October Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

– is commonly used to treat acute hypophosphataemia in adults

A

Intravenous infusion of phosphate polyfusor

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2
Q

– with a history of malignancy? Think liver metastasis

A

Hepatomegaly

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3
Q

Spironolactone may cause —

A

gynaecomastia

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4
Q

— need same day assessment by ENT

A

Auricular haematomas

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5
Q

The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is —

— is classically seen in alcoholics. Chest x-ray features may include abscess formation in the —/– lobes and empyema.

— is a cause of atypical pneumonia which often affects younger patients, frequently those living in crowded accommodation. It is associated with a number of characteristic complications such as erythema multiforme and cold — —- anemia.

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Klebsiella pneumoniae- middle/upper

Mycoplasma pneumoniae
autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

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6
Q

— —is characterised by extremely high serum PTH with moderately raised serum calcium

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

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7
Q

– with impaired GCS: give IV Glucose if there is access

A

Hypoglycaemia

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8
Q

Asymptomatic patients with an abnormal HbA1c or fasting glucose must be confirmed with —– before a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is confirmed

A

a second abnormal reading

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9
Q

— coma typically presents with confusion and hypothermia.

A

Myxoedema

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10
Q

Failure to comply with thyroxine replacement will result in an increase in — associated with a low —.
However, patients often compensate before having their blood tests done or before their review by clinic by taking extra tablets of thyroxine.
This results in elevated/normal— without suppression of – as levels of the latter requires days to weeks to change.

A

TSH
fT4
fT4
TSH

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11
Q

— work by increasing urinary excretion of glucose

Important as it is the cause of main side effects - increased —, – loss, UTI

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors
urine output
weight

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12
Q

Increase insulin release from pancreas - this is the mechanism of action of — e.g. gliclazide.

A

sulphonylureas

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13
Q

Drug MOA:

Decrease glucagon release from pancreas - — reduce the breakdown of incretins, which thereby decreases – secretion.

A

DPP4-inhibitors

glucagon

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14
Q

– is the most common cause of heel pain seen in adults. The pain is usually worse around the — calcaneal tuberosity.

A

Plantar fasciitis

medial

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15
Q

— thyroiditis (–’s) is the most common cause of hypothyroidism and is associated with other a– diseases

A

Autoimmune
Hashimoto
autoimmune

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16
Q

The first line treatment in amoebiasis is:

A

metronidazole

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17
Q

— is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected Achilles tendon rupture

A

Ultrasound

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18
Q

– is used in the management of variceal haemorrhage

A

Terlipressin

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19
Q

– or p– are the SSRIs of choice in breastfeeding women

A

Sertraline

paroxetine

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20
Q

Risk malignancy index (RMI) prognosis in ovarian cancer is based on : x3

A

US findings, menopausal status and CA125 levels

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21
Q

The maximum rate of IV potassium infusion that can be conducted without monitoring is –mmol/hour

Potassium infusions are usually given in pre-prepared bags to ensure the appropriate amount of K+, e.g. normal saline –%/–mmol KCl IV, over -hrs.

A

10

0.9%/40mmol
4hrs

22
Q

Both l– and u– can be used more than once in the same cycle

A

levonorgestrel

ulipristal

23
Q

If angina is not controlled with a beta-blocker, a – should be added

A

calcium channel blocker

24
Q

The — vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus and is commonly used for venous cutdown

A

long saphenous

25
Patients with suspected neoplastic spinal cord compression should have an urgent
MRI of the whole spine
26
SVC obstruction can cause visual disturbances such as --
blurred vision
27
Anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin) may cause ---
cardiomyopathy
28
BRCA2 mutation is associated with -- cancer in men
prostate
29
HPV subtypes --- are carcinogenic and increase the risk of cervical cancer
16,18, 33
30
If neoplastic spinal cord compression is suspected, high-dose oral --- should be given whilst awaiting investigations
dexamethasone
31
Vincristine is associated with ---. | Urinary hesitancy may develop secondary to bladder atony.
peripheral neuropathy
32
--- is a tumour marker in colorectal cancer and has a role in monitoring disease activity
Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
33
Epilepsy + pregnancy = -mg folic acid
Epilepsy + pregnancy = 5mg folic acid
34
---- may present with haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications due to DIC.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
35
Cardiotocography (CTG) records pressure changes in the -- using internal or external pressure transducers
uterus
36
-- and --- should never be combined as there is a risk of serotonin syndrome
SSRIs | MAOIs
37
Irradiated blood products are used to avoid transfusion-associated -- disease
graft versus host
38
Fragile X - associated with --- prolapse
mitral valve
39
Akathisia is a sense of --
inner restlessness and inability to keep still
40
-- is a recognised serious side effect of suxamethonium among those who are susceptible and requires IV dantrolene therapy
Malignant hyperthermia
41
Respiratory system Antibiotics used to treat: -Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis -Uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia -Pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens Hospital-acquired pneumonia -Within 5 days of admission:- -After 5days:
Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis- Amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin Uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia- Amoxicillin (Doxycycline or clarithromycin in penicillin allergic, add flucloxacillin if staphylococci suspected e.g. In influenza) Pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens -Clarithromycin Hospital-acquired pneumonia Within 5 days of admission: : co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime More than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam OR a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime) OR a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
42
Urinary tract Lower urinary tract infection: Acute pyelonephritis: Acute prostatitis:
Lower urinary tract infection Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. Alternative: amoxicillin or cephalosporin Acute pyelonephritis Broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone Acute prostatitis Quinolone or trimethoprim
43
Skin ``` Impetigo Cellulitis Cellulitis Erysipelas Animal or human bite Mastitis during breast-feeding ```
Impetigo Topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread Cellulitis Flucloxacillin (clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline if penicillin-allergic) Cellulitis (near the eyes or nose) Co-amoxiclav (clarithromycin, + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic) Erysipelas Flucloxacillin* (clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline if penicillin-allergic) Animal or human bite Co-amoxiclav (doxycycline + metronidazole if penicillin-allergic) Mastitis during breast-feeding Flucloxacillin
44
Ear, nose & throat ``` Throat infections Sinusitis Otitis media Otitis externa** Periapical or periodontal abscess Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative ```
Throat infections Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin alone if penicillin-allergic) Sinusitis Amoxicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin Otitis media Amoxicillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic) Otitis externa** Flucloxacillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic) Periapical or periodontal abscess Amoxicillin Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative Metronidazole
45
Genital system ``` Gonorrhoea Chlamydia Pelvic inflammatory disease Syphilis Bacterial vaginosis ```
Gonorrhoea Intramuscular ceftriaxone Chlamydia Doxycycline or azithromycin Pelvic inflammatory disease Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole Syphilis Benzathine benzylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin Bacterial vaginosis Oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin
46
Gastrointestinal Clostridium difficile Campylobacter enteritis Salmonella (non-typhoid) Shigellosis
Clostridium difficile First episode: metronidazole Second or subsequent episode of infection: vancomycin Campylobacter enteritis Clarithromycin Salmonella (non-typhoid) Ciprofloxacin Shigellosis Ciprofloxacin
47
Patients over the age of 60 who present with --- should be investigated for colorectal cancer
iron deficiency anaemia
48
Small cell lung carcinoma secreting -- can cause Cushing's syndrome
ACTH
49
Clostridium difficile antigen positivity only shows ---, rather than --
exposure to the bacteria | current infection
50
Dermatophyte nail infections - use oral --
terbinafine
51
Tamoxifen may cause increased risk of -- cancer
endometrial