OG: Tech Flight Options Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
Max pressure ALT for ops
A
35,000ft
2
Q
Aircraft yaw damp must be operative above ___?
A
F190
3
Q
Kingair is __ft long and ___ft wingspan?
A
47ft long
58ft wingspan
4
Q
Entrance door is locked from the inside by
A
Turning handle clockwise
5
Q
[DOOR UNLOCKED] master warning indicates?
A
Airstair door is open or not secure
6
Q
Pro Line avionics system supports all cockpit systems except?
A
HUD (heads up display)
7
Q
Standard lead battery installed is rated at __V?
A
24Volts
8
Q
Essential electrical equipment is powered by?
A
Battery bus/dual fed bus
9
Q
Hydraulic pressure is provided to what systems? What system does not have hydraulic power?
A
Landing gear/flaps/toe brakes
Not provided to the park brake
10
Q
Ice protection is provided to what systems? and what does not have ice protection?
A
Wing leading edges/pitot masks/stall warning vane
Nil ice protection; Static ports
11
Q
Cabin pressurisation is controlled from?
A
ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL group
12
Q
Vxse is ___IAS (Engine out best angle of CLB)
A
125kts
13
Q
Faults that illuminate the ____ annunciators require immediate reaction/attention of the pilot
A
RED WARNING
14
Q
A red warning annunciator will extinguish when?
A
The fault is no longer sensed
15
Q
A flashing MASTER WARNING light will remain illuminated until?
A
The light face is pressed
16
Q
The PRESS TO TEST button confirms the status of
A
Light circuit integrity and bulb status
17
Q
The power sources for the electrical system include
A
Battery, two generators, ground power
18
Q
The Kingair350 electrical system is commonly referred to as?
A
The triple fed system
19
Q
The battery for the KA350 is rated at?
A
24V
20
Q
External power can be used to operate?
A
All electrical systems when the engines aren’t operating
21
Q
What cockpit switch enables AC power to cabin outlets?
A
INTERIOR MASTER switch
22
Q
What does the loadmeter indicate?
A
Generator load as a percentage of generator rating
23
Q
What does L/R DC GEN (yellow) annunciator message indicate (Caution)
A
Generator is offline (L/R)
24
Q
Where are the generator and battery load gauges located?
A
Overhead light control panel
25
What is the purpose of the battery bus?
Provides power to the essential systems
26
During battery start, prior to selecting ON with the "ignition and engine start switch" and before starting the second engine, the DC loadmeter should read approx ___% or less
50%
27
The min battery voltage required for external PWR start is?
20V
28
Control switched that are operable during a dual generator failure are indicated by ____ the switch
A white circle around the switch
29
A Gen bus tie will open automatically to protect the electrical system from malfunction when excessive current is sensed on _____ bus.
The same side generator
30
The external power cart must be set to ___V and capable of generating a min of ____ amps momentarily and ___ amps continuously
28 - 28.4V
1000A
300A
31
Max sustained generator load at 30,000ft is ___%
95%
32
Cockpit flood lights and indirect (glareshield) instrument lights are controlled by?
Rheostat knobs
33
Emergency exit lighting is installed?
In ceiling adjacent to the entry door and between the emergency exits
34
EXIT signs automatically illuminate during normal flight ops when?
Rapid deceleration is sensed
35
The switch to control the threshold light for the airstair door is located?
By the threshold light
36
Both wing ice lights are required to be operable for flight in?
Icing conditions
37
Selecting LDG lights on will illuminate?
Landing lights ONLY regardless of gear position
38
Effects of engine anti ice on NCP (reset handbook pwr/unable to reset handbook pwr)
- Nil ice present
- Ice present
Nil ice:
TQ decreases by 14%
- handbook pwr is not reset: TAS will decrease by 20kts, FF will decrease by 40lbs/hr/per eng
- Handbook pwr reset: TAS unchanged, FF increases by 45lbs/hr/per eng.
Ice present:
TQ decreases by 16%
- Handbook pwr not reset: TAS decrease by 70kts, FF decrease by 50lbs/hr/per eng
- Handbook pwr reset: TAS decrease by 50kts, FF increases by 45lbs/hr/per eng
39
Effects of engine anti ice on MRP
- Nil ice (what to do)
- Ice present (what do do)
Nil ice:
TQ decreases by 4%
- IOT maintain Max range configuration, do not reset handbook pwr value.
- FF will remain the same, TAS decrease approx 10kts
Ice present
TQ decreases by 5%
- IOT maintain Max range configuration, reset power 5% above handbook value
-FF increases 25lbs/hr/per eng and TAS decreases approx 30kts
40
a FUEL PRES LO message indicates that?
Fuel pressure is too low
41
Motive flow pressure for the auxiliary transfer pump comes from?
Primary boost pump
42
Each side of the main fuel system contains?
Five tanks and a nacelle tank
43
Immediate engine flameout can be expected from?
High Pressure boost pump failure
44
The standby boost pumps are operated by?
Electrical power
45
An integral fuel tank is also called a?
Wet cell
46
Maximum engine overhaul interval with the use of Avgas?
150hrs
47
How many fuel drains does the KA350 have?
5
48
Max lateral fuel imbalance allowable?
300lbs
49
If aux fuel is rqd, what tanks are filled first?
The aux tanks must be filled AFTER the main tanks have been filled
50
Total useable fuel for KA350
3611lbs
51
What does operating props in the reverse range do?
Resets the fuel topping governor to 95% prop rpm
52
What does moving the prop lever into the feathering range do?
Dumps high pressure oil
53
What does the constant speed governor respond to?
Control level
54
What is the fuel heated by?
An oil heat exchanger
55
What is the power lever connected to?
Governor in the FCU (fuel control unit)
56
What does the Autofeather system require to activate?
Power levers above 90% N1
57
What is the fuel control system powered by?
The pneumatic system
58
What does the auto ignition system do?
Prevents engine loss during critical flight conditions
59
What should the engines be operated at for maximum reversing performance?
70% N1 high idle
60
When is the prop synchrophaser engaged?
When the prop pitch angles are within 30deg of a preset angle
61
What is the minimum N1 required to select low idle on engine start?
12%
62
If the compressor bleed valve fails to close as static power is set, torque will indicate ____ than normal, and ITT will indticate ____ than normal
Lower; higher
63
Ignition occurs during engine start and during operations of ____ or less when ignition is _____
17% torque, armed
64
Max allowable continuous ITT for takeoff
820deg
65
Oil temp between 99 deg and 110 deg are limited to ___ mins?
10min
66
Max gas generator N1 RPM limit for takeoff is?
104%
67
The prop governor is scheduled to control RPM between?
1450 - 1700
68
The autofeather system will feather the inoperative engines prop when the inoperative engine torque falls below?
10% torque
69
The overspeed governor limits RPM to a max of?
1768rpm
70
Max allowable continuous RPM for take off?
1700rpm
71
The fire detection system includes what components?
ENG FIRE annunciator messages
A FIRE DET circuit breaker
A temperature sensing cable
72
Where are the fire extinguisher cylinders located?
In each wheel well
73
The red EXTINGUISHER PUSH light illuminates when?
When the ENG FIRE TEST switch is in the EXT position
74
When will the amber DISCHARGED light illuminate?
The pyrotechnic cartridge has been fired
75
Proper extinguisher pressure is a function of?
Ambient temperature
76
What will happen when a fire has been extinguished?
The detection system will reset (if undamaged)
77
Pneumatic pressure for system operation is?
18psi
78
Pneumatic bleed air is used to operate everything except?
Yaw damping
79
Response to a L or R BLEED FAIL annunciator message includes moving?
BLEED AIR VALVE switch
80
Normal operating pressure range for pneumatic pressure gauge is?
12 - 20psi
81
After selecting the bleed air valve to pneumatic and environmental off after illumination of a single L or R BLEED FAIL annunciator, the annunciator will:
Remain illuminated
82
Regulated pneumatic air pressure
Inflate the boots
83
Vacuum air is provided for?
Wing deice boot hold down
84
Normal vacuum pressure range at low level is?
4.3 to 5.9Hg
85
Cockpit & cabin heating is provided by?
Engine Bleed air
86
Bleed air that isn't needed for cabin and cockpit air conditioning is..?
Directed aft to the baggage compartment
87
The supplemental electric heating system warms the?
Cabin area
88
The ENVIR BLEED AIR switch should be selected to ____ for climbs?
NORMAL
89
What is the cooling system made up of?
A refrigeration compressor, a condenser and two evaporators
90
The COCKPIT TEMP switch can set windshield and glare shield defog temperatures when the ECS MODE selector is set to;
MAN COOL
91
Where is the air conditioning compressor located?
In the right hand engine accessory area
92
Turning the cockpit TEMP switch fully counter-clockwise selects?
The coolest temp
93
The cockpit and cabin floor heat servos are commanded open when?
MAN HEAT is selected
94
Windshield defogging is controlled by?
The COCKPIT TEMP switch
95
If the engine speed is too low for the airconditioning compressor to properly engage;
What will happen? and What is the N1 %?
<62% N1 for the right hand engine
| The white AIR COND N1 LOW status annunciator illuminates
96
For more efficiency cooling on the ground, place the BLEED AIR VALVE switches to the ____ position
ENVIR OFF
97
Before T/O, crew should set the ACFT ALT scale to
1000ft abve planned cruise pressure altitude
98
The max selectable rate at which cabin pressurisation can change is?
2,000 ft per minute
99
The aircraft pressurisation system can maintain a maximum cabin atmosphere differential of?
6.5 +/- 0.1 psi
100
The TEST position of the CABIN PRESS switch is used to?
Test pressurisation system whilst on the ground
101
The white CABIN ALT annunciator and the red CABIN ALT HI annunciator illuminates at? When do the oxy masks fall?
10,000ft
12,000ft
12,500ft
102
The oxygen systems must first be enabled by?
A PULL ON- SYSTEM READY handle
103
First air oxygen is available from a supply in?
The toilet compartment in the aft fuselage
104
If cabin smoke or fumes is encountered, the flight deck crew should put their oxygen to;
EMERG
105
Oxygen can be isolated to only the crew and first aid asks with;
Push the PASSENGER MANUAL DROP OUT handle IN and pull the OXYGEN CONTROL circuit breaker
106
The pressure sensitive switch in the passenger oxygen line illuminates which lights?
A foyer light, cabin lights and the centre baggage compartment light
107
Oxygen flows in the passenger masks when?
A lanyard valve pin is pulled
108
Deployment of the passenger oxygen masks is indicated by the illumination of the _____ annunciator
White PASS OXY ON system status
109
The amber OXY NOT ARMED caution annunciator illuminates when the;
Main oxygen system is not armed
110
Crew oxygen is provided by a ____ oxygen mask
Diluter demand quick donning
111
What areas does the KA350 have Deice systems? (removal)
- Wing leading edges
- Horizontal stabiliser leading edge
- Prop
- Brakes
112
What areas does the KA350 have Anti-ice systems (prevention)
- Engine air inlets & compressor
- Windshield
- Pitot Masts
- Stall vane
- Fuel
113
What do the propeller deicing boots do and how are they powered?
Heat blades according to a set cycle (electrical heat)
114
What can the windshield heating do?
Affect the accuracy of the magnetic compass
115
What does the anti-icing for the leading edge engine inlet utillise?
Hot exhaust gas
116
How does stall warning vane heat operate?
A two different heating levels
117
Leading edge wing and horizontal stabiliser surfaces are deiced with?
Inflatable boots
118
What does the engine inertial vane do?
Protects the engine compressor screen
119
How is fuel heated?
Uses fuel to oil heat exchange
120
Windshield rain removal?
Utilises two-speed wiper arms
121
Wing deice boots should be used?
Only after about 1/2 an ice of ice has accumulated on the wings
122
In the event of windshield icing, reduce speed to?
226kts IAS
123
During flight in visible moisture, or an night when flight from visible moisture cannot be assured, engine anti-ice must be on at temperatures below?
5deg C
124
Hydraulic power for the landing gear comes from?
A hydraulic power pack
125
Separate hydraulic lines are provided for which operating modes for gear extension/retraction?
- Emergency extension
- Normal retraction
- Normal extension
(A separate hydraulic line is not provided for Manual retraction)
126
The main landing gear are locked in the down position by?
Drag legs
127
The landing gear is...?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
128
Unsafe gear indications are probably genuine for what situations?
- The inoperative GEAR DOWN light does illuminate when tested
- The red LDG GEAR CONTROL handle lights are illuminated
- The gear warning horn sounds when the power levers are retarded below N1
129
The LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE EXTENSION handle is located?
On the floor between the pilots seat and the pedestal
130
The aircrew can test the HYD FLUID LOW annunciator circuitry by;
Pressing the HYD FLUID SENSOR TEST button
131
The landing gear warning horn will sound continuously when the gear is not down and locked, and;
The flaps are beyond the approach position
132
The best ground turning performance is achieve when?
Rudder pedals, brakes and engine power are used together
133
The parking brake should not be set under what conditions?
High moisture conditions, with hot brakes and in freezing temperatures
134
The max permitted LDG gear extension speed
184kts IAS
135
Manually operated trim tabs are installed on which surfaces?
Rudder, Left aileron (NOT right) and elevator
136
The rudder boost system will disengage when?
Either AP/TRIM MASTER switch is pressed
137
A functioning rudder boost system is indicated during pre-takeoff checks by?
Rudder movement forward on the side OPPOSITE the idling engine
138
Electric elevator trim system can be disengaged by
Pressing the AP/TRIM MASTER switch to the second indent
139
In the case of a mismatch between flap positions, what happens?
A safety mechanism will disconnect power to the electric motor
140
Why must the ground control locks be removed before towing the airplane?
Otherwise the steering linkage could suffer serious damage
