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Bloodbank Glossary > Odd > Flashcards

Odd Flashcards

0
Q

It is a nonpenetrating cryoprotective agent added to protect cells against damage.

A

Hydroxyethyl Starch (HES)

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1
Q

It is a fluid obtained from a cyst of a dog tapeworm which can be a source of P1 substance used to neutralize anti-P1

A

Hydatid cyst

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2
Q

It is the decrease in body temperature.

A

Hyphotermia

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3
Q

It is a reaction of the body to respond and recognize foreign substances.

A

Immune Response

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4
Q

Immunologic reaction induced by initial exposure to the antigens.

A

Primary Immune Response

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5
Q

Immunologic reaction induced following a second exposure to an antigen ; also known as anamnestic response.

A

Secondary Immune Response

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6
Q

In reference to glycoprotein or glycolipid antigens, it is the sugar molecule that gives the antigen its specificity or identifies it uniquely.

A

Immunodominant Sugar

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7
Q

H antigen specificity

A

L- fucose

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8
Q

A antigen specificity

A

N - acetyl - D- galactosamine

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9
Q

B antigen specificity

A

D - galactose

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10
Q

It is any substance capable of stimulating an immune response.

A

Immunogen

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11
Q

It is the ability of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response.

A

Immunogenicity

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12
Q

It is a synonym for an antibody.

A

Immunoglobulin

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13
Q

It is the study of blood-related antigens and antibodies.

A

Immunohematology

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14
Q

It is the rare dominant gene that inhibits the production of all Lutheran antigens.

A

In Lu

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15
Q

It the presence of agglutination or hemolysis in compatibility testing.

A

Incompatible

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16
Q

While the fetus is in the uterus.

A

In utero

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17
Q

It is the in vitro reaction in which under certain condition of time and temperature allow antigen-antibody complex to occur.

A

Incubation

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18
Q

It refers to random behavior of genes on separate chromosome inherited separately from each other.

A

Independent assortment

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19
Q

It refers to passing of one gene from each parent to the offspring.

A

Independent segregation

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20
Q

It is the transfusion administered to a fetus while still in the uterus.

A

Intrauterine transfusion

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21
Q

It is the number of charged particles in a solution.

A

Ionic strength

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22
Q

It is the gamma or electron treatment of a cellular blood product to prevent transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease ( TA-GVHD )

A

Irradiation

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23
Q

It is the condition characterized by a yellow appearance of the skin, sclera of the eyes and body secretions caused by increased bilirubin level.

A

Jaundice

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24
Q

It is a condition due an increased in unconjugated bilirubin.

A

Kernicterus

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25
Q

It is the test performed ona maternal blood specimen to detect fetal maternal hemorrhage.

A

Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test

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26
Q

It states that the ABO antibodies are present in plasma/ serum when the corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes.

A

Landsteiner Law

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27
Q

It is the combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form cross links and result in a visible agglutination reaction.

A

Lattice formation

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28
Q

It is a seed extract capable of agglutinating red cells carrying the corresponding antigen.

A

Lectin

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29
Q

Agglutinate red cells with A1 antigen

A

Dolichos biflorus (anti - A1)

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30
Q

Agglutinate red cells with H antigen

A

Ulex europaeus (anti - H)

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31
Q

Agglutinate red cells with N antigen

A

Vicia graminea (anti - N)

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32
Q

Agglutinate red cells with M antigen

A

Iberis amara (anti - M)

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33
Q

Agglutinate red cells with T antigen

A

Arachis hypogea (anti - T)

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34
Q

Agglutinate red cells with Tn antigen

A

Salvia sclaera (anti - Tn)

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35
Q

It is a graph used to predict severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluation of the amniotic fluid.

A

Liley Graph

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36
Q

Zone I

A

Mild or no disease

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37
Q

Zone II

A

Moderate disease

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38
Q

Zone III

A

Severe and life threatening hemolysis

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39
Q

It is a location of a gene on a chromosome.

A

Locus

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40
Q

It is a condition of an abnormal presence of of high molecular weight immunoglobulins.

A

Macroglobulinemia

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41
Q

It is the replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hour interval.

A

Massive transfusion

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42
Q

It is the common drug used in the treatment of hypertension; frequently the cause of a positive DAT.

A

Methyl Dopa

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43
Q

It is a type of agglutination pattern where a population of the red cells has agglutinated and the remainder of the red cells are not agglutinated.

A

Mixed Field Agglutination

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44
Q

It is the manner by which a gene is passed from one generation to another.

A

Mode of Inheritance

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45
Q

It is a trait that appears when the gene that has been inherited can be found in each generation occurs with equal frequency in males and females.

A

Autosomal Dominant

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46
Q

It is a trait manifested by people who are homozygous for the alleles. Both parents who do not express the trait may be carrier or heterozygous for the recessive allele.

A

Autosomal Recessive

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47
Q

These are traits transmitted to all daughters of affected father but not to sons.

A

Sex- Linked Dominant

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48
Q

The trait appears much more frequently in males than in females due to inheritance from carrier mothers.

A

Sex- Linked Recessive

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49
Q

It is an antigen composed of several units or subpart such as the Rho (D) antigen.

A

Mosaic (Du variant)

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50
Q

D antigen with complete subpart

A

Rh ABCD

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51
Q

D antigen with missing A-subpart

A

Rh aBCD

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52
Q

D antigen with missing B-subpart

A

Rh AbCD

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53
Q

D antigen with missing C-subpart

A

Rh ABcD

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54
Q

D antigen with missing D-subpart

A

Rh ABCd

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55
Q

It is the term for woman having born more than one child.

A

Multiparous

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56
Q

It is a malignant neoplasm of rhe bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and urine.

A

Multiple Myeloma

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57
Q

It is the fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies.

A

Murine Hydbridoma

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58
Q

It is a group of sugars found on the red blood cell membrane attached to a protein backbone; major source of the membrane’s net negative charge.

A

NANA (Sialic Acid)

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59
Q

It is relating to birth.

A

Natal

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60
Q

Before birth

A

Prenatal

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61
Q

After birth

A

Postnatal

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62
Q

It refers to a newborn infant up to 4 months of age.

A

Neonate

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63
Q

It is an enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the red blood cell membrane.

A

Neuraminidase

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64
Q

It is also known as agglutination-inhibition, and it also refers to absence of agglutination due to the inability of an antibody to react with red cell antigen because of previously bound soluble substance; principle involve in saliva testing.

A

Neutralization

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65
Q

It is the basic building blocks of DNA which is composed of a phosphate group, a sugar group and a base.

A

Nucleotide

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66
Q

It is any individual who fails to express any antigens on the red cells

A

Null Phenotype

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67
Q

It is a chemical compound formed by a small number of simple carbohydrate molecules

A

Oligosaccharide Chain

68
Q

It is the required temperature in degrees C by which the antibody is most reactive.

A

Optimum temperature

69
Q

IgM cold reactive antibody

A

1-6 degrees C / 20-24 degrees C (cold temperature or room temperature)

70
Q

IgG warm reacting antibody

A

37 degrees C (warm temperature)

71
Q

It is the spontaneous clumping of red blood cells against a given serum

A

Panagglutination

72
Q

It is the group O reagent red blood cells that are used for antibody identification

A

Panel cell

73
Q

It refers to a woman who had at least one pregnancy

A

Primiparous

74
Q

It is a type of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia in which a biphasic IgG antibody can be demonstrated with anti- P specificity

A

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

75
Q

It is a D antigen that is missing part of its typical antigenic structure

A

Partial D

76
Q

It refers to the chance that the alleged father is the biological father

A

Paternity Index

77
Q

It is a diagrammatic chart used for illustrating the inheritance patterns of traits in a family study

A

Pedigree chart

78
Q

It refers to the detectable characteristics of genes

A

Phenotype

79
Q

It is the initial treatment of elevated bilirubin using lights

A

Phototherapy

80
Q

It is the extra blood sample collected during blood donation from a donor which is intented for serological test

A

Pilot Tube

81
Q

It refers to the fibrinogen containing liquid portion of anticoagulated blood; it can be used as a specimen for backward typing to detect antibodies however might present problem because it can bring about rouleaux formation.

A

Plasma

82
Q

It is the plasma prepared from a whole blood subjected to heavy spin which allow sedimentation of platelet and leaving a plasma almost free of platelets

A

PPP (Platelet Poor Plasma)

83
Q

It is the plasma prepared from a whole subjected to soft spin which allows sedimentation of platelets thus leaving a plasma that contains high number of platelets

A

PRP (Platelet Rich Plasma)

84
Q

They are products that are transfused in patients suffering from (decrease plasma volume) or indicated among burn and shock patients.

A

Plasma Volume Expander

85
Q

96% albumin + 4% globulin

A

NSA (Normal Serum Albumin)

86
Q

83% albumin + 17% globulin

A

PPF (Plasma Protein Fraction)

87
Q

Ringer’s Lactate (Na, CI, K, Ca, lactate ions)

Normal Saline Solution (0.85%-0.9% NaCI)

A

Crystalloids

88
Q

Dextran (6%-10%)

HES (hydroethyl starch)

A

Colloids

89
Q

It is the inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion thus the desired increment in platelet is not achieve.

A

Platelet refractoriness

90
Q

It is the spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal adult sera regardless of blood group.

A

Polyagglutination

91
Q

It is the blood group system showing several allelic forms therefore rendering more than one alternative phenotype.

A

Polymorphism

92
Q

It is a term referring to after child birth.

A

Post partum

93
Q

It is a term referring to after transfusion.

A

Post transfusion

94
Q

It is the relative strength of an antibody present in a given antiserum usually expressed in titer (i.e. Anti-A and Anti-B, the required potency is 1 : 256).

A

Potency

95
Q

It is any substance that enhances antigen-antibody interaction from a given cell-serum mixture which may be used to detect low-titered antibody in routine testing.

A

Potentiator

96
Q

This medium has lower ionic strength that increases the rate of antibody association. Incubation may be shortened to 5-15 minutes if this medium is used.

A

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline solution) : 0.2% NaCI in glycine

97
Q

It is a positively charge polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in red cell. It is useful in the identification of antibodies in the Kidd bloodgroup system.

A

Polybrene

98
Q

It enhances antigen-antibody reaction by concentrating antibody in the mixture through removal of water.

A

Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

99
Q

In genetics, this refers to a 2 x 2 grid used for gene combination.

A

Punnett Square

100
Q

It is a system of procedures that ensures a laboratory to operate with the most minimal errors.

A

Quality Assurance

101
Q

It is the close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability of test result.

A

Quality Control

102
Q

In transfusion medicine, this refers to a person who benefits and receives blood transfusion.

A

Recipient

103
Q

It refers to the required speed in a given time to sediment particles from a fluid mixture; calculated as 1.118 x 105 x radius x (rpm)2.

A

Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF)

104
Q

It is the disease of unknown cause most frequently seen among premature infants characterized primarily by acute difficulty in breathing; formerly known as “Hyaline Membrane Disease”.

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

105
Q

It is a synonym for antigens in the Rh blood group system.

A

Rh factor

106
Q

It is the concentrated and purified anti-D given as a prophylactic or preventive treatment to Rh (-) person who is exposed to D-antigen either through pregnancy or blood transfusion. Each vial of 300 ug of RhIg protects against 30 mL fetal whole blood or 15 mL of packed cells.

A

Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg)

107
Q

It is an inherited characteristics showing decreased expression of Rh antigens.

A

Rhmod

108
Q

It is a phenotype of a person who suffers from anemia and whose red cells do not express any Rh antigens.

A

Rhnull

109
Q

It is used to determine fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggregate around indicator cells (0.2%-0.5% O-cell suspension, R2 R2 red blood cell).

A

Rosette test

110
Q

It is the group of red cells whose appearance resembles stacks of coins associated with the use of plasma expanders or presence of abnormal plasma proteins.

A

Rouleaux Formation

111
Q

It is the procedure used to determine blood group soluble substances; this test is useful in establishing real blood group if the expression is so weak to be detected by routine cell typing.

A

Saliva Testing

112
Q

He is a person who acquired the Se gene either homozygously (SeSe) or heterozygously (Sese) and is capable of producing ABH substances in secretions.

A

Secretor

113
Q

He is a person who does not inherit the Se gene (sese) and is incapable of producing ABH substances in secretions.

A

Non Secretor

114
Q

It is the method of getting a sample to an individual.

A

Sampling

115
Q

They are samples collected prior to actual blood transfusion.

A

Pre Transfusion sampling

116
Q

They are samples collected after actual blood transfusion.

A

Post Transfusion sampling

117
Q

It is an additional blood bag attached to the primary bag generally intended for component preparation.

A

Satellite bags

118
Q

It is the group “O” cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection.

A

Screening Cells

119
Q

It is the process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but no subsequent agglutination reaction seen.

A

Sensitization

120
Q

It is an attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen.

It is a procedure that is done in a tube.

A

In Vitro sensitization

121
Q

It is an attachment of a serum antibody to red cell antigen.

It is a reaction that happens intravascularly.

A

In Vivo sensitization

122
Q

It is a systemic disease caused by the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body; presence of microbes in blood.

A

Septicemia

123
Q

It is the yellowish liquid portion of blood after clotting or centrifugation which can also be used as a source of antibody.

A

Serum

124
Q

It refers to the required drops of serum to the mix with certain drops of red cell suspension to achieve greater reactivity.

A

Serum to Cell Ratio

125
Q

Achieved by dropping 2 drops serum to 1 drop 5% red cell suspension

A

40 : 1 ratio

126
Q

Achieved by dropping 4 drops serum to 1 drop 3% red cell suspension

A

133 : 1 ratio

127
Q

In transfusion medicine, it refers to the length of time when blood can still be used before it expires; usually related to the type of anticoagulant used.

A

Shelf Life (expiration date)

128
Q

21 days after collection

A

ACD, CPD, CP2D

129
Q

35 days after collection

A

CPDA-1

130
Q

It is a severe physiologic reaction to trauma characterized by pallor, cyanosis, weak rapid pulse, drop in blood pressure which often leads to unconsciousness.

A

Shock

131
Q

It is a chemical preservative used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination.

A

Sodium azide (0.1%)

132
Q

It is the characteristics of an antibody to react with cell expressing the corresponding antigen only (i.e. Anti-A will react to A-antigen but not to B-antigen in red cell).

A

Specificity

133
Q

It is the biochemical changes happening on blood upon in vitro storage.

A

Storage lesion

134
Q

These are antigens within the ABO group that are weakly expressed thus react less strongly with their corresponding antibody; often, it leads to ABO discrepancy.

A

Subgroup

135
Q

It refers to the boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline at which zeta potential is measured.

A

Surface of Shear (slipping plane)

136
Q

It is a brief loss of consciousness related to fainting.

A

Syncope

137
Q

Also called as therapeutic apheresis, it refers to removal of blood components for treatment purposes.

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

138
Q

It is a reagent that can be used to disperse agglutination caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies; useful in differentiating IgM from IgG antibodies.

A

Thiol reagent

139
Q

It is the reciprocal of the highest dilution that shows a visible reaction.

A

Titer

140
Q

It is an inherited characteristics based from gene action.

A

Trait

141
Q

It is the administration of blood or its component intravenously.

A

Transfusion

142
Q

It is the blood taken from a patient to be used for the same patient.

A

Autologous transfusion

143
Q

It is the transfer of blood directly from one person to another.

A

Direct transfusion

144
Q

It is used in infants with HDN, it refers to withdrawal of small volume of blood and subsequent replacement with compatible blood.

A

Exchange transfusion

145
Q

It is the transfusion of blood stored in blood bag coming from a homologous donor.

A

Indirect transfusion

146
Q

It is the blood transfusion to fetus in utero.

A

Intrauterine transfusion

147
Q

It is the adverse reaction happening to a patient following transfusion of a unit of blood or its components.

A

Transfusion Reaction

148
Q

It is a batch test that includes ABO, Rh and antibody screening test.

A

Type and Screen (T/S)

149
Q

It is a set of guidelines developed to protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious agents.

A

Universal precaution

150
Q

It is the vascular skin reaction commonly signaling allergic reaction.

A

Urticaria (hives)

151
Q

It refers to type O and type AB individuals who are considred popularly as universal donor and recipient respectively.

A

Universality concept

152
Q

It is the ability of red cell to survive in vivo after transfusion.

A

Viability

153
Q

It is the plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by excessive production of gamma M globulin.

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

154
Q

It is a colorless crystalline compound widely used as an anticlotting drug; anticoagulant drug that acts by inhibiting synthesis of vitamin K defendent factors: II, VII, IX and X; an acronym for Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation + (Coum) arin

A

Warfarin

155
Q

It refers to successive suspension of whole blood with NSS, centrifugation, and finally decanting completely the supernatant fluid. This us preferably done three times to remove interfering substances which is present in plasma. This is widely used in the preparation of red cell suspension.

A

Washing

156
Q

It is the weaker variant of D-antigen that is detectable only through indirect antihuman globulin test.

A

Weak D (Du)

157
Q

Does not require AHG for detection

A

High grade

158
Q

Requires AHG for detection

A

Low grade

159
Q

It is the thick gelatinous substance rich in hyaluronic acid that make up the matrix of the umbilical cord.

A

Wharton’s jelly

160
Q

It is the period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative.

A

Window period

161
Q

It is a soluble haptenic forms of A and B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies.

A

Witebsky substance

162
Q

It is the blood group whose genes are located in the X-chromosome; Xga antigenis seen in greatest frequency among females than males.

A

Xg blood group

163
Q

It is the net negative charge of red cell measured at the surface of shear; if it is reduced, red cells tend to become closer to each other and therefore easier to agglutinate.

A

Zeta potential

164
Q

It is a reaction that is influenced by the amount of antigen and antibody from the cell-serum mixture; presence of either prozone or postzone often leads to false negative result.

A

Zonal reaction

165
Q

Zone of antibody excess (happens if more serum is added)

A

Prozone

166
Q

Zone of antigen excess (happens if red cell suspension is to heavy)

A

Post zone

167
Q

Zone of maximum or greatest reaction

A

Equivalence zone

168
Q

It is a mixture of 0.1 M dithiothreitol (DTT) plus 0.1% cysteine-activated papain used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing a positive DAT reaction.

A

ZZAP

Bloodbank Glossary (1 decks)

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