Observer Closed Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

True or False: The crewmember assigned to set condition 4 shall perform a visual inspection of the HSC prior to takeoff?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: When operating the MK-79 Pencil Flare, you should screw the flare on to the launcher in the cocked position and pointed in a safe direction?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False: When a fire is extinguished using HALON 1301, harmful decomposition by-products characterized by a sharp, acrid odor may be present?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In a Fire Of Unknown Origin, who obtains the aft fire bottle?

A

Station 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False: The solid state emergency oxygen pack should be used for first aid of personnel?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the indicator of revised text in NATOPS?

A

Black vertical lines in the outside margin of the page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During flight, when may the MLC be entered?

A

During extreme emergency, advise the pilot prior to entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fuel for the APU system is normally supplied from tank number ______?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the event of a ditch, who launches life raft #2?

A

Station 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the command, “Prepare to Bailout” passed?

A

Verbally AND by four short rings of the command bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are there aboard the EP-3E aircraft

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When securing the APU, after shutdown, the exhaust doors will close after a delay of approximately _______ minute(s)?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Scheduled flights of 6 cumulative hours or more require a minimum ________ hours crew rest prior to preflight.

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the ground airconditioning does not stabalize in the AUTO mode within _______ minutes, maintain the desired temperature in the MAN mode.

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For all operations, maintain cabin air temperature below _______ degrees C.

A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Once the APU has been started and electrical power is on, the operator is required to ensure positive radio contact (e.g., radio check with maintenance)

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During the APU preflight, check the air multiplier for proper oil level; add oil if the level in the sight glass is at or below the ____ mark

A

2-Jan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The maximum RPM for the GTCP-95-10 APU is ______% as this will cause the APU to automatically shut down.

A

106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The airsave minimum survival equipment remains unchanged from the SV-2B survival vest.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What door should be used for jettisoning during emergency data destruction?

A

Main Cabin Door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In some conditions, hot air from the left heat exchanger fan discharge duct may enter the air multiplier inlet causing the air multiplier duct temperature sensing switch to automatically terminate ground air conditioning. What is the correct action?

A

Turn airconditioning off, then back on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What indications are received for an APU fire on the ground?

A

Horns will sound in the cabin and flight station, and the APU fire warning lights will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the Auto mode, the program position indicator on the cabin and flight station temperature selectors may drive to full hot for _____ seconds (maximum) before stabilized temperature is observed?

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The APU fire protection system provides a visual and aural warning when the APU compartment temperature reaches _______?

A

A sufficient temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When using ground air conditioning, do not allow conditioned air duct temperature to decrease below ______ degrees C as turbine howl caused by ice formation on blade tips and water seperator icing may occur?
5
26
The circuit breakers for hydraulic pump No. 1B are located on the __________
Forward Load Center, Ground OP DC Bus
27
The circuit breakers for Transformer Rectifier No. 1 are located on the ________?
MLC, Main AC Bus A
28
How many rack overheat lights are located throughout the EP-3E aircraft (not including the master light on the pilot annunciator panel?
30
29
The APU will automatically shut down for any one of three reasons. They are APU compartment fire, loss of APU oil pressure and ________?
APU RPM overspeed in excess of 100%
30
The circuit breakers for the External Power Monitor Relay are located on the __________?
Forward Load Center, Ground OP DC Bus
31
The circuit breakers for the Fuel Flow power supply are located on the _________?
Main Load Center, Main AC Bus A
32
The airconditioning system must not be operated on full hot in the MAN mode for more than _________
1 minute
33
When performing an external preflight of the APU you are required to check the APU oil level. It is required to be serviced if the oil level is at or below _____?
1/2 mark on the lower sight gauge
34
After starting the APU you notice that it is running a little under 98% RPM. What, if anything, can be done to maintain the APU RPM within limits?
Turn on No. 2 Fuel Boost Pump
35
The circuit breakers for Run Around Relay No. 2 are _____?
Run Around feeders No. 2, 3, and 4
36
The circuit breakers for Run Around Relay No. 1 are _____?
Run Around feeder No. 2 and 4
37
The circuit breakers for Transformer Rectifier No. 2 are located on the _____?
Main Load Center, Main AC Bus B
38
The power circuit breaker(s) for hydraulic pump No. 2 are located on the _____?
Main Load Center, Main AC Bus B
39
The APU fire protection system will be disabled while testing the APU fire detectors.
TRUE
40
The power circuit breaker(s) for hydraulic pump No. 1A are located on the _____?
Main Load Center, Main AC Bus B
41
The power circuit breaker(s) for hydraulic pump No. 1 are located on the _____?
Main Load Center, Main AC Bus A
42
The APU Fire Extinguisher Safety switch, when activated, will cause the APU not to start and, if running, will shut it down; other functions of the Safety switch are?
Will not allow APU Intake and Exhaust doors to move AND Will deactivate the APU Fire Extinguishing system
43
During the APU interior preflight you should ensure that the windshield heat is off.
TRUE
44
What are the indications of a rack overheat condition on the ground?
Rack overheat lights will illuminate and a warning horn will sound in the nose wheelwell
45
Concerning an EP-3E aircraft, Condition II is titled _____?
Routine flight
46
As per NATOPS, what condition of flight is used for low altitude flight?
Condition I
47
To prevent structural damage while center point fueling, ensure that fueling pressure does not exceed _____ psi.
55
48
Headsets shall be worn during Condition I.
TRUE
49
When Condition V is set, the aircraft interior should be reasonably darkened at night.
TRUE
50
When using an anti-exposure suit, the LPU should be worn on the inside if time permits.
FALSE
51
The EP-3E is equipped with _____ emergency exit lights?
Keep hands clear of hatch, it may reseat prematurely
52
When opening an Emergency Hatch in flight, _____.
Keep hands clear of hatch, it may reseat prematurely
53
How many solid state emergency oxygen packs are located on the EP-3E aircraft?
18
54
If using a portable oxygen bottle set at 100% oxygen while performing moderate work, how long will your oxygen bottle last?
5 to 10 minutes
55
The portable oxygen bottle will provide 100% oxygen for _____ minutes when the user is experiencing little or no physical exertion?
22
56
There is/are _____ portable oxygen bottles located on the EP-3E aircraft?
3
57
The MK-79 Mod O signal kit contains _____ signal cartridges?
7
58
The night end of the MK-124 Day/Night flare can be recognized by _____?
Two raised beads around the circumference of the end
59
The definition of a "Warning", when used in the NATOPS manual, is "an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that _____ if not observed"?
May result in injury or death
60
When towing aircraft, a minimum of _____ personnel are required?
6
61
Fueling must be halted immediately if during the pressure fueling cycle any of the following occurs: Tank is overfilled, wingtank fuel spills from a wingtip , or unusual noise is accompanied by wing vibration or aircraft decking vibration.
TRUE
62
Danger from jet blast of a turning engine extends _____ feet behind the aircraft?
1500
63
The EP-3E is equipped with _____ first aid kits (not including the kits in the liferafts)?
2
64
The PRC-90 Survival Radio can transmit on 243.0 Mhz and 282.2 Mhz simultaneously.
FALSE
65
In an EP-3E aircraft the SAR bar is stowed _____?
Under the port galley seat
66
The EP-3E aircraft is equipped with _____liferafts?
Two 12-man
67
During a fire of unknown origin, who activates the Port Overwing exit light?
Station 14
68
What stations obtain fire bottles during a fire of unknown origin on an EP-3E aircraft?
8, 9, 22
69
After all personnel have evacuated the aircraft during a ditch, move all rafts out from under any part of the aircraft that might strike them as it sinks and remain in the vicinity of the aircraft as long as it stays afloat.
TRUE
70
When performing a bailout, after inflating your LPA it is mandatory to snap your lobes together.
TRUE
71
During a fire of unknown origin, who activates the Starboard Overwing exit light?
Station 12
72
During explosive decompression, indications you may receive are: hypoxia, fog, dazed sensation, rush of air from lungs, and _____?
Gas pains
73
There are _____ ditching stations on an EP-3E?
24
74
Intention to ditch and time to water impact is indicated by _____?
PA announcement
75
How is the command "execute bailout" passed?
Verbally over PA only
76
For what reasons is the cabin exhaust fan secured during a fire of unknown origin?
It reduces air circulation thereby aiding in locating the source of the fire
77
The minimum recommended altitude for an emergency bailout is _____ feet?
3000
78
Bailout should not be attempted below _____ feet?
1000
79
During a bailout, crewmembers should depart the aircraft at _____ second intervals?
1
80
After bailing out of the aircraft and pulling your ripcord, immediately following the opening shock of the canopy you should _____?
Check for proper deployment of the canopy
81
After a bailout, if over water, keep the helmet visor down.
FALSE
82
In the event of an immediate ditch, one long ring on the command bell is used in place of a PA announcement.
FALSE
83
completing the ground evaluation (open/closed book exams) for the Observer position, personnel have _____ days to complete the flight evaluation?
60
84
The word "will", when used in NATOPS, indicates _____?
Futurity
85
What is the maximum peak (for 10 seconds) for the GTCP-95-10 APU?
710 degrees C
86
What is the max peak EGT for the GTCP-95-10 APU?
732 degrees C
87
The AN/PRC-149 handheld emergency communications radio set provides two-way voice communications on what selectable frequencies?
121.5, 243.0, and 282.8 MHz
88
The liferaft painter or actuation/mooring line should be attached to _________.
The aircraft
89
The Morse Code (MCW) button on the PRC-90 is located on the _____ of the radio.
Top
90
The A/P22P-21 Parachute has a ____-foot round extended skirt canopy.
26
91
The rate of descent for the A/P22P-21 Parachute is ____ feet per second.
Less than 20 ft/sec
92
Where are the emergency cut outs for the EP-3 aircraft?
Head and Galley
93
When the portable oxygen bottles are not in use, the switches on the oxygen regulators are set to _________________.
Normal, 100%, Off
94
Normal operating RPM for the APU on the ground is ________%.
98 to 102
95
Before starting the APU, which of the following are to be removed?
Cabin Exhaust Fan plug, AOA probe cover, TAS probe cover and Pitot probe cover
96
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the No. 2 fuel tank, although it may be supplied from Tank No. 1, 3, or 4 via the crossfeed system. (Note: Tank No. 5 may not be used to supply fuel directly to the APU.)
TRUE
97
The capacity of the hydraulic power system reservoir NO.1 with the brake accumulator charged is _______ U.S. gallons
5
98
After removing the cover and mask assembly of the AVIOX solid-state emergency oxygen pack, the next step is to
Insert mask assembly line connector into outlet.
99
To start oxygen flow on the AVIOX solid-state emergency oxygen pack, the operator presses down on the exposed black
FALSE
100
The use of the high power signal beacon key on the PRC-90-2 Survival Radio depletes normal life from approximately _____ hours to _____
18, 8.5