OCR Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
define ‘radar identification’
A
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen
on a radar display and positively identified by the air traffic controller.
2
Q
define ‘radar position symbol’
A
The visual indication, in symbolic form, on a radar display, of the position of an aircraft obtained after automatic processing of positional data derived from primary and/or secondary surveillance radar
3
Q
Provided safety is not jeopardised, how shall traffic priorities be applied?
A
• an aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency or impaired operation has priority over
all other aircraft; and
• an aircraft landing, or in the final stages of an approach to land, has priority over a departing
aircraft; and
• an aircraft landing or taking off has priority over taxiing aircraft.
4
Q
Define ‘coordination’
A
Coordination is the process of negotiation between two or more parties that results in an agreed course of action. To ensure a common understanding and continuity in the provision of an air traffic service to aircraft concerned, coordination shall be carried out between affected sectors/units for all IFR and controlled VFR flights, with agreement being reached on:
- clearances/instructions, as appropriate;
- estimate messages;
- information estimate messages;
- transfers of control;
- revisions to the significant point or level contained in an estimate message;
- approval requests;
- advice or information to be issued to aircraft.
4
Q
Where practical and following a request from a pilot aircraft involved in or positioning for what form of activities shall be granted priority?
A
- ambulance or mercy missions; and
- search and rescue; and
- civil defence or police emergencies; and
- carriage of heads-of-state, heads-of-government, or equivalent dignitaries.
5
Q
State the methods by which coordination may be achieved
A
- direct two-way negotiation and agreement for individual flights, either verbally or electronically; or
- agreements specified in LOA/LUO. These may include the use of appropriate functions of the ATM system (e.g. XNote) provided that their use is clearly documented in LOA/LUO; or
- use of SkyLine for specific coordination:
- using IFL in the datablock for aircraft under radar control and the IFL is below the coordinated level between sectors; or
- where documented in LOA/LUO, VIS key function when an aircraft requests and is cleared for a visual approach, and instructions are issued to the aircraft that includes tracking to an agreed distance on final coincident with the advertised approach and a descent restriction at least 500 ft above upper level of aerodrome area of responsibility
6
Q
What is the time criteria for passing an estimate between and oceanic sector and an area sector for arriving and departing flights?
A
20 minutes
7
Q
List the elements of an estimate message
A
- “ESTIMATE
- (aircraft callsign)
- (departure/set heading time . . . minutes only), for domestic to oceanic flights only
- (significant point), NA V AID, REP , aerodrome, etc.
- (ETO next REP or ETA at DEST), whichever is applicable
- (level) or
CLIMBING TO (level) or
(level) DESCENDING TO (level) - (type of approach [and route if required]), area/approach to aerodrome
- (other information, if necessary and not passed by an FDP)”, e.g. routing requests.
8
Q
Within the radar environment, what is the criteria for revising the level information contained in an estimate message?
A
When the CPL or estimate has been passed to the next sector, the next sector shall be advised of any change to the coordinated level, except where specified in LUO/LOA
9
Q
What shall an accepting controller do in response to an estimate message received in sufficient time to meet the coordination time criteria?
A
- if no objection is raised, be understood to have accepted the transfer of control in accordance with LOA/LUO or the terms offered; or
- indicate any required amendments, including a change of cruising level or route if the level offered is below the MSA for the route sector or the minimum level above SUA within the accepting controller’s area of responsibility; and
- if necessary, specify any other information or clearance applicable at the transfer of control point.
10
Q
When shall an information estimate be passed?
A
when an aircraft will pass within the specified distance of a contiguous airspace boundary, but transfer of control or RTF will not be effected
11
Q
During coordination it may be necessary to specify or confirm who is providing separation between flight. What phraseology is used in this situation?
A
“YOUR SEPARATION (callsign of traffic from which separation is required)”
“MY SEPARATION (callsign of conflicting traffic)” may be used in response to “YOUR
SEPARATION”, or to further identify who is providing the separation
12
Q
Provide an example of the phraseology used to request an early release of an aircraft?
A
“MAY I ASSUME CONTROL OF (callsign)”; or
“REQUEST RELEASE OF (callsign)”
13
Q
Following early release of an aircraft, when is an accepting controller required to verbally coordinate with the previous controller?
A
prior to climbing an arriving aircraft, descending a departing aircraft or instructing an aircraft to hold while the aircraft is still in the transferring controller’s airspace
14
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring an aircraft established radio contact with the next controller and what guidance is provided for making initial enquiries as to the whereabouts of the aircraft?
A
The accepting controller. Initial enquires as to the whereabouts of the aircraft shall be commenced not later than three minutes after the anticipated time of contact.
15
Q
When may an ATC clearance be denied or withheld?
A
- for traffic reasons, when ATC cannot accommodate traffic additional to that already accepted due to traffic congestion, limitations of equipment, procedures, weather or environmental conditions, emergencies and other similar factors; or
- when instructed by the General Manager Air Traffic Services provided that:
- a clearance shall not be withheld unless the aircraft is on the ground and the clearance is for entry onto the manoeuvring area.
- a normal ATC service shall be provided for any aircraft entering the manoeuvring area without an ATC clearance.
16
Q
Where direct communications cannot be established certain agencies are permitted to relay ATC clearances. Give 4 examples of a relaying agency
A
- an operating position at the same unit;
- another ATS unit;
- an air-ground station; or
- another aircraft.
17
Q
State the objectives of instructions contained in a clearance to an IFR flight
A
- provide separation:
- where prescribed, between the aircraft concerned and other controlled flights; and
- from SUA and GAA as required by RAC5; and
- enable the flight to comply with the promulgated procedures for IFR flights published in the AIPNZ; and
- conform with the terms for acceptance of control by the next controlling authority; and
- conform, where possible, with the details requested in the flight plan and the Air Traffic
Management route requirements as specified in the AIPNZ; and - where the aircraft has flight planned for flight within controlled airspace, enable the aircraft to remain within controlled airspace, unless applying the criteria for direct routing on unevaluated routes.
If a clearance would involve a significant delay, a pilot may be offered an alternative which would take the aircraft out of controlled airspace, provided that:- the pilot is advised that the clearance will take the aircraft outside controlled airspace; and
- the pilot confirms acceptance of the clearance.
18
Q
What elements should an ATC clearance issued to an IFR aircraft to operate enroute contain?
A
- Aircraft identification as shown on the flight plan, and
- If appropriate, notification and reason for unavailability of requested route and/or cruising level,
and - Authorisation to operate in controlled airspace in accordance with instructions issued, and
- Clearance limit, and
- Route instructions, and
- Level instructions, and
- Any other instructions or information as required, i.e.
- departure and diversionary climb instructions;
- oceanic transition
- separation or reporting instructions;
- SSR code allocation;
- any special information;
- frequency change instructions;
- release instructions;
- delivery instructions.
19
Q
What phraseology shall be used when it is not possible to clear a flight via the flight planned route or cruising level?
A
“(route and/or level) NOT AVAILABLE DUE (reason) [ALTERNATIVE(S) IS/ARE (route(s) and/or level(s)) ADVISE]”
20
Q
State the Clearance Limit for an IFR flight
A
The clearance limit shall be the aerodrome of first intended landing, a significant point or an airspace boundary.
Where a pilot intends to carry out an instrument approach at more than one aerodrome, the clearance limit shall be the aerodrome at which the first instrument approach is to be flown.
Where the pilot intends to operate in an operating area such as a MOA, the clearance limit shall be specified as the operating area or other suitable point.
When an aircraft intends to leave controlled airspace, or leave and subsequently re-enter the same or other controlled airspace on the same continuous route, the clearance limit shall be the aerodrome of first intended landing. Such a clearance or revisions to it shall apply only to those portions that are conducted in controlled airspace. Traffic information shall be provided for the portion outside controlled airspace.
21
Q
Name eight ways in which the ‘IFR route to be followed’ can be described
A
by using a standard route clearance and the runway-in-use at destination; or
• by using a standard route clearance and the runway-in-use at a controlled aerodrome adjacent to the aerodrome of departure or destination or
• by using a standard route clearance and the arrival procedure at aerodrome of destination; or
• by using the arrival procedure for the aerodrome of destination provided that the arrival procedure commences at or adjacent to the aerodrome of departure; or
• by using a standard route clearance; or
• by using the word “VIA” followed by a detailed description of the route, using reporting points and/or ATS routes; or
• by using the phrase “VIA FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE”, to describe the route (as filed by the pilot/company) which is detailed in the flight plan, or
• by using the word “VIA” followed by a detailed description of the route, using reporting points and /or ATS routes, up to and including the point at which the flight is to rejoin the route in the flight plan, followed by the phrase “THEN FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE”
22
Q
What restrictions apply to the use of the term “VIA FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE” when describing the IFR route to be followed?
A
The phrase “VIA FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE” shall not be used when the flight plan has been annotated with “RDR” in the RMK field.
Domestically, the use of the term “FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE” should be avoided if at all possible. Its use should be limited to:
• oceanic flights; or
• flights where the route is identified with latitudes and longitudes; or
• flights with a long or complicated route field.
23
Q
What procedures shall apply where an aircraft wishes to fly IFR on an unevaluated route through airspace in which an ATC clearance is required?
A
Within controlled airspace, when traffic permits, an IFR aircraft may be cleared on an unevaluated route direct to a navigation aid, reporting point, significant point, or specified fix (for pilot interpreted intercept of an instrument approach) subject to the following conditions:
- the pilot requests the direct routing, or agrees to a controller proposal; and
- the pilot is responsible for navigation unless being radar vectored; and
- separation, including from SUA, GAA and parachuting, is provided where appropriate; and
- irrespective of any strip posting which has or has yet to take place, direct routing or any deviation which affects the next and subsequent sectors requires coordination: either;
- verbally; or
- by agreement in LUO/LOA; and
- when under radar control, the track and distance of the direct route is passed to the pilot when
considered necessary; and
- when under radar control but under their own navigation, the controller shall monitor the track and
inform the pilot whenever a deviation greater than 5 NM from track is observed; and
- when direct routing to a fix for a pilot intercept of an RNAV (GNSS) approach, the specified fix
shall be no later than the fix prior to:
- the final approach fix (FAF);or
- the final approach point (FAP);and
- when direct routing to a fix for a pilot intercept of an RNAV (RNP) approach, the specified fix shall be no later than the fix prior to the final approach (FAF), and this fix must not be on or at the start of a constant radius arc to a fix (RF) leg; and
- when direct routing to a fix on an instrument approach the aircraft must be able to intercept the VPA or GP at an altitude that will enable normal descent on the approach from the intercept point.
Within controlled airspace, the controller is responsible for obstacle clearance which can be based on:
- radar terrain when under radar control; or
- at or above 13 000 ft (FL160 in the Mt Cook Raised Transition Area); or
- an approved area MSA.
24
What do the level instructions in an ATC clearance to an IFR flight achieve?
Cruising levels, including intermediate levels, issued to an IFR flight shall enable the flight to be conducted at or above:
- On an evaluated route, the Minimum Flight Altitude (MFA) for the applicable route sector(s), except that:
- if the aircraft is GNSS approved, compliance with MFA, MRA or MEA is not required except that the aircraft must be at or above danger, restricted or military operating area upper limit; or
- if the aircraft is under radar control, or will be under radar control on departure, the flight may be conducted at or above the level(s) indicated on the radar terrain map; or
- if the aircraft is expected to be established under radar control en-route, at or above 13 000 ft or approved area MSA.
- On an unevaluated route:
- the level(s) indicated on the radar terrain map provided the aircraft is under radar control or will be under radar control on departure; or
- at or above 13 000 ft or approved area MSA.
25
State the rules associated with the use of Non-Standard levels
Prior to the aircraft reaching the boundary of an ATS sector, verbal approval shall be obtained from the subsequent sector/unit for the flight to continue at the non-standard level.
Aircraft at standard flight levels should be afforded priority over aircraft using non-standard flight levels.
When clearing a controlled flight at a non-standard level, the words "NON-STANDARD" shall prefix the level except for departing oceanic flights that are cleared at a correct level for oceanic flight in accordance with the Level Instructions above.
26
What level should be inserted into the CFL of a VFR flight plan?
- In controlled airspace where the VFR is subject to level restrictions, the cleared level; or
- In controlled airspace where the VFR is not subject to level restrictions, or in uncontrolled airspace, 000.
27
Where an aircraft is to hold in a published holding pattern, name the elements that make up the clearance for the aircraft to hold
- instructions to join the holding pattern;
- identification of the holding pattern;
- level instructions (at or above the minimum holding level);
- maximum holding speed if required (e.g. for lateral separation or terrain).
28
What should the minimum level be when instructing an aircraft to hold in a non-published holding pattern?
- at or above 13 000 ft (FL160 in the Mount Cook Raised Transition Area); or
- for aircraft under surveillance control, at or above the minimum terrain contour levels displayed on the Situation Display. Allowance must be made for the navigation tolerance within the holding pattern. This is not permitted using Tower Situation Displays; or
- for aircraft holding relative to or between prominent landmarks or visual reporting points, by visual reference to terrain, provided it is at pilot’s request and by day.
29
List the air traffic procedures that apply to flights departing from within the NZ FIR to operate in the Auckland Oceanic FIR
- Any advice that an aircraft cannot meet the Required Navigation Performance (RNP) or Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) requirements shall be passed to the oceanic sector.
- Verbal coordination with the Oceanic Sector is not required for the issue of a route clearance. Except that:
- Verbal coordination with the Oceanic Sector shall be carried out following a pilot request for a:
- level other than that indicated in the flight plan CFL field.
- block level clearance.
- weather deviation.
- Route clearances shall be issued at the last acknowledged RFL except at aerodromes where level requirements are specified in LUO/LOA.
- An intermediate departure level may be inserted in the IFL field of the flight plan .
- The last Area Sector shall ensure the aircraft is level at the approved CFL, or, for flights with block level clearances, within the-coordinated block of levels, prior to entering the Auckland Oceanic FIR, unless coordinated otherwise.
30
With respect to parachute operations, what separation should be applied within Class C and D airspace?
- IFR flights shall be kept clear of an active PDA or PDS unless visual separation can be applied.
- Traffic information shall be passed to known VFR flights in respect to PDA, except that VFR aircraft shall be kept clear of a PDA when a clearance to drop through cloud has been given.
- VFR aircraft shall be kept clear of an active PDS unless visual separation can be applied.
31
What is a controllers responsibility when advised that a controlled flight is manoeuvring in response to an RA?
After being informed that an aircraft is responding to an RA, the controller shall pass essential traffic information or traffic information (as applicable) to the aircraft reporting the RA and to all other aircraft that may be affected by the manoeuvre. Control instructions shall not be issued to the aircraft responding to an RA or to any other aircraft involved with the RA event as this may interfere with the resolution action planned by the ACAS.
Once an aircraft has begun a manoeuvre in response to an RA, the controller is not responsible for providing separation between the aircraft that is responding to an RA and any other aircraft, airspace, terrain or obstructions.
When a pilot advises "Clear of conflict" but the traffic situation is such that separation is still in jeopardy, the controller shall make every endeavour to restore separation and an orderly traffic flow as soon as possible.
The controller's responsibility for separation resumes from the time that separation is re-established between all aircraft involved with the manoeuvre associated with the RA.
32
When alternative methods of separation are available, which should you select?
select the least restrictive, compatible with workload and the overall traffic situation
33
When arranging separation what allowances shall be taken into account?
allowance shall be made for the time involved in the compilation and transmission of clearances
34
What action must a controller take when the separation or minimum between aircraft cannot be maintained?
another type of separation or another minimum shall be established prior to the time when the current separation minimum would be infringed
35
Where flights are required to be separated, how shall this be achieved?
by the application of vertical, horizontal or visual separation:
- Vertical separation is achieved by requiring aircraft using prescribed altimeter setting procedures to operate at levels that are separated by a specified minimum.
- Horizontal separation is achieved by applying longitudinal, lateral, geographical or radar separation.
- Visual separation is achieved by the sighting of aircraft and the application of procedures described in this section.
36
List the seven examples provided in MATS where increased separation should be applied
- requested by a pilot or considered necessary by the controller; or
- a pilot reports severe turbulence or mountain wave activity or the aircraft is known to be entering an area of severe turbulence or mountain wave activity; or
- the navigational accuracy of an aircraft may be impaired; or
- failure of a navigational aid reduces the capacity for frequent determination of position and speed; or
- an aircraft is experiencing communications failure; or
- an aircraft's performance is abnormal; or
- an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference.
37
According to MATS, under what circumstances may separation be reduced?
- when visual (including composite visual) separation is applied; or
- when military separation is being applied, see “Reduction of separation to military aircraft”; or
- between aircraft in formation, providing prior notice of the formation flight has been given to ATC, or the formation flight consists of an aircraft in distress and its escort.
38
State the elements essential traffic information shall include
- The words "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"
- Direction of flight
- Type of aircraft
- Level information
- Position information.
39
Is the NZ Domestic FIR designated as RVSM airspace? If so between what flight levels?
Yes between F290 and F410 inclusive
40
State the guidance provided by MATS with regard to priority for level allocation within the RVSM stratum
RVSM approved aircraft shall have priority for level allocation over non-RVSM approved aircraft within the RVSM stratum. A non-RVSM State aircraft (military, customs or police service) shall be afforded the same priority within the RVSM stratum as an RVSM approved aircraft.
41
Detail the 3 occasions where non-RVSM civil aircraft may flight plan with the intention of operating in or transiting through the RVSM stratum
An aircraft that is:
- is being delivered for initial acceptance, change of ownership, or lease; or
- was formerly RVSM approved but has experienced an equipment failure and is being flown to a maintenance facility for repair to meet RVSM requirements and/or obtain approval, or is transporting externally a spare engine or strut assembly; or
- is being utilised for mercy or humanitarian purposes.
42
When is a revised Non-RVSM clearance required to be issued to an aircraft operating within the RVSM stratum?
An aircraft that advises:
• encountering weather turbulence that affects the aircraft's capability to maintain the CFL; or
• encountering wake turbulence; or
• experiencing distracting aircraft system alerts.
43
What phraseology should be used to verbally supplement an automates EST message exchange which does not automatically transfer item 18 flight plan information regarding non-RVSM?
NEGATIVE RVSM or NEGATIVE RVSM STATE AIRCRAFT
44
How shall and aircraft operator indicate that the appropriate state authority has approved the aircraft for RVSM operations?
The letter 'W' in field 10 (equipment) of the flight plan
45
How may longitudinal separation based on time be established?
by requiring aircraft to:
- depart at a specified time; or
- lose or gain time to arrive over a location at a specified time; or
- hold over a location until a specified time.
46
Name the various longitudinal separations based on time that may be applied between two aircraft at the same level on the same track
- OCAT15
- MNT
- T10
- T5 +20
- T3 +40
47
What is the application of longitudinal separation based on distance subject to?
- direct controller/pilot VHF voice communication being maintained; and
- the aircraft are flying either directly inbound to or directly outbound from the same DME station and/or collocated waypoint, or the same waypoint; and
- when applying these separation minima between any aircraft with area navigation capability, controllers shall specifically request GNSS derived distance; and
- the aircraft to which a GNSS distance is being applied specifies "G" in item 10 of the flight plan.
48
State the altitude/flight level restrictions placed on the used of D20 and D10 separations when applying longitudinal separations based on DME distance
- D20 separations are valid for any altitude/flight level;
- D10 separations are valid up to and including FL290, provided that both aircraft are on the same
side of a DME station;
- D10 separations are valid up to and including FL150 when aircraft are on opposite sides of a DME station.
49
What is the minimum longitudinal separation based on distance between aircraft at the same level on the same track?
- D20
| - D10 +20
50
What is the minimum longitudinal separation based on distance between aircraft climbing and descending on the same track?
- D20
- D10 +20
- D10 prior
51
What is the minimum longitudinal separation based on distance between aircraft climbing and descending on reciprocal tracks?
D10
52
Under what circumstances is the application of longitudinal separation based on distance not required between aircraft climbing and descending on reciprocal tracks?
- both aircraft having reported crossing a common ground-based navigation aid; or
- T1 after the second aircraft has reported crossing a common significant point; or
- mutual sighting, provided that there is no possibility of incorrect identification; or
- another separation standard.
53
What is the distance based wake turbulence minima for aircraft following or crossing behind an A388 not vertically separated?
a) Non A388 heavy b) medium c) light
a) 6NM b) 7NM c) 8NM
54
State the separation standards to be applied between an aircraft dumping fuel and other controlled flights
From the commencement of dumping until fifteen minutes after completion, at least:
- 10NM horizontally from, but not behind, the aircraft dumping fuel; or
- if behind the aircraft dumping fuel within 15 minutes flying time or a distance of 50 NM,
- 1000ft vertically above (2000ft above FL290); or
- 3000ft vertically below.
55
When may an area radar controller apply visual separation beyond the vicinity of an aerodrome?
In class C and D airspaces, vertical or horizontal separation standards may be reduced by an approach or area controller applying visual separation during the hours of daylight provided that:
- a specific request is made by a pilot, and
- each aircraft is under the control of the same operating position, or physically adjacent operating
positions, provided both controllers agree, and
- there is no possibility of incorrect identification.
56
What is the horizontal and vertical separation criteria between controlled flights and:
a) restricted, danger or military operating areas for aircraft activity in IMC & SVFR
b) military operating areas for aircraft activity in VMC
a) 1000ft or 2000ft above F290, 5NM
| b) 500ft or 1000ft above F290, 2NM
57
State the radar services which may be provided by a radar controller to identified aircraft
- Radar control service to IFR and VFR flights within controlled airspace; and
- Radar flight information service to all aircraft as far as is practicable.
58
What limiting factors should be taken into account when determining the number of aircraft that can be handled safely?
- the structural complexity of the control area or sector concerned;
- the radar functions to be performed within the control area or sector concerned;
- assessments of controller workloads and sector capacity;
- limitations in radar coverage;
- the degree of technical reliability and availability of the main and back-up radar and communication systems; and
- the possibility of a radar equipment failure or other emergency that would eventually require reverting to back-up facilities and/or non-radar separation.
59
State the actions a radar controller should take in the event of a complete radar failure
the radar controller shall advise all aircraft concerned and,
- establish non-radar separation, and
- ensure that terrain clearance is maintained, and
- establish aircraft under their own navigation, and
- limit or prohibit aircraft entering the sector
60
What indication is displayed on skyline if a duplicate SSR code is recognised when a flight enters radar coverage?
a beacon code (BC) alert will be displayed on each RPS datablock
61
If a duplicate code is recognised by the skyline system at flight plan creation or amendment, what are the indications and recommended actions?
If a duplicate code is recognised by the system at flight plan creation or amendment, a Duplicate SSR Code alert window will be displayed at the CWP involved. The System option should be selected, if possible. If the Force option is selected, an Attention message will be displayed to the owning jurisdiction(s) and at the Supervisor position, identifying the two flights with the same SSR code, and the flight plan will be updated with the duplicate SSR code. Datablock BC alerts will be displayed.
62
What is the datablock indication when an aircraft with a correlated RPS squawks a different SSR code to the flight plan code, and what are the recommended actions?
the datablock SSR code will blink indicating that the "Set ABC to RBC" function is available. This function shall not be activated without ensuring that all downstream flight plan recipients are advised of the revised SSR beacon code. Alternatively, the pilot may be instructed to squawk or reset the allocated flight plan code.
63
What sequence of instructions should be used if the SSR code or identity in an RPS datablock does not correspond to that assigned?
the pilot shall be instructed to RESET the assigned code. Where this fails to achieve the display of the assigned code or identity, the pilot shall be requested to CONFIRM that the correct code has been selected. If the discrepancy persists, the pilot shall be instructed to squawk a code from the controller's sector allocation. If this results in the correct code being displayed on the limited datablock, modification of the flight plan SSR code should result in correlation.
64
In the event of decorrelation of an APS, what inter-sector or inter-unit handling should be performed and why?
all further inter-sector or inter-unit handling of such a flight shall be performed verbally or manually. Radar track updating will not be available, resulting in the possibility of inaccurate FDP estimates and handover proposals
65
Based on SSR mode-C derived information, when is an aircraft considered to be maintaining a level?
Mode C-derived level information indicates that it is 200 feet or less from the assigned level
66
Based on mode-C derived information, when is an aircraft climbing or descending considered to have crossed a level?
when Mode C-derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by more than 300 feet
67
What are the provisos for using mode-C derived information if, after a cold start, a CWP indicates "F" instead of "A" for levels below 14000ft?
Mode C-derived level information shall not be used for vertical separation below the transition level
68
When operating in BYPASS mode, what are the provisos for the use of mode-C derived information for aircraft below the transition level?
shall not be used when the QNH indicated in the list line for the area in which the bypass radar sensor is located differs by greater than 3 hPa from that on which the aircraft are operating
69
What phraseology shall be used to request the pilot to confirm the mode-A selected on the aircraft transponder?
CONFIRM SQUAWK (code)
70
What is the phraseology to request the pilot to temporarily suspend transponder operation?
SQUAWK STANDBY
71
In correlating a radar position with a know turn or turns reported by an aircraft, what requirements and conditions must exist?
Before accepting identification by this method, the radar controller shall:
• ensure that the degree of turn is 30° or more and that the new heading is maintained for sufficient
time for the turn to be observed, and
• verify that the movements of not more than one radar target correspond with those of the aircraft
concerned.
Caution must be exercised to ensure that the manoeuvre does not carry the aircraft outside radar cover or take place in an area where route changes normally occur.
A pilot who is required to carry out a turn for identification shall be given instructions, if necessary, to regain track.
72
What are the methods that may be used to achieve aircraft identification and verify flight plan correlation in the SSR environment?
- Recognition of the aircraft identification in a radar datablock
- Recognition of an assigned discrete code, the setting of which has been verified, in a radar datablock
- Transfer of radar identification
- Observation of compliance with an instruction to set a specific code
- Observation of compliance with an instruction to "SQUAWK IDENT"
73
When the IDENT feature of an aircraft's transponder is unservicable, how may the aircraft be identified?
- requesting the pilot to squawk one of the sector allocated codes, observing the change and requesting the pilot to re-select the original assigned code; or
- any of the PSR identification methods above.
74
Detail the methods by which a controller can effect a transfer of radar identification
• designation of an RPS by automated means, provided that only one RPS is thereby indicated and there is no possible doubt of correct identification, i.e.:
- the standard automatic or manual Initiate (Handover) and Accept procedure; or
- the Point Out function; or
• notification of the discrete code of the aircraft; or
• physically pointing to the RPS on the receiving controller's display; or
• designation of the RPS by reference to, or in terms of bearing and distance from, a geographical position, reporting point or navigation aid shown on both radar displays, together with the heading or track if the route of the aircraft is not known to both controllers; or
• instruction to the aircraft by the transferring controller to change code and the observation of the change by the accepting controller; or
• instruction to the aircraft by the transferring controller to squawk IDENT and observation of this response by the accepting controller.
75
What is the phraseology to be used when radar ident only is being transferred?
"RADAR IDENT (callsign)
| [SQUAWKING (SSR code)] [(aircraft type)] [POSITION (aircraft position)] [(level)] (any other relevant information)".
76
When shall pilots be informed of the position of their aircraft?
- upon identification, except when the identification is established:
- based on the pilot's position report; or
- upon departure and the observation is consistent with the aircraft's time of departure; or
- by use of ADS-B aircraft identification procedures or assigned discrete SSR codes, including recognition of an aircraft's identification in a radar datablock, and the location of the observed RPS is consistent with the current flight plan or known track of the aircraft; or
- by transfer of radar identification;
- when requested by the pilot;
- when, after querying the pilot's estimate, the estimate still differs significantly from the radar controller's estimate based on radar observation or route readout data;
- at intervals when on a radar heading, particularly when an arriving aircraft is being vectored for approach;
- prior to reverting to own navigation after radar vectoring, except where instructions to regain track prior to a navigation aid or waypoint are given;
- when an aircraft is off track to the extent that it is outside the navigation tolerance for the type of navigation aid being used;
- when the pilot is informed that radar identification has been regained following a loss of radar identification.
77
In what form must position information be passed to an aircraft?
- as a well-known geographical position; or
- magnetic track and distance to a significant point or enroute or approach navigation aid; or
- bearing (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position; or
- position relative to the centreline of an ATS route, or the final approach track for aircraft being vectored onto final approach; or
- distance from touchdown, particularly for aircraft on final approach.
78
State the minimum horizontal radar separation that an area controller can apply between identified aircraft.
5NM
79
What radar separations apply between identified and unidentified aircraft operating on the same track?
R20 is applicable when:
- the identified aircraft is at least 20 NM past the point at which the unidentified aircraft is expected
to be established under radar control.
In airspace where the radar coverage is provided by SSR only, this separation shall not be used until a check of other relevant information, such as position reports and estimates, indicates that the unidentified aircraft is at least 20 nautical miles behind the identified aircraft.
R5 is applicable when:
- the following aircraft is identified, and
- the leading aircraft which had been identified has since passed out of radar cover, and
- the following aircraft can reach separation level at least 5 NM before the position at which the leading aircraft passed out of radar cover.
80
What radar separations apply between identified and unidentified aircraft operating on reciprocal tracks?
R50 is applicable in airspace where radar coverage is provided by SSR only, between an identified aircraft and unidentified aircraft not yet in radar cover, when:
• the unidentified aircraft has an operable transponder, and
• the identified aircraft reaches separation level at least 50 NM prior to the point at which the
unidentified aircraft is expected to be established under radar control, and
• the pilot of the unidentified aircraft reports a position or estimate that confirms that the aircraft will
not be in radar coverage prior to the identified aircraft reaching separation level. Additionally, aircraft entering domestic airspace from Oceanic airspace must be RNAV equipped.
R20 is applicable when:
• the identified aircraft reaches separation level at least 20 NM before the point at which the
conflicting traffic is expected to be established under radar control.
This separation shall only be used in airspace:
• where PSR coverage is available, and/or
• above FL245 where ADS-B coverage is available, provided both the unidentified and identified aircraft are displayed via ADS-B without an Incorrect Flight Identification Alert present.
R5 is applicable, and either aircraft may climb or descend when:
the aircraft which had been identified has since passed out of radar cover, and
the identified aircraft is at least 5 NM past the position at which the previously identified aircraft
passed out of radar cover.
81
When may aircraft be radar vectored?
* In class A, C and D airspace for separation purposes, safety reasons, noise abatement, operational advantage, on pilot request or to assist an aircraft's navigation.
* In class G airspace only in an emergency.
82
How is radar vectoring achieved?
by issuing specific headings to a pilot that will enable the aircraft to maintain a desired track
83
When radar vectoring what conditions and requirements apply?
• Aircraft shall be informed of the reason for radar vectors.
• Where practicable, aircraft should be vectored along routes from which the pilot can revert to own
navigation or crosscheck position by reference to pilot interpreted navigation aids.
• Headings shall be passed by using the word "HEADING" followed by the three digits of the magnetic heading. When a pilot is instructed to turn through 180 or more, the direction of turn shall be emphasised by repeating it.
• When vectoring an IFR flight the radar controller shall ensure that obstacle clearance will exist at all times until the aircraft reaches the point where the pilot will resume own navigation.
When vectoring aircraft towards high ground the radar controller shall, if necessary, determine that the climb performance of the aircraft is adequate to maintain the required obstacle clearance. This may be achieved by either:
◼ instructing the pilot to reach a level by a position or distance which will achieve the required obstacle clearance; or
◼ asking the pilot if the aircraft is capable of reaching the required level by a specified position or distance.
• When vectoring away from an assigned route the pilot shall be informed, unless it is self-evident, what the vectoring is to accomplish and, whenever possible, the limit of the diversion should be specified.
• An aircraft receiving vectoring shall be contained within controlled airspace by at least 2 NM from the lateral boundaries and at least 500 feet above the lower limit except:
Inanemergency;or
A vector may be issued to an aircraft and be effective at the point of entry into controlled airspace provided that it will track the aircraft expeditiously to a point at least 2 NM within controlled airspace.
• Aircraft shall not be vectored closer than 2 NM to the boundary of control zones or control zone sectors unless coordination has taken place with the relevant tower controller.
• A radar controller shall not vector an aircraft closer than 5 NM from the sector boundary that is coincident with the sector boundary of another radar controller unless prior coordination has taken place, except when otherwise agreed in a LUO/LOA.
• Radar control shall not be exercised within the area of responsibility of another sector unless coordinated.
When radar control is delegated to another unit, responsibility for the control of all conflicting traffic in the area of delegated responsibility shall be transferred to the controller accepting delegation. Details of the flights shall be displayed at both units.
• An aircraft shall not be vectored closer than 10 NM from the edge of a radar display.
• An aircraft shall be established on its cleared route before leaving radar coverage, unless
conforming with approved procedures.
• When vectoring VFR flights, the caution "MAINTAIN VFR" shall be issued.
• Special VFR flights shall not be vectored unless special circumstances, such as emergencies, dictate otherwise.
84
What are the objectives of radar monitoring?
- Ensuring that separation is maintained between controlled flights.
- Providing a non-radar controller with:
- improved position information regarding controlled traffic
- supplementary information regarding other traffic
- information regarding significant deviations by aircraft from the terms of air traffic control clearances.
- Providing a pilot with:
- information regarding significant deviation from the terms of an air traffic control clearance
- information regarding significant deviations from nominal approach paths during non-radar approaches
- a radar flight information service.
85
What is the designed purpose of STCA and what information does it compare?
STCA is a safety net system designed to prevent the collision of aircraft.
STCA compares valid Mode C-derived level information of:
- correlated flights in controlled or uncontrolled airspace; or
- correlated and uncorrelated flights in controlled or uncontrolled airspace.
86
What actions should be taken on receipt of a STCA alert?
- identify the conflict;
- assess the conflict information; and
- carry out actions as necessary to:
- ensure A TC separation is maintained; or
- regain ATC separation (provide essential traffic information); or
- provide radar traffic information.
87
Define the means by which STCA may be supressed?
- The Christchurch ATSC Duty Manager may deactivate STCA system wide.
- Controllers may deactivate STCA at a CWP or for a sector, provided;
- consultation occurs with associated towers; and
- the Duty Manager is advised and the circumstances recorded in the ATS Log; and
- a warning is displayed at each operational position affected.
- Alerting for individual flights may be suppressed through the datablock or by use of suppressed SSR codes e.g. within formation flights. Datablock suppression only applies to flights while owned, but suppressed codes are for the duration of the flight.
- Geographical areas may be suppressed through the activation of Safety Net Suppression Areas (adapted areas listed in the SN RA (Restricted Area) menu). Suppression only applies between flights within the areas. Alerting may occur between flights inside the area and flights outside the area. In this event, the alert will only be displayed in the datablock of the flight outside the area, but the identity of both flights will be displayed in the Alert window.
88
What obligations must be met before controllers may suppress STCA for a correlated flight operating in uncontrolled airspace?
obligations for the provision of traffic information have been met
89
Explain the effect of STCA suppression of a correlated RPS
Suppression of a correlated RPS will suppress alerts between that flight and any uncorrelated or other suppressed flight
90
When is flight plan interpolation automatically terminated?
- a new position report for the aircraft is received via automatic correlation, i.e. once radar information returns the IPS is removed from the SN and the radar track continues as an RPS;
- the flight plan is terminated;
- the flight plan is manually recorrelated;
- the flight plan reaches the end of the modelled trajectory.
91
Under what circumstances may an interpolated track be used for radar separation?
An interpolated track shall not be used for radar separation. It is only displayed as a visual indication of the probable position of the aircraft.
92
If, for any reason, the ability to provide a radar service is in doubt, what must the controller do?
the radar controller shall immediately inform the non-radar controller and/or adjacent control positions/sectors/units and decide as early as possible whether radar service should be terminated.
93
What are the three emergency SSR codes and what do they indicate?
- 7700 - Aircraft emergency
- 7600 - Radio failure
- 7500 - Unlawful interference
94
When practicable, what actions should a radar controller perform should an unknown aircraft be observed on a conflicting path with an identified aircraft?
- warn the pilot of the identified aircraft and, if requested by the pilot or considered necessary by the controller, suggest a course of avoiding action (traffic avoidance advice), and
- advise the pilot when the confliction no longer exists.
95
Occasionally a temporary map may need to be drawn for personal use on the controllers SN display. How can these be drawn and what rules apply to their construction?
Temporary maps may be drawn with the SkyLine drawing tool
Construction of SN temporary maps for separation purposes on one or more SN shall be carried out as follows:
- the Christchurch ATSC Duty Manager, Unit Manager, or senior person on duty as appropriate, shall authorise the use of such maps by providing controllers with latitude and longitudes of the map coordinates, and/or bearings and distances from a point(s) displayed on the SN map; and
- each controller requiring the temporary map shall enter the information provided; and
- the accuracy of the temporary map shall be checked by the Duty Manager or other approved
person at each SN.
96
What lateral separation shall be used between the centre of an RPS and the boundary of TEMPORARY restricted/danger area map?
When separating or vectoring flights clear of such displayed SN temporary maps the distance between the
centre of the RPS and the boundary shall be 5 NM or greater.
97
What is the IFERC and what is it's purpose?
A sub-part to RAC 7 which is a separate folder of ready-reference checklists designed to assist personnel when handling various types of in-flight emergencies. A general section discusses procedures common to all in-flight emergency situations, while each of the subsequent ten checklists provide guidance when responding to the particular type of situation.
98
As part of an In-Flight Emergency Response, what expectations are placed on ATS personnel?
- provide reasonable assistance and/or advice to the pilot of an aircraft operating under abnormal circumstances or declaring an emergency, in an endeavour to have the pilot:
- maintain or regain control of the aircraft; and/or
- resume normal operation in appropriate airspace; and/or
- land the aircraft safely; and
- provide reasonable advice to any other pilot assisting such a pilot.
99
When is an In-Flight Emergency Response considered to be terminated?
- the emergency is resolved, i.e. the aircraft lands safely or resumes normal operation, or
- the aircraft is known or believed to have crashed or completed a forced or precautionary landing, and responsibility for the action has been handed over to the local aerodrome emergency organisation or the Police or the Rescue Coordination Centre of New Zealand (RCCNZ).
100
Name and define the three alerting service emergency phases
* Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA): When uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
* Alert Phase (ALERFA): When apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
* Distress Phase (DETRESFA): When there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance.
101
When shall the ALERT PHASE be declared?
* an aircraft is known or believed to be subject to unlawful interference; or
* following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources fail to reveal any news of the aircraft; or
* an aircraft which has been given circuit joining, approach or landing instructions from an ATC unit or landing information from a AFIS unit fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing, and communication cannot be re-established; or
* an aircraft is known or believed to be experiencing impaired operating efficiency to the extent that it is having difficulty in maintaining height, or may have difficulty in making a normal approach and landing; or
* an aircraft is known or believed to be subject to irregular operations or is lost and there is reason to believe that the safe conduct of the flight is in jeopardy; or
* an aircraft is operating in instrument meteorological conditions when the pilot or aircraft is limited to VFR operation; or
* the duration of INCERFA has exceeded 30 minutes.
except, in the case of bullets 2 to 7 above, when evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the
safety of the aircraft and its occupants.
102
When shall the DISTRESS PHASE be declared?
* following the alert phase further unsuccessful attempts to establish communication with the aircraft and more widespread unsuccessful inquiries point to the probability that the aircraft is in distress; or
* the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety; or
* information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely; or
* information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make or has made a forced landing; or
* the duration of ALERFA has exceeded one hour,
except when there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft and its occupants are not threatened by grave
and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.
103
What shall initial verbal notification of an alerting phase the RCCNZ include?
- Emergency phase declared
- Aircraft registration and identification
- Aircraft type
- Nature of the emergency
- DEP and DEST aerodromes plus, if appropriate, advice on which aerodromes have been checked.
104
What are the indications on skyline that AIDC messaging has failed and what actions should be taken in this event?
blinking of the datablock coordination indication and/or an appropriate message in the CWP Attention window
Verbal and/or manual coordination must then occur
105
What is the purpose of an Abbreviated plan (APL) and what function is used to create one?
attach a datablock to an RPS that has no flight plan, using the start track function
106
How shall DEST be formatted in an Abbreviated plan (APL) to indicate direction of flight and for what reasons?
XX_ _, eg. XXTG. The XX will signify to Flight Yield that no billing processing is to occur but to use the data for statistical/workload purposes only
107
Field 18/other operational remarks may be annotated using the XNOTE function. What abbreviation is specifically prohibited in an XNOTE?
RDR
108
What procedures shall be followed for military flights that cancel IFR and proceed VFR, but which may later proceed IFR?
- In accordance with the LOA, ATS approach units shall advise or coordinate with the next adjacent sector when the flight is proceeding VFR.
- When the flight is no longer subject to control, amend the CFL to 077.
- Leave the flight plan to process normally (automatically).
109
How do you annotate a flight progress strip to indicate an aircraft operating between two block levels?
(level)
| level
110
What meteorological information is required to be passed to all aircraft?
* SIGMET (including amended period of validity)
* SPECI
* TAF amendments
* significant information received from other flights
* appropriate altimeter setting (aerodrome QNH or zone area QNH)
* take-off and landing reports when not on ATIS.
111
What MET information shall be made available on pilot request?
* ATIS
* METAR/SPECI
* METAR AUTO
* TAF
112
Define SIGMET information
Information issued by a meteorological office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena that may affect the safety of aircraft operations.
