Obstetrics Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

What is Naegele’s Rule?

A

First day of LMP + 1 year - 3 months + 7 days= Due date

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2
Q

What is fertilisation?

A

Fusion of the sperm nucleus with the ovum nucleus

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3
Q

What is the acrosome reaction?

A

The zona pellucida cell surface glycoproteins interact with the capacitated sperm cell. Calcium enters the sperm to increase intracellular cAMP. The sperm head swells and causes enzymes to be released around the sperm head. The enzymes allow the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida.

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4
Q

Give 4 risk factors for placenta praevia

A
Previous C section 
High parity 
Previous placenta praevia 
Endometrial curettage after TOP/miscarriage 
Maternal age >40 years 
Multiple pregnancy 
Hx of uterine infection
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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology of placenta praevia?

A

Placenta is attached to the lower uterine segment
Minor= low placenta but does not cover cervical os
Major= placenta lies over cervical os
The low lying placenta is more susceptible to haemorrhage and may be damaged when the fetus tries to prepare for labour.

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6
Q

Describe how placenta praevia presents?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding which may increase in severity and intensity over several weeks

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7
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed via US scan at 20 weeks

A low lying placenta in early pregnancy does not always become placenta praevia as when the uterus grows it can bring the placenta up

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8
Q

If a patient is actively bleeding with placenta praevia what investigations should be done?

A
FBC
Clotting 
Group and Save 
Crossmatch 
U+Es
LFTs
CTG
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9
Q

If minor placenta praevia is found on the 20 week USS what is the management?

A

Repeat scan at 36 weeks

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10
Q

If major placenta praevia is found on the 20 week USS, what is the management?

A

Repeat scan at 32 weeks

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11
Q

If a patient is actively bleeding with placenta praevia, how should they be managed?

A

A-E approach
Admit
Anti-D given to Rh neg patients
Steroids if >34 weeks

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12
Q

How is a woman with confirmed placenta praevia managed?

A

Elective C-section at 39 weeks

High risk of intraoperative or postpartum haemorrhage

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13
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall but does not extend into the myometrium

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14
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

Placenta attached deep into the uterine wall and stretches into the myometrium

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15
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

Placenta penetrates through the entire wall and attaches to another organ eg. bladder

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16
Q

Give 2 risk factors for placenta accreta

A

Placenta praevia

Previous C-section

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17
Q

Give 3 clinical features of placenta accreta

A

Bleeding in T3
Premature delivery
Placenta doesn’t detach fully after birth leading to PPH

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18
Q

How is placenta accreta managed?

A

Elective C-section +/- hysterectomy

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19
Q

Give 5 predisposing factors for placental abruption

A
Placental abruption in previous pregnancy 
Pre-eclampsia 
Transverse lie of fetus 
Polyhydramnios
Abdominal trauma 
Smoking 
Bleeding in T1
Thrombophilias 
Multiple pregnancy 
IUGR
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20
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a placental abruption?

A

Part or all of the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely. The vessels in the basal layer of the endometrium rupture. Blood accumulates and splits the placental attachment from the basal layer. The detached placenta can no longer function.

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21
Q

What is the difference between a revealed and a concealed placental abruption?

A

Revealed= bleeding tracks downwards and drains via cervix so presents with bleeding

Concealed= bleeding remains in uterus and forms a clot. No PV bleed but symptoms of shock

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22
Q

Give 5 clinical features of placental abruption

A
Painful PV bleed 
Constant pain 
Dark blood 
Tender, hard uterus 
Signs of shock: tachycardia, hypotension 
Abnormal/absent fetal heart sounds
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23
Q

What investigations can be done for a patient with placental abruption?

A
CTG 
FBC
Clotting 
G+S
Cross match 
U+Es
LFTs
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24
Q

How is an unstable placental abruption managed?

A
A-E assessment
Admit
Steroids if <34 weeks
Analgesia (opiates) 
Anti-D to Rhesus neg 
Fluids
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25
How is a stable placental abruption managed?
Steroids if <34 weeks US to monitor growth Plan delivery: - Fetal distress= urgent C-section - No fetal distress= IOL via amniotomy at 37 weeks - Stillborn= Give blood, induce labour
26
Give 4 risk factors for vasa praevia
``` Placenta praevia Multiple pregnancy Abnormal placenta shape IVF pregnancy Hx of uterine surgery Previous C-section ```
27
What is vasa praevia?
Umbilical cord attached to membranes of placenta rather than directly into it. This weakens the cord.
28
Give 2 symptoms of vasa praevia
Painless vaginal bleeding in T2/3 | Severe fetal distress- can result in organ failure and death
29
How is vasa praevia diagnosed?
Can be seen on 20 week Doppler Ultrasound
30
How is vasa praevia managed?
Elective C-section at 39 weeks | Increased monitoring throughout pregnancy
31
What weeks are covered by Trimester 1?
0-13
32
What weeks are covered by Trimester 2?
13-27
33
What weeks are covered by Trimester 3?
27-42
34
At what age is the age of gestational viability?
24 weeks
35
Give 4 symptoms of early pregnancy
``` Missed period Nausea and vomiting Fatigue Sore breasts Polyuria Altered taste and smell ```
36
What symptoms can be felt in early T2?
``` Thin white vaginal discharge Backache 5-7kg weight gain Small bump visible Breast enlargement ```
37
When should fetal movements be felt?
18-20 weeks
38
What symptoms may be felt in late T2?
Swollen hands, face and feet Backache Urinary stress incontinence
39
What symptoms may be experienced in T3 of pregnancy?
``` Weight gain Large bump Heartburn Swollen ankles Short of breath Braxton-Hicks contractions ```
40
What supplements can be started pre-conceptually to aid pregnancy?
``` Folic acid- 0.4mg/day Vitamin D- 10 micrograms per day Iron Vitamin C Calcium ```
41
What screening are diabetic mothers offered preconceptually?
Diabetic retinopathy screening
42
When does the booking visit occur?
10 weeks
43
Give 10 things discussed/done at the 10 week booking visit
Sickle cell and thalassaemia screen Height and weight- for BMI and personalised fetal growth chart Urine sample- check for infection/protein Blood pressure Bloods- FBC, U+Es Screening for HIV, syphilis and Hepatitis B Screening for rubella Blood group and rhesus status Diabetes screen Lifestyle advice- stop smoking, good diet, gentle exercise, folate, vit D, no alcohol, antenatal classes, ask about domestic violence, leaflet about pregnancy
44
Give 5 factors which make a woman more likely to develop diabetes in pregnancy
``` High BMI (>30) Previous gestational diabetes Previous baby >4.5kg Close family history of diabetes Asian, Black or Middle Eastern ```
45
What measurement is used to date a pregnancy?
Crown-rump length
46
At how many weeks is the dating scan done?
12 weeks
47
When can a multiple pregnancy first be picked up?
12 week scan
48
What is the nuchal transleucency and what does it suggest?
Nuchal transleucency is the sonographic appearance of fluid under the skin behind the fetal neck. The NT thickness will be increased in fetal anomalies
49
What are the 3 components of the Combined Test and what does it test for?
Nuchal translucency PAPP-A free beta-hCG Calculates the risk of the baby having Down's syndrome (T21), Edward's (T18) or Patau's (T13)
50
What does a low risk combined test score mean?
< 1 in 150 chance that the baby will have having Down's syndrome (T21), Edward's (T18) or Patau's (T13)
51
What does a high risk combined test score mean?
>1 in 150 chance that the fetus will have Down's syndrome (T21), Edward's (T18) or Patau's (T13)
52
When is a quadruple test done instead of the combined test?
>14 weeks into pregnancy | NT too hard to visualise on ultrasound
53
What 4 elements are part of the quadruple test?
AFP hCG Estriol Inhibin-A
54
What does the quadruple test look for?
Down's syndrome (T21)
55
If a high risk score is given on the combined or quadruple test, what further investigations can be done to confirm the diagnosis?
Chorionic villus sampling- small sample of cells taken from the placenta using a transabdominal needle or transcervical forceps. 1% chance of miscarriage Amniocentesis- sample of cells from amniotic fluid taken via transabdominal US guided needle. 1% risk of miscarriage.
56
When is the fetal anomaly scan carried out?
20 weeks
57
Give 5 examples of things that are looked for on the fetal anomaly scan
``` Anencephaly Open spina bifida Cleft lip Serious cardiac issues Lethal skeletal dysplasia Patau's (T13) Edward's (T18) Diaphragmatic hernia Gastroschisis Exomphalos Bilateral renal agenesis Physical abnormalities- bones, heart, brain, spinal cord, face, kidneys, abdomen ```
58
What routine tests are done at every antenatal appointment?
BP and urine dip Symphysis-fundal height done at 24 weeks After 36 weeks assess fetal presentation + US if unsure
59
Give 6 risk factors for preeclampsia
``` Nulliparity Maternal age >40 Maternal BMI >35 Pregnancy interval >10 years FHx of preeclampsia Multiple pregnancy Chronic hypertension Preeclampsia or HTN in previous pregnancy Chronic kidney disease Diabetes mellitus Autoimmune diseases eg. SLE ```
60
What is the suggested pathophysiology of preeclampsia?
Poor placental perfusion Remodelling of the spiral arteries is incomplete so the uteroplacental circulation is high resistance and low flow. This causes an increase in BP and oxidative stress which results in a systemic inflammatory response and endothelial cell dysfunction in the kidney resulting in proteinuria.
61
What are the 3 diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia?
Hypertension >140/90 >20 weeks gestation ++ proteinuria
62
Give 4 symptoms of preeclampsia
``` Headache Visual disturbance Vomiting Epigastric pain/tenderness Hyperreflexia Ankle oedema ```
63
What is the BP range in mild preeclampsia?
140/90 to 149/99
64
What is the BP range for moderate preeclampsia?
150/100 to 159/109
65
What is the BP range for severe preeclampsia?
160/110 or higher Or BP >140/90 + symptoms
66
Give 5 potential complications from preeclampsia
``` Cerebrovascular event IUGR Prematurity Placental abruption Fetal death Eclampsia Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome Pulmonary oedema Renal failure (AKI) Increased risk of DIC Maternal death HELLP syndrome ```
67
What is HELLP syndrome?
Syndrome seen in patients with preeclampsia Haemolysis Elevated Liver enzymes Low platelets
68
How is HELLP syndrome treated?
Blood transfusion for anaemia Continuous fetal monitoring Reduce BP Magnesium sulphate to reduce seizures
69
Apart from BP and urine dip what other investigations can be done in preeclampsia?
FBC- anaemia U+Es- AKI LFTs- increased ALT and AST
70
How is mild preeclampsia monitored?
BP and urine dip every week | US every 2-4 weeks
71
When should a patient be admitted with preeclampsia?
``` Symptoms present BP >160/110 Proteinuria >0.3g/24hr on 24hr collection IUGR Abnormal CTG ```
72
How is preeclampsia managed?
Anti-hypertensives: - Labetalol - Nifedipine - Methyldopa VTE prophylaxis- LMWH Plan delivery- deliver by 36 weeks, will need maternal steroid course. Continuous CTG monitoring in vaginal birth. C-section if IUGR or abnormal CTG Managed 3rd stage of labour- Oxytocin
73
Give 3 side effects of Labetalol and when it might be contraindicated?
S/E= leg oedema, SOB, bradycardia, chest pain, N+V, fatigue CI= asthma, cardiac failure, heart block
74
Give 3 side effects of Nifedipine and when it might be contraindicated?
S/E= dizziness, GI disturbance, oedema, headache CI= angina, Hx of MI, aortic stenosis, diabets
75
Give 3 side effects of Methyldopa and when it might be contraindicated?
S/E= fatigue, drowsiness, weakness, N+V CI= heart failure, angina, kidney disease Need to stop within 2 days of giving birth
76
What is Rhesus D red cell isoimmunisation?
Rh+ Fetal RBCs enter the mother's circulation via a 'sensitising event' or during delivery and if the mother is Rh-, maternal antibodies are formed against the fetal erythrocytes. In subsequent pregnancies the maternal anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetal RBCs which results in fetal haemolytic anaemia.
77
How is red cell isoimmunisation prevented in pregnancy?
Women have maternal blood group typing and antibody screen performed at booking (10 weeks) Repeated at 28 weeks If mother is Rh-, fetus genotype can be assessed via father's blood or free fetal DNA in mother's blood. If a mother is Rh- and a sensitising event occurs, she is offered Anti-D immunoglobulin. This binds to any RhD+ cells in the maternal circulation so no immune response is stimulated.
78
Give examples of 5 potential sensitising events
``` Invasive obstructive testing Antepartum haemorrhage Ectopic pregnancy Fall/abdo trauma Intrauterine death Miscarriage TOP Delivery- any kind ```
79
What is the Kleihauer/FMH test?
Assesses how much fetal blood has entered the maternal circulation after a sensitising event. This can be done to work out the dose of anti-D needed. Only done at >20 weeks
80
At <12 weeks what is the required dose of anti-D after a sensitising event?
250 IU within 72 hours
81
At 12-20 weeks what is the required dose of anti-D after a sensitising event?
250 IU within 72 hours
82
At >20 weeks what is the required dose of anti-D after a sensitising event?
500 IU within 72 hours and increase higher if the Kleihauer test suggests.
83
If a woman is Rh negative, when will she be given anti-D?
Any sensitising event in the pregnancy 28 weeks (500 IU) 34 weeks (500 IU) Post-nataly (if baby confirmed as Rh+) (500 IU)
84
How is fetal haemolytic anaemia investigated prenatally?
Doppler US of the peak velocity of the fetal middle cerebral artery Fetal blood sampling under US guidance Severe anaemia= fetal hydrops, excessive fetal fluid
85
How is fetal haemolytic anaemia treated prenatally?
Intrauterine blood transfusion to fetus
86
What is the most common virus transmitted to the fetus in pregnancy?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
87
Give 4 effects of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) on the fetus?
``` IUGR Hepatosplenomegaly Thrombocytopenic purpura Jaundice Microcephaly Pneumonia Sensorineural hearing loss Visual impairment Risk of DIC ```
88
How is Cytomegalovirus (CMV) diagnosed in pregnancy?
Mother: Viral serology for CMV specific IgM and IgG Fetus: US scan at 20 weeks, amniocentesis >21 weeks to confirm
89
How is Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in pregnancy managed?
Offer TOP | Serial US scanning to look for abnormalities
90
How does rubella in pregnancy present in the mother, neonate and older child?
Mother= asymptomatic, fine maculopapular rash, coryza, malaise, lymphadenopathy, headache Neonate= sensorineural deafness, PDA, pulmonary stenosis, VSD, retinopathy, cataracts, microcephaly Infant= diabetes, GH abnormalities, thyroiditis, behavioural disorders, learning difficulties
91
How is a rubella infection in pregnancy managed?
Gestational age at exposure to rubella infection: <12 weeks= TOP 12-20 weeks= amniocentesis diagnosis, TOP or US surveillance >20 weeks= no action required
92
What are the maternal symptoms of Varicella Zoster infection in pregnancy?
Pruritic maculopapular rash Fever Malaise
93
What are the symptoms of Varicella Zoster infection in a fetus <20 weeks old?
Dermatomal skin scarring Eye defects= optic atrophy, cataracts Hypoplasia of limbs Neurological abnormalities= microcephaly, seizures, Horner's, spinal cord atrophy
94
How is a Varicella Zoster infection in pregnancy managed?
Varicella zoster immunoglobulin within 10 days of potential infection if not already immune If suffering from chickenpox= Aciclovir
95
What are the effects to the fetus in maternal Parvovirus B19 in pregnancy?
Fetal hydrops= virus replicates in liver and bone marrow causing severe anaemia which results in cardiac failure and portal hypertension and hypoprolactinaemia
96
How is Parvovirus in pregnancy treated?
Serial US and dopplers every 1-2 weeks until 30 weeks. In a tertiary center an intrauterine erythrocyte transfusion can be done
97
Give 4 risk factors for Group B strep infection in neonates
``` Prematurity <37 weeks GBS in previous baby Rupture of membranes >24hrs before delivery Pyrexia during labour Positive GBS in mother ```
98
What 3 infections does Group B Streptococcus cause in the mother?
UTI Chorioamnionitis Endometritis
99
How does a Group B Streptococcus infection present in a neonate?
Sepsis | Pyrexial, cyanosis, floppy, poor breathing, poor feeding
100
How is Group B Streptococcus diagnosed in pregnancy?
High vaginal swab Anal awab Urine testing if UTI symptoms Not routinely screened for in the UK
101
How is Group B Streptococcus colonisation managed in pregnancy?
If any risk factors are present, maternal high dose penicillins given throughout vaginal labour.