OEC 5th Flashcards
Text (184 cards)
1
Q
Purpose of emergency medical care systems
A
bring specifically trained personnel and resources to the scene of an emergency shortly after the situation occurs or symptoms become apparent.
2
Q
Purpose of Outdoor Emergency Care (OEC) technicians
A
These responders provide emergency assistance and transportation services to patients located in outdoor, nonurban settings typically not served by traditional 9-1-1 providers.
3
Q
The Four National Recognized Categories of Pre-hospital Providers
A
emergency medical responder (EMR), emergency medical technician (EMT), advanced emergency medical technician (AEMT), and paramedic.
4
Q
A network of specially trained personnel, equipment, facilities, and other resources that respond to medical emergencies, regardless of cause, location, or the patient’s ability to pay, is called a(n):
A
emergency care system.
4
Q
Care Provided y BLS
A
interventions, such as assessing clinical status, splinting fractures, administering certain medications, using an automated external defibrillator, performing CPR, and transporting patients to a medical facility
4
Q
Which of the following choices is an example of indirect medical oversight?
-Telephone communication with a doctor
-Use of written protocols
-Physical presence of a physician
-Video conferencing with a doctor
A
Use of written protocols
5
Q
Most emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a stratified approach based on the patient’s condition or anticipated needs. Which of the following lists presents the normal order of deployment of responders?
A
EMR, EMT, AEMT, paramedic
6
Q
Describes the level of training for an OEC technician?
A
emergency medical responder level, plus additional info for a patroller
7
Q
Medical guidelines developed at the local level by a medical director, area management, and patrol leadership that include an area’s medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are examples of:
A
protocols.
8
Q
Providing the best patient care possible is a common goal among emergency care personnel. This goal is best achieved by:
A
implementing a quality improvement program.
9
Q
Why is it important that OEC technicians participate in quality improvement programs?
A
To identify problems in care delivery and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence
10
Q
Base layer
A
The base layer usually lies tight against the skin, helping to retain heat while allowing moisture to be transferred toward the exterior, a process known as wicking. Ideally, base layers should be made of silk or a synthetic material such as polyester.
11
Q
Middle layer
A
The middle layer serves as the insulating layer by trapping warm air. Common insulating materials are fleece, wool, and down.
12
Q
Outer layer
A
The outer layer is designed to be water repellant and wind repellant and should provide protection from sharp objects such as sticks or thorns.
13
Q
Survival—The “Rule of Threes”
A
Three minutes: you can die if you are severely bleeding, if you are without oxygen, or if you are in icy water for 3 minutes.
Three hours: you may die from exposure within 3 hours without proper shelter.
Three days: you may die within 3 days without a water supply.
Three weeks: you can survive up to 3 weeks without food.
14
Q
pathogen
A
An infectious agent that can cause disease or illness.
15
Q
Direct contact (pathogens)
A
involves close person-to-person contact. Examples are hepatitis B, HIV, herpes simplex, gonorrhea, and mononucleosis.
16
Q
Indirect contact (Pathogens)
A
involves physical contact with an object contaminated with pathogens, including clothing, dressings, towels, soil, and bedding Examples: athlete’s foot
17
Q
Airborne transmission (pathogens)
A
occurs from inhaling droplets containing infectious pathogens propelled into the air by coughing or sneezing Examples: the common cold, influenza, meningitis, chicken pox, and tuberculosis.
18
Q
Ingestion(pathogen)
A
typically involves consumption of food or water that has been contaminated with feces or other contaminants. two primary scenarios
(1) The person eats food that either was handled by an infected individual, likely because the person did not wash his or her hands after defecating, or was grown in soil contaminated with feces. (2) The person drinks from a water source contaminated with feces. Common diseases that are contracted through ingestion are gastroenteritis or severe diarrhea
19
Q
Vector-borne transmission
A
transmission of pathogens to humans by other animals such as ticks and mosquitoes. Examples: Lyme’s Disease & Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
20
Q
Contamination
A
occurs once an individual comes in contact with enough organisms to cause symptoms- there is a highly variable incubation period- pathogens multiply until the individual manifests symptoms.
21
Q
hazardous material
A
any solid, liquid, or gas that has the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment, either by itself or through interaction with other factors.
22
Q
Body substance isolation (BSI)
A
The practice of isolating all bodily substances (blood, urine, tears, feces, and so on) of patients from rescuers in order to decrease disease transmission.
23
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
Items worn by medical providers, including gloves, mask, safety eyeglasses (or mask with shield), and gown, to protect them from bodily fluids.
24
In cold weather, it is important to dress in layers to preserve body heat. Which layer is the insulating layer that traps warm air?
Middle layer
25
Bites from infected ticks can cause Lyme disease and Rocky Mountain spotted fever. These infectious diseases are said to be caused by:
vector-borne transmission.
26
An OEC technician does not put on gloves while caring for a bleeding patient who has been injured. Her reasoning for not putting on gloves is she will not touch the blood. You tell her that she should be practicing infection prevention practices, called:
standard precautions.
27
Your patient is a groundskeeper at your resort. He has sustained burns on his hands as a result of touching a chemical. The chemical would be considered a(n):
hazardous material.
28
Microorganisms that transmit infectious diseases are called:
pathogens.
29
Which of the following is an example of PPE that an OEC technician would use to prevent exposure to infectious agents in the patient’s bodily fluids?
Disposable medical gloves and surgical mask
30
There has been a crime at your resort. Law enforcement has arrived and secured the scene. They indicate that you may enter the scene to provide care to a victim. During your patient assessment, you discover a knife that was used to injure your patient. You begin a careful account for the location of the knife. This accounting is called:
chain of custody.
31
Role of Section chiefs
constitute the general staff and report directly to the IC.
32
Incident command post
Site where all command functions are undertaken.
33
Base (logistics)
Site where logistics functions are coordinated/administered.
34
Staging areas.
One or more sites where resources are kept until assigned.
35
Camps(logistics)
Sites where incident personnel may eat, sleep, and rehabilitate
36
Helibase.
Site from which helicopter operations are conducted
37
Communications center.
The primary site at which all incident-related communications are coordinated
38
Rehabilitation center
The site where the physical condition of incident personnel is monitored
39
Demobilization center.
The site where incident resources are discharged from the incident
40
Triage
is a process of prioritizing patients for treatment and transportation based on specific criteria, depending on the triage method that is being followed
41
The incident command system has how many layers?
five functional layers.
42
The incident command system is used for:
all-hazards management plans.
43
What color tag should be used for a START patient who has capillary refill greater than 2 seconds?
Red
44
SALT uses gray tags for patients who:
who are likely to die.
45
SALTriage uses yellow tags for patients:
with injuries that do not fit in other categories.
46
lift
a way of moving the patient by raising the person from a lower position to a higher on
47
drag
a method of pulling a patient on the ground to another location
48
carry
the act of lifting and moving the patient, usually a short distance.
49
Shoulder (or clothes) drag
-Bend down on one knee and grab the patient’s clothing at the shoulders.
-Support the patient’s head with both of your forearms.
-Raise your head while moving from kneeling to standing.
-Drag the patient to the desired location.
50
Feet drag
-Bend down on one knee and grasp the patient’s feet/ankles.
-Raise your head while moving from kneeling to standing.
-Drag the patient to the desired location.
-An alternative method is to pull on a rope or sheet that is tied around the ankles.
-This method should be used only if you cannot get to the patient’s head and shoulders.
51
Blanket drag
-Move the patient onto a blanket.
-Bend down on one knee and firmly grasp the blanket either with one or both hands.
-Raise your head while moving from kneeling to standing.
-Drag the patient, pulling the blanket to the desired location.
52
Underarm-wrist drag
-Place the patient in seated position.
-Bend down on one knee, reach under the patient’s armpits, and grasp the wrists.
-Raise your head while moving from kneeling to standing.
-Drag the patient to the desired location.
53
PACKAGING A PATIENT: 4 Steps
1-The patient is properly positioned on the transport device, usually a toboggan or litter.
2-The patient is made as comfortable as possible.
3-The patient is securely fastened on the transport device.
4-All necessary medical equipment is transported with the patient.
54
Considerations for Packaging in a Toboggan
-Pregnant women can be loaded on their left side
-Best practice to have patient supine
- Breathing Difficulties Head Uphill
- Head Injury Head Uphill
- All essential equipment stay with patient- i.e. O2 Tank
55
Body mechanics
The relationship between the body’s anatomic structures and the physical forces associated with lifting, moving, and carrying; the ways the body moves to achieve an action.
56
When lifting, good body mechanics include:
bending the knees and squatting, keeping your back straight and shoulders over your spine.
57
A power grip is when you
place your hands, palms up, approximately 10 inches apart.
58
A direct ground lift is used only when you do not suspect a spinal injury. Performing this lift would include:
-using two to four rescuers.
-the patient lying on his or her back.
-all rescuers kneeling along the same side of the patient.
59
What moves can be used when there is a suspected spinal injury and spinal motion restriction/protection is necessary?
Draw-sheet/plastic slider/flat transfer lift, logroll
60
A chair carry is what kind of move?
A nonurgent move
61
A shoulder drag is what type of move?
An urgent move
62
A backboard can be used:
for immobilization, carrying a patient over short distances, and as a transport device.
63
What are the four steps to packaging a patient?
Properly position the patient, make the patient as comfortable as possible, securely fasten the patient, and transport necessary medical equipment with the patient.
64
Generally, the patient is most comfortable when transported:
with the injury directed uphill.
65
Which of the following options includes all of the steps to basic helicopter safety?
Do not approach unless signaled to do so, always approach from the front, remain in sight of the pilot, stay low, do not hold anything above your head, and take off your hat and remove any loose clothing.
66
Artery:
tubular vessel that carries blood from the heart to the lungs and body.
67
Vein:
tubular vessel that carries blood to the heart.
68
Respiratory system
Organs and structures that bring air containing oxygen into the body and eliminate carbon dioxide to the environment through the process of breathing, or ventilation.
69
Cardiovascular system
Organs and structures that circulate blood around the body using the heart, arteries, and veins, delivering oxygen and nutrients to organs and cells. This system carries chemical waste products away from the cells and helps equalize body temperature.
70
Nervous system
A group of organs and other structures that regulate all body functions. This system collects and processes information, with the brain acting as the central computer of the body, sending and receiving information to and from all organs through a complicated wiring system.
71
Skeletal system
The bones and other supporting tissues that provide structure to the body, provide attachment points for muscles, protect internal organs, allow movement, store minerals, and constitute the major site where blood cells are made.
72
Integumentary (skin) system
Specialized tissues covering and protecting the body. The skin helps retain fluids, regulates temperature, transmits information from the environment to the brain, and protects the body from the outside environment.
73
Muscular system
Tissues that allow movement of the body, beating of the heart, and movement within the organs of the digestive system and other tubular structures (e.g., helping move food through the intestines, allowing blood vessels to contract to raise blood pressure).
74
diaphragm
large, thick, flat muscle that separates the chest and abdomen.
75
Capillaries
connect the arterial side of the vascular system to the venous side
76
neuron
the cell that conducts information
77
A patient who has severe breathing problems but no other symptoms should be placed in what position?
High-Fowler (sitting upright)
78
The spleen is part of the lymphatic system. Name one other organ of that system
Tonsils
79
The skeletal system includes bones and ________ that support the body’s structure
ligaments
80
Blood travels from the right side of the heart to the
lungs.
81
Nutrients in the blood come from the ___________system
gastrointestinal/digestive
82
The sternum is located in which body section?
Thoracic
83
Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in which of the following structures?
Blood vessels and intestines
84
symptom
subjective complaint, is qualitative in nature, provided by the patient, the patient’s family, friends, or bystanders and are emotion-based descriptions.
85
sign
objective finding or evidence of disease that you can detect using your senses or that you can quantify. Examples of signs are dilated pupils, a deformed arm, audible respiratory wheezing
86
OPQRST
O—Onset: When did the symptoms begin?
P—Provocation and palliation: Does anything make the symptoms better or worse?
Q—Quality: Describe the nature of the symptoms. Is it sharp, dull, or throbbing?
R—Radiation: Determine whether the symptoms move from one area to another location or remain in one spot. “I have pain in my chest that radiates to my jaw.”
S—Severity: Describe the severity of the symptoms, using a 0–10 scale, with 0 being no pain and 10 being the worst pain they have ever felt.
T—Time: How long has the patient had the problem?
87
secondary patient assessment
obtain more information about the specific problem or to perform a more thorough physical assessment of the patient to ensure that no medical or traumatic problem was overlooked
88
DCAP-BTLS
D—Deformity
B—Burns/bleeding/bruises
C—Contusions
T—Tenderness
A—Abrasions/avulsions
L—Lacerations
P—Punctures/penetrations
S—Swelling
89
AVPU scale
A mnemonic for assessing neurologic function; represents awake and alert, responds to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive.
90
Decerebrate posturing
Abnormal extension of the arms and legs, downward pointing of the toes, and arching of the head due to an injury to the brain at the level of the brainstem.
91
Decorticate posturing
Abnormal flexing of the arms, clenching of the fists, and extending of the legs; due to an injury along the nerve pathway between the brain and spinal cord
92
Paraesthesia
A sensation of tingling, pricking, or numbness of the skin, or the feeling of “pins and needles” or a limb being “asleep.”
93
Primary patient assessment
A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats.
94
During the scene size-up, you will need to determine
the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.
95
When checking for level of responsiveness, you can use the mnemonic AVPU. The P in AVPU stands for
pain response.
96
During the patient assessment process, when taking a patient history, which mnemonic can you use to assess pain?
OPQRST
97
You approach an adult patient who has fallen on a mogul trail. The patient is sitting up and holding her arm against her chest. After ensuring that the scene is safe, you should:
introduce yourself and ask permission to assess, examine, and treat the patient.
98
During the primary patient assessment, when identifying life-threatening issues, which mnemonic should you use?
ABCD
99
The normal range for a pulse rate in an adult is
60 to 100 beats per minute
100
The normal range for a respiratory rate in a child is
15 to 30 respirations per minute
101
Your adult patient has a systolic blood pressure of 70 mm Hg. This is
an indication of possible serious illness.
102
When assessing breathing, the terms normal, deep, and shallow are used to describe the
quality of breaths
103
When taking a pulse, you should press gently against the artery with your:
index and middle fingers.
104
Your patient complains of abdominal pain and nausea. These subjective complaints are called
symptoms.
105
SAILER Acronym
S Sex of the patient
A Age of the patient
I Incident, chief complaint
L Location of incident/patient (Figure 8-4)
E Equipment needed (e.g., splints, backboards, toboggans)
R Resources needed (e.g., extra help, security personnel, management, BLS or ALS ambulance)
106
FACTUAL-OEC
F Facts: Include only information that is true and can be documented.
A Accurate: Describe what you saw, heard, and did correctly.
C Complete: Include all relevant information regarding the incident and the patient.
T Terms: Use only accepted medical terms and abbreviations.
U Unbiased: Information should be objective; avoid opinions.
A Avoid slang: Do not use informal words or words that have multiple meanings, unless quoting the patient.
L Legible/legal: Written reports should be written in clear, easy-to-read language, with black or blue ink.
O Organized: Present information in a logical manner; this is important when using an open-format PCR.
E Error-free: Ensure that all words are spelled correctly and that proper grammar is used.
C Checked: Proofread the document before submitting it.
107
What is the preferred radio response for saying “yes”?
Affirmative
108
The OEC technician can verbally report to others in a timely method about an incident using the acronym SAILER. The acronym is best represented by which of the following?
The patient’s sex and age, the chief complaint, your location, the resources you need
109
You are at the scene of a two-patient incident. Your first patient is ready for transport. The patroller with a toboggan just arrived. Your oral report to this patroller is called a:
handoff report
110
What is typically the first type of document an OEC technician will use for recording patient care?
Field care notes
111
On which form would you be most likely to use the SOAP or CHEATED acronyms?
Patient care report
112
When making a correction on a report, what is the correct procedure?
Make a single line through the error, write the correction nearby, and mark the time and date of the change and your initials.
113
The “clinical picture” of a patient contains information obtained by:
asking the patient SAMPLE questions.
doing a primary survey.
doing a secondary survey.
114
Inhalation (inspiration)
is an active process-respiratory muscles contract, creating negative internal pressure in the chest cavity, thereby causing air to flow into the lungs.
115
Exhalation (expiration)
the passive phase of respiration-the respiratory muscles relax, decreasing pressure within the chest, expelling any unused air and gaseous waste products from the lungs
116
Oropharyngeal Airway
Placed in the mouth ,Relieves airway obstruction caused by tongue. Must not be used in a responsive patient or a person with an intact gag reflex.
117
Nasopharyngeal Airway
Placed in the nose, Relieves airway obstruction caused by the tongue or by mucus and nasal swelling, Can be safely used in responsive and semi responsive patients or in a person with an intact gag reflex.
118
What is the function of the epiglottis?
Preventing food or liquids from entering the lower airway
119
The purpose of a pulse oximeter is to
evaluate oxygenation at the tissue level
120
You are called to the lodge and find a woman who is slumped in a chair. Upon assessment, you find that she is unresponsive and breathing normally. Her airway appears to be open and clear. Her friend tells you that she had complained of not feeling well and then “fell asleep.” The preferred way to position this patient would be:
in the recovery position.
121
You are artificially ventilating a patient, and you notice signs of gastric distention. The patient vomits. In order to correct the problem and prevent aspiration, you should:
place the patient in the recovery position and suction the airway.
122
When administering supplemental oxygen to a patient, it is important to remember to:
secure the tank.
123
When determining whether to use supplemental oxygen, you should consider:
signs of hypoxia.
the patient’s illness or injury.
the patient’s oxygen saturation levels.
124
When performing a finger sweep, it is important to
curve your finger into a hook to remove an object that can be seen.
125
You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:
distance from the patient’s nostril to the earlobe.
126
Shock
as inadequate perfusion or flow of blood to the cells, causing cellular and tissue hypoxia due to reduced oxygen delivery.
127
Perfusion
is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells’ current needs for oxygen, nutrients, and waste removal
128
Pump failure
If the heart cannot pump correctly (i.e., the heart fails), then cardiac output decreases and blood is not pumped to the body adequately to sustain life.
129
Failure of blood vessels to respond properly
In this condition, the veins and arteries expand too much, pooling blood in them. The smooth muscle in the arteries and veins does not constrict these tubes during some pathological conditions.
130
Low fluid volume.
In this condition, there is not enough blood to pump through the system. Blood can be lost through internal or external bleeding, or a medical condition can decrease the amount of healthy blood.
131
tachycardia
heart is beating too fast
132
tachypnea
breathing too quickly
133
Hypovolemic shock
results from a critical decrease in circulating fluid volume from bleeding or a loss of internal body fluid
134
Cardiogenic shock
the heart cannot adequately pump blood, resulting in poor cardiac output.
135
Distributive shock
blood vessels lose their ability to constrict appropriately- resulting in decreased arterial vascular resistance causing blood to pool within the capillary beds, producing a sudden drop in blood pressure and cellular hypoxia
136
Anaphylactic shock
caused by a severe allergic reaction to a substance
137
Septic shock
caused by a marked drop in blood pressure resulting from disruptions of the central nervous system, most often from a spinal cord injury.
138
Obstructive shock
results when a blockage prevents oxygenated blood from reaching vital organs
139
Tension Pneumothorax
integrity of the chest wall or lung is compromised (trauma), air can seep into the pleural space-Unless the air can escape, pressure within the chest cavity will rise, causing the lung to collapse and obstruction of venous blood returning to the heart, impeding the heart’s ability to pump effectively.
140
Pericardial Tamponade
can occur if fluid accumulates within the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart.
141
pulmonary embolism (thromboembolism)
a blood clot becomes stuck in and blocks a pulmonary artery
142
Anticoagulants
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
Apixaban (Eliquis)
143
Signs and Symptoms of Shock
Tachycardia (fast heart rate)
Hypotension (low blood pressure), occurs later
Tachypnea (shortness of breath)
Thirst, weakness, and nausea
Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin
Restlessness or combativeness
Altered mental status (occurs later)
144
Shock is defined as
failure of the cardiovascular (circulatory) system to maintain adequate blood flow to tissues.
145
In order to compensate for shock, the brain sends signals to the body causing
rate and force of heart contractions to increase.
146
A patient who is stung by a bee goes into anaphylactic shock. Blood vessels dilate, causing blood to pool in the vessels. What type of shock is this?
Distributive
147
You have been treating a patient with severe head injuries. His pulse is rising, his systolic blood pressure is falling, his respirations are shallow, his skin is cyanotic, and he has an altered mental status. In which stage of shock is this patient?
Decompensated
148
A man has a laceration on his arm and is bleeding. A woman nearby tells you that she cannot stand the sight of blood and then faints. Her fainting is the result of:
temporary dilation of the body’s veins, resulting in the pooling of blood in those vessels.
149
Your patient has received a crushing injury to the abdomen. You do not find any external injuries. You notice that your diaphoretic patient’s skin has become pale and cool. Your patient is anxious and complains of thirst and nausea. Your emergency care should include:
arranging for rapid transport to a medical facility.
150
A patient has a possible ruptured spleen, with a fast heart rate and dropping blood pressure. This type of shock is called:
hypovolemic.
151
A patient with signs of shock attributed to pump failure has:
poor cardiac output.
152
Causes of Altered Mental Status: AEIOU-TIPS
A—Alcohol and acidosis
E—Epilepsy, environment, and electrolytes
I—Insulin
O—Oxygen (hypoxia) and overdose
U—Uremia (kidney failure)
T—Trauma, tumors, transient ischemic attack, and thirst
I—Infection (CNS, sepsis)
P—Poisoning and psychiatric conditions
S—Seizures, stroke, sleep, and syncope
153
seizure
is an electrical disturbance within the brain that causes alterations in awareness, attentiveness, responsiveness, behavior, and body movement.
154
Causes of Diabetic Hypoglycemia
An excessive dose of insulin
An excessive dose or overdose of an oral hypoglycemic medication
Eating too little food after taking diabetes medicine
Overexertion, which exhausts glucose supplies
Illness with vomiting (loss of glucose intake)
Combinations of the previously listed causes
155
Stroke
neurologic brain impairment resulting from low blood flow or a lack of blood flow to areas of the brain.
156
General Signs and Symptoms of Stroke
Decreased responsiveness
Severe headache
Drooping eyelid and mouth on one side of the face
Paralysis or weakness on one or both sides of the body
Arm drift
Loss of bowel or bladder control
Change in personality
Pupils unequal in size
Loss of vision, dimness, or double vision
Difficulty speaking or slurred speech
Inability to speak
Nausea or vomiting
Sudden weakness or paralysis of the face, arm, or leg
Possible seizures
157
Clonic activity
The spasmodic jerking of muscles during a seizure.
158
Diabetes mellitus
A disease in which the body’s ability to produce or respond to the hormone insulin is impaired, resulting in abnormal metabolism of carbohydrates (sugars) causing elevated levels of glucose in the blood and urine.
159
Epilepsy
A disorder in which abnormal electrical discharges occur in the brain, causing seizure and possible loss of responsiveness.
160
Altered mental status is defined as an abnormal change in a person’s level of:
awareness or responsiveness.
161
You are called to a restaurant at your resort for an elderly woman who has altered mental status. You notice her slumped to one side of her chair. When you ask her name, she looks at you but does not respond. You decide to perform a stroke assessment and remember the acronym FAST-ED. You ask the woman to smile so that you can check for:
facial drooping.
162
Emergency care for a patient suffering from a stroke should focus on the ABCDs and:
arranging for immediate transport to a definitive-care facility.
163
Your patient is in the ictal phase of a grand mal seizure. Your emergency care should focus on:
protecting the patient from injury.
164
A condition in which there is a temporary interruption of blood flow to an area of the brain resulting in no permanent brain injury is called a:
transient ischemic attack.
165
Which type of stroke is characterized by a blood clot traveling through the bloodstream and lodging in an artery of the brain?
Ischemic
166
A Nordic skier is sitting on the side of a trail. He appears to be confused but can answer questions. He has been skiing for 3 hours without a break. The SAMPLE history reveals that the patient is a diabetic and his last oral intake was about 8 hours ago. You suspect that he is suffering from:
hypoglycemia.
167
What is the first step you should take in caring for a patient with suspected hypoglycemia?
Providing oral glucose
168
Your patient presents with an altered mental status. He has a weak, rapid pulse; warm, dry skin; deep, rapid respirations; and a fruity odor to his breath. He has a medical alert bracelet indicating that he is diabetic. His friend tells you that the patient has not been feeling well for about a week. These finding lead you to believe that the patient is suffering from:
hyperglycemia.
169
Absorption
routes of absorption are ingestion, inhalation, transdermal absorption, and injection
170
poison
a substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body.
171
Toxins
is a poison that comes from a living organism.
172
SLUDGEM(Poisoning)
S—Salivation
L—Lacrimation (tearing)
U—Urination
D—Defecation
G—Gastrointestinal irritation (vomiting)
E—Eye (pupillary) constriction
M—Miosis/muscle twitching
173
DUMBELS (Poisoning)
D—Defecation
U—Urination
M—Miosis (constriction of the pupils)/muscle weakness
B—Bronchorrhea (discharge of mucus from the airways)
E—Emesis (vomiting)
L—Lacrimation (tearing)
S—Salivation
174
The process by which the body breaks down a substance is called
metabolism.
175
Your patient encountered poison ivy on a trail at your resort 2 days ago. He is complaining of itching and burning sensations. This patient has absorbed a poison through which of the following means?
Transdermal absorption
176
A customer at your ski resort has intentionally misused opioids, resulting in an impaired ability to ski. This guest demonstrates
substance abuse.
177
A class of drugs that includes heroin, fentanyl, morphine, codeine, and oxycodone is called:
opioids.
178
You are called to the maintenance shop where two mechanics have been working on snow grooming equipment. The outside temperature is below zero and the garage doors to the maintenance shop have been closed. The mechanics are complaining of headache, dizziness, nausea, and breathing difficulty. You recognize these symptoms to be associated with:
carbon monoxide poisoning.
179
The emergency care for patients who are suffering from substance abuse or poisoning should include:
reducing further exposure and absorption.
providing rapid transport to a definitive-care facility.
contacting the poison control center.
180
You are called to the parking lot at your resort. Chemicals are spilling out of a truck. Important information about the chemicals can be obtained by calling:
CHEMTREC.
181
The mnemonics SLUDGEM and DUMBELS can help identify specific signs and symptoms associated with poisoning. The “L” in these mnemonics stands for lacrimation, which means what?
Tearing
182
