features of uterine fibroids?
May be asymptomatic Menorrhagia Bulk related symptoms- lower abdo pain, cramping, bloating, urinary symptoms Subfertility Rare features- polycythemia secondary to autonomous production of erythropietin
150
How to diagnose uterine fibroids?
Transvaginal ultrasound
151
Uterine fibroids management?
Asymptomatic- review periodically Treatment to shrink: Medical- GnRH agonists- use for short periods loss of bone density Surgical: Myomectomy- performed abdominally, laparoscopically or hysteroscopically Hysteroscopic endometrial ablation Polycythaemia due to autonomous production of erythropoietin
152
Treatment of menhorrhagia secondary to fibroids?
1st Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) NSAIDs- mefeanamic acid Tranexamic acid COCP Oral progestogen Injectable progestogen
153
What are the three stages of postpartum thyroiditis?
1. Thyrotoxicosis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Normal thyroid function (but high recurrence rate in future pregnancies) Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients
154
What is the management of postpartum thyroiditis?
Thyrotoxic phase- propanolol for symptom control Hypothyroid phase- treat with thyroxine
155
Contraceptive effectiveness times (if not on first day of period)?
Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period): instant: IUD 2 days: POP 7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS
156
Most common adverse effect of POP?
Irregular vaginal bleeding is the most common
157
POP cover start?
Up to and including day 5 immediate, otherwise 2 days and use condoms inbetween If switching from COCP immediate protection if continued from end of pill packet
158
What conditions are a contraindication to breast feeding?
Galactosemia Viral infections
159
Which drugs can be given to breastfeeding mothers?
The following drugs can be given to mothers who are breastfeeding: Antibiotics: penicillins, cephalosporins, trimethoprim Endocrine: glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), levothyroxine* epilepsy: sodium valproate, carbamazepine asthma: salbutamol, theophyllines Psychiatric drugs: tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics** Hypertension: beta-blockers, hydralazine Anticoagulants: warfarin, heparin Digoxin
160
Which drugs are contraindicated while breastfeeding?
The following drugs should be avoided: Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides Psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines Aspirin Carbimazole Methotrexate Sulfonylureas Cytotoxic drugs Amiodarone Clozapine
161
What does primary amenhorroea, little or no axillary and pubic hair and elevated testosterone mean?
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
162
Features of androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Primary amenorrhoea Little or no axillary and pubic hair Undescended testes causing groin swellings Breast development may occur as a result of the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol
163
What are the three components of the risk malignancy index (RMI) in ovarian cancer?
US findings Menopausal status CA125 levels
164
RFs for shoulder dystocia?
Fetal macrosomia (association with maternal diabetes) High maternal BMI DM Prolonged labour
165
Shoulder dystocia management?
Senior help called immediately McRoberts manoeuvre should be perfromed- this manoeuvre entails flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, bringing the mother's thighs towards her abdomen this rotation increases the relative anterior-posterior angle of the pelvis and often facilitates a successful delivery.
166
Shoulder dystocia compliations?
Potential complications include: Maternal: Postpartum haemorrhage Perineal tears Fetal: Brachial plexus injury Neonatal death
167
Which antidepressant for breastfeeding women?
Sertraline
168
HRT side effects?
Nausea Breast tenderness Fluid retention and weight gain
169
Complications of HRT?
Increased risk of breast cancer- increased by progesterone Increased risk of endometrial cancer- oestrogen by itself not given to women with a womb- reduced by the addition of progesterone Increased risk VTE- increased by addtion of progesterone, transdermal HRT does not increase VTE risk Increased risk of stroke Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease
170
What are the investigations for reduced fetal movements?
If past 28 weeks- 1. Handheld doppler to confirm fetal heartbeat 2. If not detected immediate ultrasound offered 3. If present CTG used for at least 20 mins to monitor fetal HR If fetal movements not felt by 24 weeks referral should be made
171
What are some causes of folic acid deficiency?
Phenytoin Methotrexate Pregnancy Alcohol excess
172
What are the concequences of folic acid deficiency?
Macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia Neural tube defects
173
What is the prevention of neural tube defects during pregnancy?
All women should take 400mcg of folic acid until 12th week of pregnancy Women at higher risk of NTD should take 5mg folic acid from before conception until 12th week of pregnancy
174
Which women are higher risk for neural tube defects?
Either partner has a NTD, FH or previous prgnancy with NTD Woman taking antiepileptic drugs, coeliac disease, DM or thalassaemia Woman is obese 30 BMI or more
175
How long can the mirena coil stay in?
5 years
176
What is eclampsia?
Development of seizures in association with pre-eclampsia
177
What is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia and treat sezirues when they develop (eclampsia)?
Magnesium sulphate
178
What should be monitored while giving magnesium sulphate?
Urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations
179
What is the treatment for respiratory depression when using magnesium sulphate?
Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression
180
How long to treat with magnesium sulphate in eclampsia?
Treatment should continue for 24 hours after last seizure of delivery
181
What else should you do in severe pre eclampsia/eclampsia?
Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
182
What are the features of vulval cancer?
In older women Lump or ulcer on labia majora Inguinal lymphadenopathy May be associated with itching/irritation
183
What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?
Anything slowing ovum's passage to the uterus: Damage to tubes (pelvic inflammatory disease, surgery) Previous ectopic Endometriosis IUCD Progesterone only pill IVF (3% of pregnancies are ectopic)
184
Look at induction of labour
N
185
When should an ectopic pregnancy be managed surgically?
>35mm hCG over 5000IU/L
186
What is amniotic fluid embolism?
This is when fetal cells/ amniotic fluid enters the mothers bloodstream and stimulates a reaction
187
When can amniotic fluid embolism occur?
During labour, after delivery in the immediate post partum or during caesarean insection
188
What are the symptoms/signs of amniotic fluid embolism?
Symptoms include: chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety and coughing. Signs include: cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia and myocardial infarction.
189
Management of amniotic fluid embolism?
Critical care unit
190
What is the most common cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?
Uterine atony
191
What is syntocinon?
Synthetic oxytocin
192
What are the three features of Meig's syndrome?
A benign ovarian tumour Ascites Pleural effusion
193
What are the four main types of ovarian tumour?
Surface derived tumours Germ cell tumours Sex cord-stromal tumours Metastasis
194
What is the management of placenta praevia on a 20 week scan?
1. Rescan at 32 weeks 2. No need to limit activity or intercourse unless they bleed 3. If still present at 32 weeks then scan every 2 weeks 4. Final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks to determine method of delivery- elective aesarean section for grades III/IV between 37-38 weeks, trial of vaginal may be offered if grade I 5. If know placenta praevia goes into labour prior to the electve caesarean secton emergency caesarean section should be performed due to PPH risk
195
Placent praevia with bleeding management?
1. Admit 2. ABC approach to stabilise woman 3. If not able to stabilise- emergency caesarean section 4. If in labour or term reached- emergency caesarean section
196
What is the investigation for ectopic pregnancy?
Transvaginal utrasound
197
How to differentiate between causes of bleeding in pregnancy?
Painless Praevia Agony Abruption
198
What type of bleeding in placena praevia?
Painless and bright red
199
What type of bleeding in placental abruption?
Pain and dark red
200
What is dysmenorrhoea?
Excessive pain during the menstrual period
201
What is primary dysmenorrhoea?
No underlying pelvic pathology. Usually appears within 1-2 years of menarche. Pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of period starting Suprapubic cramping pains which may radiate to the back or down the thigh
202
What is the management of primary dysmenorrhoea?
1st- NSAIDs such as mefenamc acid and ibuprofen 2nd- COCP
203
What is secondary dysmenorrhoea?
Develops many years after the menarche. Is the result of underlying pathology. Pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset period. Causes incude: Endometriosis Adenomyosis Pelvic inflammatory disease Intrauterine devices (copper coil, inrauterine system (mirena) may help) Fibroids
204
What is the management for seconday dysmenorrhoea?
Refer to gynae Depends on cause
205
What suggests Down's syndrome on a 12 weeks combined screening test result?
High HCG Low PAPP-A Nuchal translucency- thickened
206
When can a chorionic villous sampling test be performed?
Between 11 weeks and the end of the 13th week
207
When can amniocentesis be performed?
From the 15th week onwards
208
What are the guidelines on antenatal testing for Down's?
The combined test is now standard- tests should be done between 11-13+6 weeks Combined is- nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) Trisomy 18 and 13 give similar results to Down's but HCG lower Quadruple test If women book later in pregnancy quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks
209
What is in the quadruple test?
Alpha-fetoprotein Unconjugated oestriol Human chorionic gonadotrophin Inhibin A
210
What is in the combined test?
Nuchal translucency measurement Serum B-HCG Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
211
Downs syndrome result on quadruple test?
Alpha-fetoprotein- low Unconjugated oestriol- low HCG- high Inhibin A- high
212
What results come from the combined and quadruple tests?
Both tests return a lower chance or higher chance result Lower chance- 1 in 150 or more High chance- 1 in 150 or less
213
What is non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)
If a woman has a higher chance result she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test (amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS). Given NIPT non-invasive and highly sensitive and specific this is preffered choice
214
What are the features of NIPT?
Analyses small DNA fragments that circulate in the blood of a pregnant woman cffDNA derives from placental cells Analysis of cffDNA allows early detection chromosomal abnormalities Sensitivity and specificity are very high for trisomy 21 (>99%)- similarly high for other chromosomal abnormalities
215
What should women on epileptics who are trying to conceive receive?
5mg folic acid instead of 400mcg
216
What is vaginal candidiasis?
Thrush- very common 80% caused by Candida albicans
217
Risk factors for vaginal candidiasis?
DM Drugs- antibiotics, steroids Pregnancy Immunosuppression- HIV
218
What are the features of vaginal candidiasis?
Cottage cheese, non offensive discharge Vulvitis- superficial dyspareunia, dysuria Itch Vulval erythema, fissuring, satellite lesions
219
What are the investigations for vaginal candidiasis?
High vaginal swab- not indicated if the clinical features consistent with candidiasis
220
Management vaginal candidiasis?
Local or oral 1st- Oral fluconazole Clotrimazole 500mg intravaginal pessary as single dose if oral therapy contraindicated If there are vulval symptoms consider adding topical imidazole in addition to an oral or intravaginal antifungal If pregnant only local treaments may be used
221
Recurrent vaginal candidiasis management?
4 or more episodes per year Compliance checked Confirm candidiasis with high vaginal swab Blood glucose to exclude diabetes Consider induction maintinence regime- Induction: Oral fluconazole every 3 days for 3 doses Maintinence- oral fluconazole weekly for 6 months
222
What are the characteristics of ovarian torsion?
Sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain. May coincide with exercise N+V common Unilateral, tender adnexal mass on examination
223
What is it called if fallopian tube also involved in torsion?
Adnexal torsion
224
RFs for ovarian torsion?
RFs Ovarian mass Being reproductive age Pregnancy Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
225
Features of ovarian torsion?
Usually sudden onset of deep seated colicky abdominal pain Vomiting and distress Fever in minority Vaginal examination shows adnexial tenderness Ultrasound may show whirlpool sign Laparoscopy both diagnostic and theraputic
226
Features for PID case?
Pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria and menstrual irregularities Cervical excitation may be found on examination
227
What virus causes rubella?
Togavirus
228
Features of congenital rubella syndrome?
Sensorineural deafness Congenital cataracts Congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus) Growth retardation Hepatosplenomegaly Purpuric skin lesions 'salt and pepper' chorioretinitis Microphthalmia Cerebral palsy
229
How to diagnose rubella in pregnancy?
Suspected cases should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit IgM antibodies raised in women recently exposed to the virus Difficult to differentiate between rubella and parvovirus B19
230
Rubella in pregnancy management?
Discuss with local Health Protection Unit If a woman has no immunity advise to keep away from people who might have rubella Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period- MMR should not be given to known pregnant mothers or ones trying to get pregnant
231
Do antibiotics have any effect on the POP?
No
232
What is the range for the combined test?
11-13+6 weeks
233
What is the rage for the quadruple test?
15-20 weeks
234
What is the main problem with the Nexplanon implant?
Irregular heavy bleeding
235
When can levonorgestrel be taken vs ulipristal?
Levonorgestrel within 72 hours Ulipristal within 120 hours
236
Management for early delivery?
Administer tocolytics and steroids
237
Infertility management in PCOS?
Weight reduction Metformin, clomifene or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation Clomifene 1st, metformin more used in overweight
238
General management of PCOS?
Weight reduction COC may help regulate cycle if contraception required
239
Hirstuism and acne management in PCOS?
COC may help 2nd Eflornithine
240
What is placenta accreta?
The attachment of the placenta to the myometrium. Placenta does not properly seperate during labour higher risk of post partum haemorrhage
241
What are the three types of placenta accreta?
Accreta: chorionic villi attach to the myometrium Increta: chorionic villi will invade into the myometrium Percreta: chorionic villi will invade through the perimetrium
242
What is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Most common liver disorder in pregnancy
243
What are the features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Pruritis- often in palms and soles Clinicallydetectable jaundice Raised bilirubin
244
What is the management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief Weekly liver function tests Women are typically induced at 37 weeks
245
What are the features of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
Abdominal pain Nausea & vomiting Headache Jaundice Hypoglycaemia Severe disease may result in pre-eclampsia
246
What is the investigation for acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
ALT is typically elevated e.g. 500 u/l
247
What is the management of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
Support care Once stabilised- delivery
248
What is the investigation for ectopic pregnancy?
Transvaginal ultrasound
249
What is menorrhagia?
Heavy menstrual bleeding >80ml per menses
250
What are the menorrhagia investigations?
Full blood count Transvaginal ultrasound scan if symptoms suggest structural or histological abnormality (intermenstrual or post coital bleeding, pelvic pain/pressure symptoms)
251
What is the management for menorrhagia for women who do not require contraception?
Either mefenamic acid (particularly with dysmenorrhoea) or tranexamic acid Both started on first day of period
252
What is the management for menorrhagia for women who require contraception?
1st- intraterine system (Mirena) 2nd- COCP 3rd- long acting progestogens (depo provera)
253
What are the characteristics of malignant ovarian cysts?
Irregular, solid tumour Ascites At least 4 papillary structures Strong blood flow
254
What are the types of physiological cysts?
Follicular cysts- commonest type ovarian cyst Corpus luteum cyst- more likely to intraperitoneal bleed than follicular
255
What to do to prophylactically treat someone for pre-eclampsia?
Low dose aspirin started at 12-14 weeks
256
When should IUD copper be offered as emergency contraception?
In all cases as more effective especially if ovulation has just occured (14 days) as other two stop ovulation Unless contraindicatted
257
What are the feaetures of PCOS?
Subfertility and infertility Menstrual disturbances- oligomenorrhoea and amenorrhoea Hirsutism, acne Obesity Acanthosis nigricans
258
What are the investigations for PCOS?
Pelvic ultrasound- multiple cysts on the ovaries Baseline investigations- FSH, LH, Prolactin, TSH, testosterone, sex hormone-binding globulin Raised LH:FSH ratio Prolactin normal to mildly elevated Testosterone normal to mildly elevated SHBG normal to low Check impaired glucose tolerance
259
What are the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?
Rotterdam criteria- PCOS diagnosis made if 2 of the following 3 are present: Infrequent/no ovulation Clinical and biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne or elevated levels of testosterone) Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan
260
How late does Cerazette (desogestrel) have to be before action needed?
12 hours
261
What makes you think adenomyosis?
>30 with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and an enlarged boggy uterus
262
What is adenomyosis?
Endometrial tissue within the myometrium More common in multiparous women towards the end of their reproductive years
263
Features of adenomyosis?
Dysmenorrhoea Menorrhagia Enlarged, boggy uterus
264
Investigations for adenomyosis?
1st- Transvaginal ultrasound MRI is alternative
265
Management of adenomyosis?
Symptomatic treatment- tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia GnRH agonists Uterine artery embolisation Hysterectomy- definitive treatment
266
What is the max end of normal hCG results and what does a high one make you think?
210,000 mIU/ml If higher suggests a molar pregnancy- complete hydatidiform mole
267
What are the features of a molar pregnancy?
Vaginal bleeding Uterus size greater than expected for gestational age Abnormally high hCG Ultrasound: Snow storm appearance of mixed echogenicity
268
What should be monitored during treatment with magnesium sulphate?
Urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations
269
How often is smear testing done?
Between 25-64 years 25-49 years- 3-yearly 50-64 years- 5-yearly Cervical screening not offered to patients over 64
270
What are the special situations related to cervical screening?
Cervical screening in pregnancy delayed until 3 months post partum unless missed screening/previous abnormal smears Women never sexually active before are low risk so may want to opt out
271
What are the three types of gestational trophoblastic disorders?
Complete hydatidiform mole Partial hydatidiform mole Choriocarcinoma
272
What are the features of complete hydatidiform mole?
Bleeding in first or early second trimester Exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy- hyperemesis Uterus large for dates Very high hCG Hyertension and hyperthyroidism my be seem (hCG can mimick TSH)
273
What is the management of a molar pregnancy?
Urgent referral to specialist centre- evacuation of uterus performed Effective contraception recommended to avoid a pregnancy in the next 12 months
274
What is expectant management of miscarriage?
Waiting for spontaneous miscarrige Wait 7-14 days for miscarrige to complete spontaneously If expectant management unsuccessful then medical or surgical management offered Situations where medical or surgical: Increased risk of haemorrhage- late first trimester or coagulopathies Previous adverse/ traumatic pregnancy- stillbirth, miscarrige, antepartum haemorrhage Evidence of infection
275
What is the medical management of miscarrige?
Tablets to expedite the miscarrige Vaginal misprostol- prostaglandin analogue Contact doctor if bleeding not stopped within 24 hours Given antiemetics and pain relief
276
What is the surgical management of miscarrige?
Surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic Vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre Vacuum aspiration done under local anaesthetic as an out patient
277
What must be given to rhesus D negative women having a termination after 10 weeks?
anti-D prophylaxis
278
What are the medical options for termination of pregnancy?
Mifepristone (anti-progestogen) followed 48 hours later by prostaglandins (e.g. misoprostol) to stimulate uterine contractions Takes hours/days to complete Pregnancy test required at 2 weeks to confirm the pregnancy has ended. Should detect the level of hCG (rather than positive or negative)- termed a multi level pregnancy test
279
What are the surgical options for termination of pregnancy?
Transcervical procedures- vacuum aspiration, electric vacuum aspiration and dilitation and evacuation Following surgical abortion an intrauterine contraceptive can be inserted immediately after evacuation of the uterine cavity
280
Choice of termination of pregnancy?
Choice between medical and surgical offered up to and including 23+6 weeks gestation After 9 weeks medical abortions less common- increased likelihood of products of conception seen and decreased success rate Before 10 weeks medical abortions usually done at home
281
What to do if a woman with hypertension on ACEi/ARB gets pregnant?
Stop immediately and give alternative antihypertensives (labetalol) while awaiting specialist review
282
Define hypertension in pregnancy?
systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg Increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic Then catagorise into pre-existing, pregnancy induced or pre- eclampsia Proteinuria/oedema
283
What do fibroids appear as on ultrasound?
Hypoechoic masses
284
What does a complete hydatidiform mole appear as on ultrasound?
Snow-storm appearance
285
What is the treatment for CIN (cervical intraepitheliar neoplasia)?
Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
286
How long should 400IU vitamin D be taken during pregnancy?
It should be taken for the full duration of pregnancy
287
What are the reasons for taking 5mg of folic acid instead of 400mcg?
Either partner has NTD, previous pregnancy NTD or FH NTD Woman taking antiepileptic drugs, has coeliac, diabetes or thalassemia Obese 30+ BMI
288
What is tested for on booking visit?
4 3 2 1 4 blood (FBC, rhesus, blood group, alloantibodies) 3 virus (hepB, HIV, syphilis) *rubella no more* 2 UTI (dipstick, culture) 1 full physical examination (breast, BMI, BP)
289
What are the three main catagories of anovulation?
Class 1 (hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation) - notably hypothalamic amenorrhoea (5-10% of women) Class 2 (normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation) - polycystic ovary syndrome (80% of cases) Class 3 (hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation) - premature ovarian insufficiency (5-10% of cases). In this class, any attempts at ovulation induction are typically unsuccessful and therefore usually require in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) with donor oocytes to conceive
290
What are the forms of ovarian induction?
Exercise and weight loss Letrozole Clomiphene Gonadotrphin therapy
291
What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is one of the potential side effects of ovulation induction Hypovolaemic shock Acute renal failure Venous or arterial thromboembolism
292
What are the indications for induction of labour?
Prolonged pregnancy, e.g. 1-2 weeks after the estimated date of delivery Prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, where labour does not start Maternal medical problems: diabetic mother > 38 weeks pre-eclampsia obstetric cholestasis Intrauterine fetal death
293
What is the Bishop's score used for?
Use to assess whether the induction of labour is required Score of <5 indicates labour unlikely to start without an induction Score of ≥ 8 indicates high chance of spontaneous labour
294
What are the components of a Bishop's score?
Look up table Cervical postition 0- posterior 1- intermediate 2- anterior Cervical consistency 0- firm 1- intermediate 2- soft Cervical effacement 0- 0-30% 1- 40-50% 2- 60-70% 3- 80% Cervical dilitation 0- <1 cm 1- 1-2 cm 2- 3-4 cm 3- >5 cm Fetal station 0- -3 1- -2 2- -1, 0 3- +1,+2
295
Management of induction of labour?
Options- 1st- Membrane sweep Vaginal prostoglandin E2 (PGE2)- dinoprostone Oral prostoglandin E1- misoprostol Maternal oxytocin Amniotomy Cervical ripening balloon if the Bishop score is ≤ 6 vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean if the Bishop score is > 6 amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion
296
NICE guidelines on labour induction?
If the Bishop score is ≤ 6 vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol Mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean If the Bishop score is > 6 amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion
297
What are the complications of labour induction?
Uterine hyperstimulation: Prolonged and frequent uterine contractions Fetal hypoxia Uterine rupture Management: Removing the vaginal prostaglandins if possible and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started Consider tocolysis
298
What used for tocolysis?
It's Not My Time Indomethacin Nifedipine Magnesium sulphate Terbutaune
299
What is ruptured endometrioma?
Intense pain Ruptured endometriosis, fluid in abdomen
300
Learn the hand innervation
Rock, Paper, Scissors --> Median, Radial, Ulnar
301
What is the management of placental abruption?
Fetus alive and under <36 weeks Fetal distress: emergency caesarean No fetal distress: observe closely, steroids, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation Fetus alive and >36 weeks Fetal distress: immediate caesarean No foetal distress: deliver vaginally Foetus dead- induce vaginal delivery
302
Features of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Pruritus - may be intense - typical worse palms, soles and abdomen Clinically detectable jaundice occurs in around 20% of patients Raised bilirubin is seen in > 90% of cases
303
Management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks is common practice but may not be evidence based Ursodeoxycholic acid Vitamin K supplementation
304
Why give higher folate?
MORE folic acid (5mg) for: M- Metabolism diseases- Diabetes and Coeliac O- Obesity (BMI >30) R- Relative (Family or personal Hx of NTDs) E- Epilepsy (on anti-epileptic meds) (+Thalassaemia and Sickle Cell- less likely in exams) Antipsychotics too
305
Edward's syndrome quadruple test result?
EdwardIAn- inhibin A stands out Alpha fetoprotein- low Unconjugated oestriol- low hCG- low Inhibin A- normal
306
Which one out of Edward's, Patau and Down's gives high hCG?
Down's
307
Down's syndrome quadruple test result?
Alpha fetoprotein- low Unconjugated oestriol- low hCG- high Inhibin A- high
308
Neural tube defects quadruple test result?
Alpha fetoprotein- High Unconjugated oestriol- normal hCG- normal Inhibin A- normal
309
Who should be prescribed aspirin throughout preganncy?
Anyone with risk factors for pre-eclampsia- 1 high risk or two moderate risks High risk factors: Hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy Chronic kidney disease Autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or antiphospholipid syndrome Type 1 or type 2 diabetes Chronic hypertension Moderate risk factors: First pregnancy Age 40 years or older Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years Body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m² or more at first visit Family history of pre-eclampsia Multiple pregnancy
310
What is umbilical cord prolapse?
The umbilical cord descending before the presenting part of the uterus
311
What are the risk factors for umbilical cord prolapse?
Prematurity Multiparity Polyhydraminos Twin pregnancy Cephalopelvic disproportion Abnormal presentation- breech, transverse lie
312
When do most cord prolapses happen?
At artificial rupture of the membranes
313
What is the management of umbilical cord prolapse?
Obstetric emergency Presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression If cord past the level of introitus, there should be minimal handling and it should be kept warm and moist to avoid vasospasm Ask patient to go on all fours until immediate caesarian ready Tocolytics may be used to reduce the uterine contractions Retrofilling the bladder with 500-700ml of saline may be helpful Instrumental vaginal possible if cervix fully dilated and head is low
314
Which contraception is contraindicated in PID?
Intrauterine device Intrauterine system Both last for 5 years
315
What is the most effective form of contraception?
Implantable contraceptive Contraindications- current breast cance- UKMEC 4
316
What can happen when you stop l-dopa?
Similar to neuroleptic malignant sydrome
317
What are the differential diagnoses of bleeding in the first trimester?
Miscarriage Ectopic pregnancy Implantation bleeding
318
Difference between traditional POPs and desogestrel (Cerazette)
Latest traditional can be- 3 hours Latest desogestrel can be- 12 hours
319
What are the three types of foetal lie?
Longitudinal lie Transverse Lie Oblique
320
Risk factors for transverse presentation?
Women who have had previous pregnancy most common Fibroids and pelvic tumours Twins or triplets Prematurity Polyhydraminos Foetal abnormalities
321
How to diagnose transverse lie?
Abnormal foetal lie detected during routine antenatal appointments Abdominal examination Ultrasound scan
322
Complications of transverse lie?
Pre-term rupture membranes (PROM) Cord-prolapse
323
What is the management of transverse/oblique lie?
Before 36 weeks none most resolve After 36 weeks: Active management- external cephalic version (ECV) of the foetus- can be late in pregnancy or early in labour- contraindications- maternal rupture in last 7 days, multiple pregnancy (except 2nd twin), major uterine abnormality. Elective caesarean section
324
Which insertable contraceptive should you avoid in heavy menstrual bleeding or those with a history of it?
Copper intrauterine device
325
Postpartum contraception options?
POP anytime- contraception used first two days COCP- UKMEC 4 if less than 6 weeks post partum, UKMEC2 6 weeks to 6 months, not in first 21 days as VTE risk, after 21 days additional contraception for first 7 days IUD or IUS can be used within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks Lactationnal amenorrhoea method 98% effective if fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic and <6 months post partum
326
What to do with a woman 10 weeks presenting with confusion, ataxia, nystagmus?
Give Pabrinex (B vitamins) Wernicke's encephalopathy can come from vomiting (hyperemesis gravidarum)
327
What is the name of trying to turn a breech baby after 36 weeks?
External cephalic version (ECV)
328
How to sort breech babies?
If less then 36 weeks reassureit might move round If over 36 weeks give external cephalic version (ECV) a go If it fails offer planned caesarean or vaginal delivery
329
What are the absolute contraindications for ECV?
Where caesarean delivery is required Antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days Abnormal cardiotocography Major uterine anomaly Ruptured membranes Multiple pregnancy
330
What is used for rehydration in hyperemesis gravidarum?
Admit for IV saline with potassium replacement
331
What is the medical management for miscarrige?
Just vaginal misoprostol Contact doctor if bleeding not stopped in 24 hours Misoprostol expels products of contraception, don't need mifepristone to end pregnancy as would be the case in an abortion
332
What are the surgical options for miscarrige?
Vaccum aspiration Surgical management
333
What are the side effects of GnRH analogues?
Menopausal symptoms and loss off mineral bone density Used in fibroids
334
Check fibroids
On Passmed
335
How to suppress lactation?
Stop lactation reflex- stop suckling Supportive measures- well supported bra and analgesia Cabergoline is the medication of choice
336
What is given before fibroid surgery?
GnRH analogues to try and reduce the size of the fibroid (uterus) before surgery- particularly for hysterectomy COCP not taken 4-6 weeks before surgery due to VTE risk
337
At what point is the menopause said to have happened?
12 months since last period Women under 50 who menopause require contraception for 2 years, over 50 only 1 year
338
How long should women use contraception after the menopause?
If menopause happened over 50- 1 year If menopause happened under 50- 2 years
339
What are the two types of caesarean section?
Lower segment caesarean- now over 99% of cases Classic caesarean- longitudinal incision
340
What are the indications for caesarean section?
Absolute cephalopelvic disproportion Placenta praevia grades 3/4 Pre-eclampsia Post-maturity IUGR Fetal distress in labour/prolapsed cord Failure of labour to progress Malpresentations: brow Placental abruption: only if fetal distress; if dead deliver vaginally Vaginal infection e.g. active herpes Cervical cancer (disseminates cancer cells)
341
What are the catagories of caesarean section?
Category 1- immediate threat to life of mother or baby- suspected uterine rupture, cord prolapse, foetal hypoxia, persistent fetal bradycardia- to be delivered within 30 mins Category 2- Maternal or fetal compromise not immediately life threatening - delivery should occur within 75 minutes Category 3- delivery required but mother and baby stable Category 4- elective caesarean
342
What are contraindications to vaginal birth after caesarean?
Previous uterine rupture Classical caesarean scar
343
How can you differentiate between a seizure and a pseudoseizure?
Elevated prolactin 10-20 mins after episode can differentiate between general tonic clonic/partial and non-epileptic pseudo seizure Serum prolactin raised in true seizures Tongue biting in true seizures
344
What factors favour pseudo seizures over true seizures?
Pelvic thrusting Family member with epilepsy Much more common in females Crying after seizure Don't occur when alone Gradual onset
345
What is the target time for thrombectomy in acute stroke?
6 hours
346
Stroke features?
pelvic thrusting family member with epilepsy much more common in females crying after seizure don't occur when alone gradual onset
347
What is the management of primary dysmenorrhoea?
1st- NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen COCP is 2nd line
348
What is cervical ectropion?
Ectocervix transformation. Caused by elevated levels of oestrogen (pregnancy. COCP, ovulatory phase) Features: Vaginal discharge Post coital bleeding Ablative treatment
349
What is fibroid degeneration and when might it occur?
Uterine fibroids are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy If growth outstrips blood supply can undergo red degeneration This presents with low grade fever, pain and vomiting Conservative management- rest, analgesia- should resolve within 4-7 days
350
What is the management for endometrial cancer?
Surgery Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Patients with high risk disease may have post operative chemotherapy
351
What are the long term complications of vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair?
Enterocele and vaginal vault prolapse Urinary retention may occur acutely
352
What are the investigations for bladder incontience?
All types of incontinence Bladder diaries Vaginal examination to exclude prelvic organ prolapse Urine dipstick and culture Urodynamic studies
353
Is Carbamazepine enzyme inducing?
Yes, can't use with UKMEC 3COCP, POP UKMEC2 implant
354
Hb normal values in pregnancy?
Before 115 First trimester Hb less than 110 g/l Second/third trimester Hb less than 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l Normocytic or microcytic anaemia a trial of oral iron should be considered as the first step, and further investigations only required if no rise in haemaglobin after 2 weeks.
355
What is the management for anaemia in pregnancy?
Normocytic or microcytic Oral ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate Treatment continued for 3 months after iron deficieny corrected to allow iron stores to be replenished
356
How long can bHCG remain raised after an abortion?
For 3/4 weeks Do a pregnancy test with hCG level 2 weeks after the termination to confirm
357
When can hormonal contraception be started after levornogestrel and ulipristal?
Levornogestrel- imediately Ulipristal- 5 days after taking- barrier methods used during this period Ulipristal used with caution in asthmatics Both can be used more than once in a menstrual cycle
358
Bleeding in the first trimester management?
<6 weeks- if no pain or risk factors then expectant management, return if bleeding develops, repeat pregany test in 7-10 days >6 weeks if bleeding refer to the early pregnancy assesment unit for a transvaginal ultrasound scan
359
What fluid should be prescribed in hyperemesis gravidarum?
IV normal saline with potassium chloride Treat hypokalaemia
360
First line for overactive bladder?
Bladder retraining
361
What is syntometrine?
Syntocinon and ergometrine
362
What are the types of miscarriage?
Threatened- Painless vaginal bleeding occurring before 24 weeks, but typically occurs at 6 - 9 weeks The bleeding is often less than menstruation Cervical os is closed Missed- A gestational sac which contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion Mother may have light vaginal bleeding / discharge and the symptoms of pregnancy which disappear. Pain is not usually a feature Cervical os is closed When the gestational sac is > 25 mm and no embryonic/fetal part can be seen it is sometimes described as a 'blighted ovum' or 'anembryonic pregnancy' Inevitable- Heavy bleeding with clots and pain Cervical os is open Incomplete- Not all products of conception have been expelled Pain and vaginal bleeding Cervical os is open
363
When does gestational cardiac activity begin?
Around 5 weeks of age
364
When to check serum progesterone?
7 days before next period as that is when it is highest
365
Fetus alive and < 36 weeks Placental abruption
Fetal distress- immediate caesarean No fetal distress- observe closely, SteroidS, no tocolysis, threshold to deliver depends on gestation
366
What factors reduce vertical HIV transmission in pregancy?
Maternal antiretroviral therapy Mode of delivery (caesarean section) Neonatal antiretroviral therapy Infant feeding (bottle feeding) Offer HIV screening to everyone
367
Should women with HIV be offered antiretroviral therapy?
Yes everyone with HIV
368
How should baby be delivered in a mother with HIV?
Vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended A zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section
369
Should the baby get antiretroviral therapy?
Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks Breast feeding not reccomended in UK
370
After how long should women treated for CIN1, CIN2, or CIN3 be recalled?
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 6 months for test of cure
371
What is the most common cause of post menopausal bleeding?
Vaginal atrophy (Can occur in women taking HRT) (Can occur in endometrial hyperplasia?
372
Who gets OGTT at 24-28 weeks?
Anyone with risk factors: BMI of > 30 kg/m² Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above Previous gestational diabetes First-degree relative with diabetes Family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)
373
Gastroschisis vs Exomphalos
Gastroschisis Vaginal can be attempted - without a peritoneal covering. - lateral to the umbilical Mx - surgical correction ASAP - cover with sling-film(since no peritoneal covering) Omphalocele Caesarean indicated - with peritoneal covering - umbilical site Mx - no need csling film BUT surgical treatment usually in staged (may take months) to allow lung adaptation
374
When emergency contaception on COCP?
If 7 days missed consecutively- start again as new user
375
What is Sheehan's syndrome?
Sheehan syndrome describes hypopituitarism caused by ischemic necrosis due to blood loss and hypovolaemic shock Amenorrhoea and symptoms of hypothyroidism (Big cause is PPH)
376
What is Asherman's syndrome?
May occur after dilitation and cutterage Can prevent endometrium responding to oestrogen- could cause amenorrhoea
377
Define secondary and primary amenorrhoea?
Primary: defined as the failure to establish menstruation by 15 years of age in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics (such as breast development), or by 13 years of age in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics Secondary: cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses, or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea
378
Causes of secondary amernorrhoea?
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary stress, excessive exercise) Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) Hyperprolactinaemia Premature ovarian failure Thyrotoxicosis* Sheehan's syndrome Asherman's syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)
379
What is a galactocele?
Presents in women who have recently stopped breast feeding Should be painless
380
When does fibroid degeneration usually happen?
Within the first or second trimester
381
What is the presentation of chorioamnionitis?
RF is premature membrane rupture Deliver foetus and IV antibiotics Fever, tachycardia, neutrophilia, uterine tenderness and foul smelling discharge
382
What is HELLP syndrome?
Acronym for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelet count Can develop in the late stages of pregnancy Got a cross over with severe pre eclampsia
383
What are the features of HELLP syndrome?
Nausea & vomiting Right upper quadrant pain Lethargy Investigations: haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets Treatment: Delivery
384
What is the management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief Weekly liver function tests Women are typically induced at 37 weeks
385
What are the investigation results for PCOS?
Raised LH:FSH ratio Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) is normal to low
386
Why are all newborns offered vitamin K?
All relatively deficient and breastmilk poor source- reduces the risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn Either IM or orally
387
What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
Emotional and physical symptoms women may experience before the luteal phase Doesn't occur pre puberty, in pregnancy or post menopause
388
PMS symptoms?
Emotional symptoms include: anxiety stress fatigue mood swings Physical symptoms: bloating breast pain
389
What is the management of PMS?
Mild symptoms- lifestyle advice- sleep, exercise, smoking, alcohol, small regular meals Moderate symptoms- COCP Severe symptoms- SSRIs
390
What is the cause of secondary amenorrhoea in a very athletic woman?
Hypothalamic hypogonadism
391
What are the causes of puerperal pyrexia?
Temperature of > 38ºC in the first 14 days following deliver Endometritis: most common cause Urinary tract infection Wound infections (perineal tears + caesarean section) Mastitis Venous thromboembolism Management: If endometritis is suspected the patient should be referred to hospital for intravenous antibiotics (clindamycin and gentamicin until afebrile for greater than 24 hours)
392
What is the treatment for vaginal vault prolapse?
Sacrocolpoplexy
393
Surgical options for urogenital prolapse?
Cystocele/cystourethrocele: anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension Uterine prolapse: hysterectomy, sacrohysteropexy Rectocele: posterior colporrhaphy
394
What is endometrial hyperplasia?
Abnormal proliferation of the endometrium- abnormal intermentrual bleeding- higher risk for endometrial cancer Simple or atypical Simple- high dose progestogens, levornogestrel system Atypia- hysterectomy
395
What to do with Hep B women who give birth?
Babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who've had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin Hep B cannot be transmitted through breast feeding but HIV can
396
When to do ECV?
36 weeks in nulliparous 37 in multiparous
397
What is premature ovarian insufficiency syndrome?
Onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40
398
What are the causes of premature menopause?
Idiopathic Bilateral oophorectomy Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Infection Autoimmune disorders
399
What are the features of premature ovarian insufficiency?
Similar to normal climacteric Climacteric symptoms- hot flushes, night sweats Infertility Secondary amenorrhoea Raised FSH, LH levels (elevated FSH from two samples taken 4-6 weeks apart) Low oestradiol
400
What is the management of premature ovarian insufficiency?
HRT or COCP until average age of menopause (51)
401
Must a woman be exclusively breast feeding for lactational amenorrhoea method to be affective?
Yes
402
Where is the most dangerous place for an ectopic?
The isthmus- most at risk of rupture Most common in the ampulla
403
Features allowing for the expectant management of ectopic pregnancy?
Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy can only be performed for 1) An unruptured embryo 2) <35mm in size 3) Have no heartbeat 4) Be asymptomatic 5) Have a B-hCG level of <1,000IU/L and declining
404
Placental abruption risk factors?
A for Abruption previously; B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia); R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged; U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen); P for Polyhydramnios; T for Twins or multiple gestation; I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis; O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old); N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)
405
Examples of GnRH analogues?
Goserelin Triptorelin
406
Features of the patch contraception?
For the first 3 weeks, the patch is worn everyday and needs to be changed each week. During the 4th week, the patch is not worn and during this time there will be a withdrawal bleed
407
Delayed changing of the patch contraception?
If the patch change is delayed at the end of week 1 or week 2: If the delay in changing the patch is less than 48 hours, it should be changed immediately and no further precautions are needed. If the delay is greater than 48 hours, the patch should be changed immediately and a barrier method of contraception used for the next 7 days. If the woman has had sexual intercourse during this extended patch-free interval or if unprotected sexual intercourse has occurred in the last 5 days, then emergency contraception needs to be considered. If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week 3: The patch should be removed as soon as possible and the new patch applied on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed. If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for 7 days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle.
408
Investigation for menorrhagia?
FBC Ultrasound scan
409
Management of menorrhagia?
Requires contraception: Mirena coil- intrauterine system COCP Long-acting progestogens Does not require contraception: Mefenamic acid (helps with dysmenorrhoea)or tranexamic acid
410
What is tested for at booking appointment?
HIV, syphillis, Hep B Sickle cell, thalassemia
411
What is the classic triad of vasa praevia?
Rupture of the membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and foetal bradycardia
412
What to monitor with magnesium sulphate
Respiratory rate and reflexes (urine output, oxygen sats)
413
Complications of HRT?
Increased risk of breast cancer- by addition of progestogen Increased risk of endometrial cancer- oestrogen by itself not given to women with a womb Increased risk of VTE- due to addition of progestogen- not the case for transdermal Increased risk of stroke Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease if taken 10 years after menopause
414
Endometrial hyperplasia vs vaginal atrophy as a cause of PMB?
Both have bleeding Vaginal atrophy- most common and assocaited with dryness and dyspareunia, post coital bleeding Endometrial hyperplasia- associated with obesity, no pain or post coital bleeding
415
How to confirm pre term premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM)?
A sterile speculum examination should be performed (to look for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault) but digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection if pooling of fluid is not observed NICE recommend testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) (e.g. AmniSure®) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein‑1 Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios
416
What is the management of PPROM?
Admission Regular observations to ensure chorioamnionitis is not developing Oral erythromycin should be given for 10 days Antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation - there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis with a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses
417
Monitoring results of a molar pregnancy?
bHCG- High TSH- Low Thyroxine- High bHCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, negative feedback so TSH low
418
What is the management of pre menstrual syndrome?
Mild symptoms- lifestyle advice- exercise, smoking, alcohol Moderate symptoms- new-generation COCP (contains drospirenone) Severe symptoms- SSRI
419
Management of GBS in pregnancy?
Women with previous GBS offered intrapartum antibiotic prophlaxis or testing late in pregnancy and then antibiotics If woman has GBS requires intrapartum benzylpenicillin
420
Which contraceptive is assocaited with weight gain?
Depo provera Also delay in fertility returning of up to 1 year, increased risk osteoporosis and irregular bleeding
421
What are the features of ovarian failure (including premature)?
Amenorrhoea, climateric symptoms (hot flushes, night sweats), lost oestradiol, raised gonadotrophins
422
What is the treatment of mastitis?
Flucloxacillin Continue breastfeeding
423
Are positive antiphospholipid antibodies (e.g. in SLE) UKMEC 4 in the COCP?
Yes
424
SSRIs and pregnancy?
- BNF says to weigh up benefits and risk when deciding whether to use in pregnancy. - Use during the first trimester gives a small increased risk of congenital heart defects - Use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn - Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester
425
Ectopic vs miscarrige?
In the case of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 points toward a diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy
426
COCP cancer associations?
Combined oral contraceptive pill increased risk of breast and cervical cancer protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
427
Most important risk factor for placenta accreta?
Caesarean sections
428
Can the mirena coil act as the progesterone part of HRT?
Yes for up to 4 years The patient can then just take oestradiol
429
What are the signs of labour?
Regular and painful uterine contractions A show (shedding of mucous plug) Rupture of the membranes (not always) Shortening and dilation of the cervix
430
What are the three stages of labour?
Labour may be divided in to three stages stage 1: from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated stage 2: from full dilation to delivery of the fetus stage 3: from delivery of fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered
431
How do you monitor labour?
Monitoring in Labour FHR monitored every 15min (or continuously via CTG) Contractions assessed every 30min Maternal pulse rate assessed every 60min Maternal BP and temp should be checked every 4 hours VE should be offered every 4 hours to check progression of labour Maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours
432
What are the components of stage 1 labour?
Stage 1 - from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. In a primigravida lasts typical 10-16 hours latent phase = 0-3 cm dilation, normally takes 6 hours active phase = 3-10 cm dilation, normally 1cm/hr Also Latent- 0-3cm Active- 3-7cm Transition- 7-10cm
433
Components of stage 2 labour?
Stage 2 - from full dilation to delivery of the fetus 'passive second stage' refers to the 2nd stage but in the absence of pushing (normal) active second stage' refers to the active process of maternal pushing less painful than 1st (pushing masks pain) lasts approximately 1 hours if longer than 1 hour (can be left longer if epidural) consider Ventouse extraction, forceps delivery or caesarean section episiotomy may be necessary following crowning associated with transient fetal bradycardia
434
When can IUD be fitted for emergency contraception?
must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or if a woman presents after more than 5 days then an IUD may be fitted up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date Likely ovulation date is normal length of period (take the shortest one) and subtract 14
435
Extremley friendly and extroverted, short, learning difficulties, transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and a supravalvular aortic stenosis?
William's syndrome
436
What are the contraindications for planned vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)
Previous uterine rupture or classical caesarean scar
437
SSRI of choice in breastfeeding women?
Paroxetine
438
What are the normal physiological changes in pregancy?
Reduced urea, reduced creatinine, increased urinary protein loss
439
What to do with babies who don't breastfeed well and lose 10% bodyweight in the first week?
Refer to speacialist midwife led clinic
440
PID management?
Intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole Remove copper IUD
441
PMS syndrome management?
Mild- Lifestyle advice Moderate- new generation COCP Severe- SSRI
442
Tamoxifen causes which type of cancer?
Endometrial
443
Difference between IgM and IgG in chickenpox?
IgG- got antibodies IgM- met someome with virus, immediate infection
444
When does pregnancy test become negative after abortion?
4 weeks Pregnancy test taken 2 weeks after
445
What is a macrosomic baby in weight?
Over 4.5 kg
446
How many miscarriges for it to be recurrent?
3 or more Causes: Antiphospholipid syndrome Endocrine disorders: poorly controlled diabetes mellitus/thyroid disorders. Polycystic ovarian syndrome Uterine abnormality: e.g. uterine septum Parental chromosomal abnormalities Smoking
447
Who is at risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome when undergoing IVF?
PCOS women Abdominal pain/bloating N+V Oliguria Ascites Thromboembolism Acute respiratory distress syndrome
448
Increased/Decrease alpha fetoprotein causes?
Increased Increased AFP Neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly) Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis) Multiple pregnancy Decreased Down's syndrome Trisomy 18 Maternal diabetes mellitus
449
When is primary amenorrhoea diagnosed?
15 if secondary sexual characteristics 13 with no secondary sexual characteristics
450
What are the PCOS investigations?
PElvic ultrasound FSH, LH, TSH, testosterone, sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) LH:FSH ratio raised Prolactin normal or elevated Testosterone normal or elevated SHBG normal to low Rotterdam criteria: Infrequent/no ovulation Clinical/biochemical hyperandrogenism Polycystic ovaries on USS
451
Do you get increased ketones in hyperemesis gravidarum?
Yes
452
Any bleeding over 55 and post menopausal?
Refferal using suspected cancer pathway First-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound - a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm) has a high negative predictive value Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy
453
Are antiepileptics safe in preganancy?
Yes
454
Management of no foetal distress less than 36 weeks placental abruption?
Admit for obersvation and give steroids
455
Which group B streptococcus causes sepsis in neonates?
Streptococcus agalacticae In chains
456
Random information about food in pregancy?
Vit A may be teratogenic- so avoid liver Take folic acid and vit D No drinking No smoking
457
Cervical cancer treatment?
For stage IA Most likely to preserve fertility- cone biopsy Recommended for women who don't want children- hysterectomy with lymph node clearance- gold standard Later sage- radiotherapy and chemotherapy
458
Who is the legal mother is surregacy?
The woman who gave birth, not the genetic parents
459
When are croup and bronchiolitis more common?
Croup- Autumn Bronchiolitis- Winter
460
Neonatal resuscitation guidelines?
Neonatal resuscitation guidelines Birth: Dry the baby, remove any wet towels and cover and start the clock or note the time. Within 30 seconds: Assess tone, breathing and heart rate. Within 60 seconds: If gasping or not breathing - open the airway and give 5 inflation breaths Re-assess: If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement If chest not moving: Recheck head position, consider 2-person airway control and other airway manoeuvres, repeat inflation breaths and look for a response. If no increase in heart rate look for chest movement When the chest is moving: If heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60 min-1) - start chest compressions with 3 compressions to each breath. Reassess heart rate every 30 seconds. If heart rate is not detectable or slow (<60 beats per minute) consider venous access and drugs
461
What is Mittelschmerz?
Usually mid cycle pain. Often sharp onset. Little systemic disturbance. May have recurrent episodes. Usually settles over 24-48 hours.
462
Fine adhesions between liver and abdomiinal wallM
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis (PID complication) it is characterised by right upper quadrant pain and may be confused with cholecystitis
463
When is the copper coil contraindicated for emergency contraception?
PID or suspected STI
464
When should COCP be discontinued before surgury?
4 weeks before
465
Which contraceptive causes weight gain?
Depo provera
466
Who is adenomyosis more common in?
Multiparous women towards the end of their reproductive years dysmenorrhoea menorrhagia enlarged, boggy uterus NICE recommend transvaginal ultrasound as the first-line investigation MRI is an alternative symptomatic treatment tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia GnRH agonists uterine artery embolisation hysterectomy considered the 'definitive' treatment
467
What is the triad for chorioamnionitis?
Maternal pyrexia Maternal tachycardia Foetal tacycardia More likely in pre-term PROM
468
What type of contraception can patients who have had a gastric band/bypass/duodenal switch not have?
Oral contraceptives due to lack of efficacy
469
If semen sample is abnormal in infertility, in how long should it be retested?
In 3 months Should be performed after minimum of 3 days and max of 5 days of abstinence Deliver to lab within an hour
470
In what situations is miscarriage better managed medically than surgically?
Increased risk of haemorrhage she is in the late first trimester if she has coagulopathies or is unable to have a blood transfusion Previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy (for example, stillbirth, miscarriage or antepartum haemorrhage) Evidence of infection
471
What is the surgical intervention for miscarriage?
Vacuum aspiration
472
Blood pressure over what level in pregnancy needs to be admitted?
160/110
473
POP including desogestrel to become active?
2 days
474
What could presence of pelvic pain in pregnancy on the background of menhorhagia be?
Fibroid degeneration Grow in pregnancy due to oestrogen Enlarged uterus
475
Remember postpatum thyroiditis
Three stages: 1.Thyrotoxicosis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Normal thyroid function
476
What is hCG produced by?
First the embryo Then the placental trophoblast Main role is to prevent the disintergration of the corpus luteum
477
When are progesterone levels highest?
When you measure for ovulation 7 days before end of cycle
478
Hb cut offs for iron supplelemtation in pregnancy?
First trimester < 110 g/L Second/third trimester < 105 g/L Postpartum < 100 g/L Treat with oral ferrous sulphate
479
Treatment for fibroids causing infertility?
Myomectomy
480
Contraindication for progesterone injectabe?
Breast cancer
481
Abruption RFs?
ABRUPTION: A for Abruption previously; B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia); R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged; U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen- C-section); P for Polyhydramnios; T for Twins or multiple gestation/multiparity; I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis; O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old); N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)
482
When can the implant be inserted after birth?
Immediately After 4 weeks if breast feeding
483
Do all women with secondary dysmenorrhoea need reffering to gynaecology?
Yes
484
Does pre eclampisa/ pregnancy induced hypertension have to occur after 20 weeks?
Yes, if before it is pre existing hypertension
485
How is vesicoureteric reflux diagnosed?
A micturating cystourethrogram
486
Contraception if COCP started on day 0-5 of menstrual cycle?
None it works straight away
487
Does phenytoin reduce folic acid?
Yes
488
OGTT when?
Previous gestational diabetes- at booking and 24-28 weeks Other risk factors- just 24-28 weeks
489
Causes for oligohydraminos?
Causes: Premature rupture of membranes Potter sequence bilateral renal agenesis + pulmonary hypoplasia Intrauterine growth restriction Post-term gestation Pre-eclampsia
490
Ovarian cancer staging?
Stage 1 (1 word) = ovary Stage 2 (2 words) = ovary + pelvis Stage 3 (3 words) = ovary + pelvis + abdomen Stage 4 = distant metastasis Stage 1 Tumour confined to ovary Stage 2 Tumour outside ovary but within pelvis Stage 3 Tumour outside pelvic but within abdomen Stage 4 Distant metastasis
491
Shoulder dystocia baby complications?
Erb's palsy occurs due to damage to the upper brachial plexus most commonly from shoulder dystocia. Damage to these nerve roots results in a characteristic pattern: adduction and internal rotation of the arm, with pronation of the forearm. This classic physical position is commonly called the 'waiter's tip' Klumpke's palsy occurs due to damage of the lower brachial plexus and commonly affects the nerves innervating the muscles of the hand
492
What should all women with previous hypertension or a high risk factor for pre-eclampsia/eclampsia get?
Aspirin from 12 weeks to all pregnant women who are at moderate or high risk of pre-eclampsia
493
How many features need to be present for PCOS to be diagnosed?
2/3 on the Rotterdam scale: oligomenorrhoea clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
494
Management of endometrial hyperplasia?
Management Simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia: high dose progestogens with repeat sampling in 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may be used Atypia: hysterectomy is usually advised
495
What does fetal fibronectin mean?
High level related to early labour Give steroids incase go into labour, monitor BMs if diabetic as can mess them up
496
Vasomotor symptoms such as flushes in meopause can be treated with what?
Fluoxetine
497
Potenitally sensitising events for rhesus negative women?
Potentially sensitising events in pregnancy: - Ectopic pregnancy - Evacuation of retained products of conception and molar pregnancy - Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks, only if painful, heavy or persistent - Vaginal bleeding > 12 weeks - Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis - Antepartum haemorrhage - Abdominal trauma - External cephalic version - Intra-uterine death - Post-delivery (if baby is RhD-positive)
498
How often should HIV women be screened for HPV?
Every year Women who are HIV positive are at an increased risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer due to a decreased immune response and decreased clearance of the human papilloma virus
499
How long to carry on magnesium in pre eclampsia?
Until 24 hours after EITHER last seizure or delivery
500
Can a raised alphafeto protein suggest gastrochsis and exomphalos?
Yes
501
Asherman's syndrome?
Secondary amenorrhoea due to uterine adhesions following surgery or trauma from birth
502
What is Meig's syndrome?
The three features of Meig's syndrome are: a benign ovarian tumour ascites pleural effusion
503
Types of prolapse and the surgical options?
Types cystocele, cystourethrocele rectocele uterine prolapse less common: urethrocele, enterocele (herniation of the pouch of Douglas, including small intestine, into the vagina) Surgical options cystocele/cystourethrocele: anterior colporrhaphy, colposuspension uterine prolapse: hysterectomy, sacrohysteropexy rectocele: posterior colporrhaphy
504
VEAL CHOP?
VEAL CHOP Variable decelerations --> Cord compression Early decelerations --> Head compression Accelerations --> Okay! Late decelerations --> Placental Insufficiency
505
Can ECV be attempted in labour?
Only if amniotic sac not ruptured
506
COCP effect on cancers?
Higher risk of screening cancers- cervical and breast Lower risk of old age cancers- ovarian and endometrial
507
SSRIs in preganancy?
1st trimester- CHD 3rd trimester- persistant pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
508
Type of ultrasound for PCOS?
Pelvic ultrasound
509
How long can lochia last?
Up to 6 weeks
510
How to remember placental abruption?
ABRUPTION: A for Abruption previously; B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia); R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged; U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen); P for Polyhydramnios; T for Twins or multiple gestation; I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis; O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old); N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)
511
Potter sequence?
Cause of oligohydraminos- renal agenesis and pulmonary hypoplasia
512
Does pheytoin reduce folate levels?
Yes, phenytoin reduces folate
513
Dribbling urine after a prolonged labour?
Vesicovaginal fistula
514
Membrane rupture sepsis risk?
Prolonged rupture of the membranes >24 hours
515
Patau vs Edwards on quadruple?
Same On quadruple/combined similar to Down's but hCG lower
516
What to do with baby in Hep B mother?
Can breastfeed as doesn't go into the milk Babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who've had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin Vaccine+HBIG within 12 hours of birth Hep B vaccine 1-2 months then 6 months
517
Ovulation hormone locations?
FSH/LH- anterior pituitary Oestrogen- ovaries Proesterone- corpus luteum of ovary
518
What are the phases of the cycle?
Menstration Follicular phase Ovulatory phase Luteal phase- last 14 days FSH causes maturation of an egg Oestrogen causes lining of uterus to grow LH causes ovulation Progesterone maintains the uterus lining, inhibits both LH and FSH
519
Cells seen in bacterial vaginosis?
Clue cells
520
UTI treatment?
Trimethoprim tetarogenic 1st- nitrofurantoin (avoid near term) 2nd- amoxicillin MEN- 7 days treatment Women- 3 days
521
Russell's sign?
Calluses on knuckles or back of hand in bulimia
522
EEG benign rolandic epilepsy?
Face seizures at night Centrotemporal spikes
523
Secondary dysmenorrhoea?
Referral to gynae
524
Endometriosis treatment?
NSAIDs/Paracetamol COCP or progestogens GnRH analogues Surgery- ablation, laparoscopic excision