OIC - All Decks Flashcards

Question

Are cell phone navigation apps authorized?

Answer 1

Raster charts are flat images of paper charts. Each paper chart has a corresponding raster chart that is its digital equivalent.

Answer 2

1) Danger 2) Warning 3) Caution

Answer 3

The common intersection of three or more LOPs (including LOPs from celestial bodies) obtained from simultaneous observations.

Answer 4

The Drag Circle, centered on the anchoring location, has a radius equal to the distance from the hawsepipe to pelorus, radar antenna, or GPS antenna, added to the length of the anchor chain released.

Answer 5

List of ready, up-to-date paper charts carried on each boat; Areas for AOR familiarization; Areas that pose navigational or environmental risk; Specific operating guidance such as speed limits, safe distances from known hazards, and fix intervals; Navigation and piloting requirements; Dead reckoning plot requirements.

Answer 6

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR): Title 33 – Navigation and Navigable Waters, specifies navigation requirements for private, commercial, and public vessels.

Answer 7

1) Plot a DR position at least every hour on the hour 2) Plot a DR position at every course change 3) Plot a DR position at every speed change 4) Regenerate DR plot after each fix or running fix 5) Plot a DR position when obtaining a single line of position

Answer 8

All Units Additional Cutter Items Additional Shore Based Items Units performing tactical/ high speed operations

Answer 9

1) Reducing speed 2) Taking all way off 3) Increasing fix frequency 4) Turning away from the danger

Answer 10

Daily and, if possible, prior to mooring.

Answer 11

1) Approved chart | 2) Currently corrected chart

Answer 12

1) Latitude and longitude provided by installed equipment. 2) The common intersection of three or more radar ranges obtained from simultaneous observations. 3) The use of radar/chart matching. 4) The use of a combination of visual LOPs and radar ranges is an electronic fix.

Answer 13

If fix interval is three minutes or greater, determine set and drift with every fix.

Answer 14

1) eNav system has primary positioning source and approved, currently corrected electronic chart data. 2) eNav system has adequate back-up system and back-up positioning source.

Answer 15

Restricted Costal Open Ocean

Answer 16

The Ship’s Log must include time of anchorage, depth of water, which anchor used, scope of chain, type of bottom, ship’s head, and bearings to objects designated by the Navigator.

Answer 17

A chart is currently corrected if it has been corrected within the last 6 months.

Answer 18

National Differential GPS (NDGPS) system and the Wide Area Augment System (WAAS).

Answer 19

If NTMs/LNMs have been issued past the manufacturer’s electronic chart base date, then CO/OICs can authorize use of SINS as a primary means of navigation if a currently corrected and prepared paper chart is immediately available.

Answer 20

Units must report degradations, outages, and other incidents or anomalies to the Navigation Center via the GPS Problem Worksheet.

Answer 21

Navigate with eNav system. Currently corrected Paper Charts broken out and ready for use.

Answer 22

Specific guidance for small boats operating independently; Navigation team manning requirements; Helm and engine order commands; Anchor and mooring bills; List of paper charts required to be onboard and list of paper charts to be corrected; Physical characteristics of cutter; Tactical info.

Answer 23

If the fix interval is less than three minutes, determine set and drift with every second fix.

Answer 24

The system produces a brief audible alarm and flashes yellow. Warning alarms alert the user to issues that, if left uncorrected, could compromise safety of navigation.

Answer 25

Maintain checklists locally for 90 days after completion of the evolution, and then destroy them.

Answer 26

Installed eNav system, with automatic positioning input, used as primary means of navigation.

Answer 27

Shift to paper charts within one fix interval.

Answer 28

Once a day in open ocean, every third fix in restricted waters. Must use an unrelated positioning source.

Answer 29

The Swing Circle, centered on the anchoring location, has a radius equal to length of the vessel added to the length of anchor chain released.

Answer 30

The Navigator

Answer 31

1) Official ENC/USACE IENC 2) NGA DNC 3) Official RNC 4) Commercial Vector Chart 5) Commercial Raster Charts

Answer 32

Prior to getting underway (cutters and boats); Prior to entering port; Prior to entering restricted water (cutter and boat, if possible).

Answer 33

Maintain these orders locally for three years after the date of the final entry, and then destroy them.

Answer 34

Traditional paper navigation used as primary means of navigation.

Answer 35

Maintain proficiency; Prepare charts for precision anchoring; Anchor the cutter; Determine position while at anchor; Weigh anchor.

Answer 36

Ensure ability to transfer to paper plot within one fix interval if eNav system fails.

Answer 37

Boats without SINS or ECS w/ adequate positioning source.

Answer 38

1) Approved electronic chart 2) Currently corrected electronic chart database 3) Current edition of paper chart is onboard. Designated Ready Charts are currently corrected.

Answer 39

These charts include Electronic Navigation Charts (ENC), Inland Electronic Navigation Charts (IENC), and Digital Nautical Charts (DNC).

Answer 40

The minimum information required during route planning and route monitoring for safe navigation of the vessel. CO/OICs must include standard display information in the Command Navigation Standards for all cutters and boats under their command.

Answer 41

Describe the conditions when tactical/ high speed ops are permitted; A continuum of tactics providing range of response through deadly force; Implications and mitigation or risk and response to threat environment; Application and limits for training and normal operations.

Answer 42

The Family Resource Specialist.

Answer 43

Requests for restricted reporting can be received by a CG healthcare provider, a FAS, or other HSWL Regional Practice staff member when performing FAS duties, or a Victim Advocate.

Answer 44

Medical, physical, psychological, educational.

Answer 45

Incident determination committee.

Answer 46

To help facilitate a victim's recovery process, members may apply for a six-month body fat exemption.

Answer 47

The Family Advocacy Specialist is required to report all cases of abuse to Coast Guard Investigative Service. The Family Advocacy Specialist is required to notify all involved active duty members’ commands. All reports of child maltreatment must be reported to the state agency responsible for investigating such reports.

Answer 48

Held annually every April.

Answer 49

Active Duty members and their dependents Select Reservist and their dependents Full-time Civil Service employees and their dependents Full-time Exchange System and MWR employees and their dependents

Answer 50

Ultimate responsibility for the update of enrollment information rests with the US Coast Guard member.

Answer 51

Within 24 hours of an incident.

Answer 52

Depression, Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD), Autism, Substance Dependence.

Answer 53

Looking for childcare, In-home child care certification for CG families, Special needs program, Elder care, Adoption Reimbursement, Scholarships, loans, and grants.

Answer 54

Climate Prevention Response Accountability

Answer 55

All discussions between a member using the Adoption Reimbursement Program and the Adoption Reimbursement Program Manager are confidential, with the exception of government audits, to determine appropriate use of government funding.

Answer 56

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC) Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) Transition/ Relocation Manager (TRM) Health Promotion Manager (HPM) Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS) Family Resource Specialist (FRS)

Answer 57

Active Duty Coast Guard Coast Guard Reservists on active duty for at least 180 days

Answer 58

The primary function of the Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS) is to reduce and prevent family violence within the Coast Guard. The FAS accomplishes this through a case handling management system.

Answer 59

A request for respite care assistance may be initiated only by a Family Resource Specialist or Family Advocacy Specialist at a local Work-Life Regional Practice.

Answer 60

Coordinate the development and management of the regional Health Promotion (HP) Program designed to educate and encourage all Coast Guard beneficiaries to improve their health and well being through the voluntary adoption of healthy life-styles.

Answer 61

The Substance Abuse Prevention Program is a resource that is available to Active Duty Coast Guard members. Only the training aspect of the Substance Abuse Program is available to the Coast Guard Auxiliary, Reservists and civilian employees.

Answer 62

Any event with sufficient impact to produce significant emotional reactions now or later. It is generally considered extremely unusual in the range of ordinary human experiences.

Answer 63

Wheelchair Use, Use of Assistive Technology Devices (communication devices, hearing aids, etc.).

Answer 64

Sexual Assault Incident report CG-5370.

Answer 65

SNP enrollment updates for each family member enrolled in the program are due every three years or in conjunction with the submission of your e-resume, if you are tour-complete.

Answer 66

The Family Resource Specialist (FRS) is responsible for providing information and referral services regarding dependent care options to beneficiaries, including the areas of child care, elder care, adoption reimbursement, scholarships, and special needs.

Answer 67

12 sessions, per problem, per year.

Answer 68

As mandated by law and regulations. all contact with the CG SUPRT are held in strict confidence, except in some unique situations such as when someone threatens to harm himself or others. The CG SUPRT Program is provided by an outside contractor to better assure confidentiality and access in all the CG locations.

Answer 69

Senior representative from Victim’s Command (Chair) SARC CGIS Legal (Judge Advocate) Medical (Health Care Provider) Senior representative from Subject’s Command

Answer 70

An active duty or reserve Coast Guard service member who adopts a child under 18 years of age may be reimbursed authorized adoption expenses up to $2,000 per adoptive child, but no more than $5,000 per calendar year.

Answer 71

A report of an incident of intimate partner maltreatment made by an ADULT victim who requests FAP and/or medical services while also requesting that the maltreatment NOT be reported to the CGIS, the Incident Determination Committee, or the alleged offender’s or victim’s command.

Answer 72

Active Duty (including activated Reserve personnel) and their dependents Retired personnel and their dependents as requested and to the extent resources permit Intimate Partners of Active Duty members who are not beneficiaries

Answer 73

You can contact CGSUPRT 24 hours a day, 365 days a year.

Answer 74

Active Duty

Answer 75

The Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC) will act as the primary field COTR for all employee assistance issues within the assigned AOR. The EAPC will monitor and assess the current contract to ensure services are provided to all beneficiaries.

Answer 76

Efforts are made to ensure that you, a sponsor with a dependent family member(s) with special needs, are assigned to duty stations where access to, and availability of, medical and community special needs services are validated.

Answer 77

TRMs may provide "Welcome Packages" with local resource information. If you would like a Welcome Package, contact the TRM in the Work-Life office at your receiving unit.

Answer 78

Such agreements must be with the concurrence of all commands and the ombudsmen involved, and should be specified in writing, including any agreed-upon provisions for support of the ombudsmen.

Answer 79

The eldercare information and referral services are intended to provide information, resources, and referral services for individuals and families who are dealing with issues related to planning and caring for their elderly and aging family members.

Answer 80

Unit Commander's Checklist for Unrestricted Reports of Sexual Assault

Answer 81

Minimum - 1 year Maximum - 3 years

Answer 82

1-855-CGSUPRT

Answer 83

Reimbursement of Adoption Expenses, COMDTINST 1754.9

Answer 84

Use of an Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) or an Individualized Education Plan (IEP).

Answer 85

Afloat units and deployable specialized forces are encouraged to appoint an ombudsman, due to the unique separation and stress experienced by members and families assigned to these units.

Answer 86

Diabetes, Cancer, Asthma/Allergies, Migraines, Anemia, Prematurity.

Answer 87

The Adoption Reimbursement Program is intended to subsidize the adoption of children under 18 years of age for members of the Coast Guard.

Answer 88

Eligibility extends to Coast Guard families in which a family member has been diagnosed with a profound disability, or a serious or terminal illness that requires on-going care and attention and is enrolled in the Coast Guard Special Needs Program.

Answer 89

To keep CG member and families physically, psychologically, spiritually, and financially healthy so CG members can preform CG missions fully without distraction.

Answer 90

If you willfully fail to enroll, update enrollment information, or knowingly provide false information regarding a special needs status, you may be subject to disciplinary action or other adverse administrative action, per your unit commanding officer in consultation with the servicing legal office.

Answer 91

The victim signed a Victim Reporting Preference Statement and elected the unrestricted reporting option. The sexual assault occurred within one year of the exemption request. The member was not on body fat probation when the sexual assault occurred.

Answer 92

At least monthly or as needed based on case developments, case disposition, or requested by a member.

Answer 93

Within three months of appointment.

Answer 94

Telephonic consultation and face-to-face sessions with a counselor are provided at no cost to you.

Answer 95

The Family Advocacy Program is a Congressionally-mandated program that addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard.

Answer 96

Discussions of the Work-Place Violence and Threatening Behavior Program are not confidential.

Answer 97

Certain medical conditions may warrant temporary enrollment. Contact your Family Resource Specialist (FRS), and he/she will coordinate with the Senior Medical Executive (SME) for a final decision.

Answer 98

Information concerning enrollment in the SNP or data used in this program is not made part of your service record. All information related to the SNP is strictly confidential with access only by authorized personnel who have the need-to-know.

Answer 99

The SNP provides a comprehensive, coordinated, multidisciplinary approach to community support, housing, medical, educational, and personnel services for Coast Guard families with special needs.

Answer 100

To administer the Coast Guard’s Transition/Relocation and Spouse Employment Assistance Program. This program is intended to assist active duty, recalled reservists, recently separated and retired personnel, civilian members, and family members during the relocation cycle.

Answer 101

Yes, for active duty service members, PHS officers serving with the Coast Guard, and reserve members on active duty for 181 days or more who have dependent family members diagnosed with medical, psychological, physical, or educational special needs.

Answer 102

The reimbursement request must be submitted no later than 1 year after finalization of the adoption.

Answer 103

The CGMA Respite Care Program provides a “break” for a few hours a week, or month, to eligible Coast Guard clients who have responsibility 24 hours per day to care for an ill or disabled family member who lives in the same household.

Answer 104

Coast Guard Area, District, Sector, and Base commanders, and the Superintendent of the Coast Guard Academy, shall appoint one or more ombudsmen.

Answer 105

No less than 30 min and up to an hour free.

Answer 106

The maximum number of respite care hours may not normally exceed 40 hours per month (average usage 8 hours per week). The maximum hourly rate for respite care may not normally exceed $20/hour.

Answer 107

Eldercare discussions with Work-Life and CG SUPRT personnel are confidential.

Answer 108

6-12 Months

Answer 109

No contact what-so-ever.

Answer 110

On a Coast Guard Reimbursement Registration for Adoption Expenses form.

Answer 111

Under temporary separation, career-oriented officers and enlisted members are allowed a one time separation from active duty for up to two years.

Answer 112

Active Duty, Reservists and their dependents Civil Service employees Exchange System and MWR employees

Answer 113

Information regarding the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is not completely confidential. However, case related personal information pertaining to substance use, abuse and chemical dependency is strictly confidential and shared only on a "Need-To-Know" basis with professionals relevant to the subject matter.

Answer 114

All child maltreatment cases are unrestricted.

Answer 115

Active duty service members, PHS officers serving with the Coast Guard, and reserve members on active duty for 181 days or more who have dependent family members diagnosed with medical, psychological, physical, or educational special needs.

Answer 116

Chain of command, military or civilian law enforcement, or military criminal investigative organization, and the FAP for intervention.

Answer 117

The area outside the boundary is called the Assessment Zone (AZ). If conditions warrant, additional boats may be deployed into the AZ to intercept and escort, to extend the range of interception, to detect potential threats, and to escort vessels entering and leaving port.

Answer 118

High Capacity Passenger Vessel

Answer 119

Phase 1: PQS, done at the unit.

Answer 120

Command Presence

Answer 121

Level 1 PWCS Units are classified based on assigned Limited Access Area (LAA) and/or Security Zone (SZ) enforcement activities which require Mounted Automatic Weapons (MAW).

Answer 122

High Value Asset

Answer 123

The pier to which the HVA will be moored should also be checked both from the water and from the shore. The pier area shall be carefully inspected for possible explosive devices.

Answer 124

Units not classified as Level 1 PWCS units (therefore not likely to have Tactical Coxswain/Tactical Boat Crew Members (TCOXN/TBCMs)), shall perform certain PWCS activities including Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (MCI/KR) patrols and security boarding's with a MAW

Answer 125

Reaction Zone Intercept Zone Sector Boundary Assessment Zone Patrol Area

Answer 126

Less than 875yds.

Answer 127

Block Sails Use Lines, nets, or entanglers Sever Fuel lines Deliver F/F Water to flood engines Physically Blocking Shouldering

Answer 128

The sector is a portion of the SZ defined by boundary lines that converge at the asset. Sectors are designated with letters (e.g., Sector A). Normally, no more than four sectors are necessary within the entire SZ, and the number of sectors may vary according to the number of RBs available for patrol. The number of sectors within the SZ need not necessarily coincide exactly with those in the RZ.

Answer 129

Employ Lines, Nets or Entanglers Sever or Disconnect Fuel Lines Shouldering Ramming

Answer 130

TACON may also serve as SAR Mission Coordinator (SMC) for SAR forces within that region. When this is not the case, TACON should coordinate with SMC (normally the Sector/Group/Air Station Commander).

Answer 131

The designated OPCON is responsible for developing plans that will use available resources to provide for the protection of a HVA.

Answer 132

Reaction Vessel

Answer 133

In moving SZ enforcement (protected asset is underway), a minimum of a two-boat patrol is normally required. Additional security vessels may be used as indicated by the situation and conditions.

Answer 134

If the SV is unable to regain its tactical position on the TOI, they shall call “I’m beat” over the VHF-FM radio alerting all SZPU assets.

Answer 135

M16 & M240

Answer 136

An alternative to patrol orders is an Incident Action Plan (IAP).

Answer 137

Bolt forward in battery on an empty chamber. First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop. Machine gun cover closed. Safety in the fire position.

Answer 138

Cease fire when the vessel stops, is disabled, enters foreign territorial seas, or if it becomes unsafe to continue.

Answer 139

Gunner Restraint Device(s) Crew Restraint Device(s) Helmet Ballistic Goggles Boat Crew Communications System (BCCS) (Level I units, bow gunner and Coxswain required)

Answer 140

Operational Control

Answer 141

High volume of Certain Dangerous Cargo (CDC) vessels transiting through Key Port Areas/Resources, High volume escorts of High Capacity Passenger Vessels (HCPV), Military Out-Load (MOL) facility, escort, and point protection, Fixed Security Zone enforcement ISO NSSE/SEAR Events and at higher risk Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (CIKR), High Value Unit (HVU) and High Value Asset (HVA) Escorts, and High volume of High Interest Vessel (HIV) boarding's in the port.

Answer 142

Means the level for which appropriate additional protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of time as a result of heightened risk of a transportation security incident.

Answer 143

Screen Vessel

Answer 144

The SV will clear the RV Field of Fire (FOF) and, if there is sufficient time, the SV should move toward the Reaction zone to back up RV and triangulate the FOF.

Answer 145

Bolt locked to the rear. First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop. Machine gun cover closed. Safety in the safe position.

Answer 146

The gunner restraint system is the approved, two-part harness which tethers the gunner to the boat.

Answer 147

Bow-on Opening Maneuver

Answer 148

They determine CDC escorts.

Answer 149

Vessel on Vessel JUFE.

Answer 150

SZs may be established only by the COTP or District Commander. The authority creating the zone will determine its physical size and restrictions it imposes on those seeking to enter or operate within it.

Answer 151

Boats assigned to SZ enforcement responsibilities should not be reassigned from those duties to respond to SAR missions, except where the urgency of the SAR incident (life could be lost if assistance is not immediately provided) requires a rapid decision and response.

Answer 152

Personnel shall wear no more than one gunner restraint system at a time.

Answer 153

The Patrol Commander (PATCOM) is designated by TACON to handle the on-scene organization of larger operations. PATCOM’s primary responsibility is to direct on-scene forces and continually update TACON with the on-scene conditions while positioning RBs in the most advantageous locations to ensure the HVA’s protection.

Answer 154

As part of the operational planning process and the pre-brief, OPCON and TACON should include identification of adequate SAR assets and availability of those assets within the geographical region where a PWCS mission is being conducted.

Answer 155

Military ships and submarines, Merchant ships carrying high value cargo, High capacity passenger vessels, Vessels carrying explosives or other hazardous cargo (fuels, natural gas, chemicals).

Answer 156

Screening Vessel (SV) Reaction Vessel (RV)

Answer 157

Yes, for weather risks.

Answer 158

National Terrorism Advisory System - Replaced the color coded Homeland Security Advisory. Designated to communicate terrorist threats.

Answer 159

When the weather/sea state poses a physical threat to the gunner, it may be appropriate to bring the gunner inside. The Coxswain shall notify Tactical Control (TACON) when the decision is made to remove the gunner from the bow/stern.

Answer 160

Clear Load Half Load Full Load

Answer 161

Less than 600yds.

Answer 162

Security Zones (SZs), Naval Vessel Protection Zones (NVPZs), Restricted waterfront areas, Safety zones.

Answer 163

Security Zone

Answer 164

Single-boat escorts do not satisfy or contribute to meeting the escort requirements of the MSRO Scorecard.

Answer 165

Crews may not cross the gunwale to accomplish this while both boats are moving. Use of the boat hook is recommended.

Answer 166

High Interest Vessel

Answer 167

OPFOR Operator, Designated Trainer on the RB(s) Safety Observer

Answer 168

Provides appropriate balance between safety and readiness during transits to and from PWCS activities.

Answer 169

AREA with Sector recommendations.

Answer 170

Commands shall assign the duties of the Surface-to-Surface OPFOR operator to a Designated Trainer who possesses the competency being trained, demonstrates the necessary maturity, and has the demeanor to instruct.

Answer 171

Security Zones (SZ) are designated areas of land, water, or land and water established for such time as the Captain of the Port (COTP) deems necessary to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or waterfront facility; to safeguard ports, harbors, territories, or waters of the United States; or to secure the observance of the rights and obligations of the United States.

Answer 172

Physical Security and Force Protection Program

Answer 173

Disabling Fire

Answer 174

Commandant is responsible. Area commanders shall direct an area-wide FPCON, and may declare a higher FPCON within their AOR. District Commanders shall direct a FPCON throughout the district and may declare a higher FPCON within their AOR. Commanding Officers may direct FPCON for units within their AOR.

Answer 175

Both Disabling fire and warning shots should be conducted within an optimal distance of 25 yards or less.

Answer 176

M240 Annual currency- 200 Rounds, 5th round tracer.

Answer 177

Mounted Automatic Weapon

Answer 178

Actions taken to temporarily prevent a non-compliant vessel from operating under its own power or maneuvering freely.

Answer 179

Approach Intercept Engage

Answer 180

Maritime Security Response Operations

Answer 181

Unambiguous audio or visual signal with the intent to indicate that consequences will be delivered if the vessel fails to heave to.

Answer 182

OPCON approval (TACON for deployed shore-based units) is required before employing a single-boat patrol.

Answer 183

In most cases, the District Commander will be OPCON, but they may delegate this responsibility to a specific Captain of the Port (COTP) or Sector/Air Station Commander.

Answer 184

A VPIT is defined as a vessel which poses an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury to individuals onboard HVA or SZPU, including but not limited to firing weapons, attempting to ram, bearing explosives, etc. Any asset assigned to the SZPU can make the determination that a TOI is a VPIT.

Answer 185

The decision to engage in these tactics rests fully with the TCOXN/PCOXN/PMC.

Answer 186

MLEM Chapter 4

Answer 187

TACON is responsible for oversight of assigned assets as well as providing guidance as needed.

Answer 188

Phase 4: Vessel on Vessel course, gunner must complete phase 4 in order to complete the qualification process. DO NOT ALLOW LIVE AMMO O/B VESSEL.

Answer 189

The patrol area is a portion of the SZ and surrounding area in which a unit conducts enforcement operations. SVs should maintain an active patrolling routine making sure their actions and efforts are well coordinated and synchronized. Patrol patterns should minimize gaps in the SZ.

Answer 190

Locally Permanent Conditional

Answer 191

Noncompliant Vessel

Answer 192

LAA (fixed and escort) Security Boarding's Positive Control Measures MOL Support Patrols National Special Security Events (NSSE)

Answer 193

Close to MCIKR if possible.

Answer 194

Personnel firing shoulder fired small arms shall be either tethered or restrained by a crew restraint system.

Answer 195

OPCON approval (TACON for deployed units) is required before employing a single-boat escort.

Answer 196

SZ Enforcement or Pursuit Level IV training shall be scheduled by the Unit Command Cadre. Spontaneous training is prohibited.

Answer 197

Target of Interest?

Answer 198

Less than 25yds.

Answer 199

Actions taken to irreversibly prevent a non-compliant vessel from operating under its own power.

Answer 200

Intercept Shadow Herding Shouldering

Answer 201

A Naval Vessel Protection Zone (NVPZ) is a 500-yard regulated area of water surrounding U.S. naval vessels that is necessary to provide for the safety or security of these U.S. naval vessels.

Answer 202

Tactical is defensive (SZ), Pursuit is Offensive (NCV-UOF)

Answer 203

Outboard/Outdrive only

Answer 204

If the SNO granted for Step II did not include Step IV tactics, crews must request a separate SNO.

Answer 205

In the case of simultaneous TOIs, the two boats split up to interdict each TOI and prevent approach to the HVA. In this case, both boats are more vulnerable than when they can support each other, but this is outweighed by the primacy of HVA defense.

Answer 206

Units that routinely conduct NCVP during CD/AMIO need the authority to deliver Step IV tactics in accordance with NCV checklist.

Answer 207

Permission from TACON and/or the TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) is normally required before an RB can divert.

Answer 208

Effective SZ enforcement requires that a minimum of two RBs be assigned to patrolling the zone’s boundary.

Answer 209

If space is available, an overall SZ of 2,000 yards should be used. TACON will be required to modify the size of the SZ in areas that do not allow for 2,000 yards (entering a port/narrow channel).

Answer 210

The overall Safety Observer shall not be an evaluator, Designated Trainer, or Response Boat (RB) operator.

Answer 211

Floating barriers, shore-side weapons emplacements, armed Coast Guard aircraft, non-security Coast Guard boats, and/or patrol craft from other law enforcement agencies.

Answer 212

Less than 25yds.

Answer 213

To certify as TBCM, TCOXN, PBCM, or PCOXN, personnel shall be currently certified as BTM, at a minimum.

Answer 214

It is good practice to employ the shadow tactics when a vessel transits near the SZ.

Answer 215

The TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) shall coordinate response efforts for the distress incident.

Answer 216

Vessel (Pilot House, Bridge, Engine Compartment).

Answer 217

Communicating to vessel Maneuvering Close aboard Increasing number of LE units O/S Visibly uncovering, readying, and manning weapons

Answer 218

Boundary Intercept Zone Reaction Zone Sector Patrol Area

Answer 219

This posture applies to vessels whenever a significant likelihood of engaging an adversary exists.

Answer 220

COTP District

Answer 221

HVAs include any landside or waterside asset such as military and commercial vessels, waterfront facilities, military facilities, submarines, or commercial vessels carrying Certain Dangerous Cargoes (CDC).

Answer 222

The SV is the RB that intercepts an incoming vessel to determine its intent. The SV detects, identifies, investigates, classifies, reports, warns off, and, if necessary, engages Targets of Interest (TOI).

Answer 223

Step I tactics include proximity, appearance, directions and/or non-contact maneuvers to influence NCV actions. Coxswains shall consider the use of these tactics to induce compliance with the order to stop.

Answer 224

Chapter 10

Answer 225

Checklist for stopping NCV, Chap 4 MLEM

Answer 226

Response Boat

Answer 227

30-50yds forward of NCV’s bow.

Answer 228

Moving SZs (escorts) are established around a transiting HVA.

Answer 229

The boundary is the outer edge of the SZ and the point at which no person or vessel may cross without permission. It provides the legal basis for Coast Guard officers to issue lawful orders requiring persons to stay out of, or depart from, the zone.

Answer 230

Warning Shots Herding also falls under Step II

Answer 231

Each unit’s servicing armory shall install the MK 16 Stands on unit boats. Once installed, these mounts become part of the boat outfit and are specific to the mounted location. The mount shall not be removed except for maintenance.

Answer 232

Means the level for which further specific protective security measures shall be maintained for a limited period of time when a transportation security incident is probable, imminent, or has occurred, although it may not be possible to identify the specific target.

Answer 233

Small Vessel Security Boarding Less than 300 GT

Answer 234

Spare M127A1 parachute flares Warning Munitions Running Gear Entangler

Answer 235

The Coxswain shall not use NVDs due to the decrease in depth perception and peripheral vision.

Answer 236

The Reaction Vessel (RV) is charged with backing up the SV when it is intercepting/investigating a TOI entering the SZ.

Answer 237

Patrol Commander

Answer 238

Firing an un-mounted M240B from the shoulder is not authorized.

Answer 239

Each Level 1 PWCS or Pursuit Level IV Unit Commander shall assign, in writing, Designated Trainers for tactical / pursuit training.

Answer 240

When firing from the bow, the gunner in kneeling position is the safest employment and gives the TCOXN/PCOXN the best visibility. When employing a shoulder fired weapon on the bow, a tactical sling shall be used.

Answer 241

The train stops shall be set to stop the arc of motion no less than six inches from the cabin and/or fixed structures. The optimal setting allows for overlapping fields of fire with other MAW.

Answer 242

Vessel posing Imminent Threat

Answer 243

Phase 2: Judgmental use of Force, done at the unit.

Answer 244

Gunners firing from inside the cabin should do so from the seated position and use the crew restraints.

Answer 245

The Intercept Zone (IZ) is the area inside the SZ where TOIs should be intercepted. Initial contact is made at the outer edge of the IZ to allow maximum reaction time.

Answer 246

SAR incidents occurring within line-of-sight of PWCS assets allow for a direct evaluation of the situation and normally the TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) will be able to dictate response rapidly. Incidents occurring at a greater distance (not in line-of-sight) require careful evaluation by TACON and SMC before assigning response assets.

Answer 247

Proximity, appearance, and/or directions to influence actions.

Answer 248

Patrol Commander

Answer 249

The remainder of the OPFOR boat crew shall include a TBCM/PBCM, depending on the tactics being trained. Units should consider having an additional TCOXN/PCOXN onboard.

Answer 250

Being “beat” does not automatically classify the TOI as a VPIT.

Answer 251

Security Zones (protecting the asset/person/resource) Naval Vessel Protection Zone (500YDS unless otherwise stated) Restricted Waterfront areas Safety Zones

Answer 252

Every effort should be made to avoid diverting assets from their assigned mission.

Answer 253

Coxswains shall verify pre-fire checks have been performed and logged.

Answer 254

Tactical Control

Answer 255

The escorting boat should lead the HVA, weaving back and forth on each side of the bow to ensure visual coverage astern of the HVA.

Answer 256

Outline the security missions objectives and conditions.

Answer 257

Only the Designated Trainer may sign off on PQS. Designated Trainers shall sign PQS only for the course(s) graduated from.

Answer 258

Herding is a tactical boat maneuver where a Screening Vessel (SV) purposely maneuvers toward a contact of interest (there is no physical contact) in an attempt to force it away from the protected asset (or area).

Answer 259

Personnel manning the MAW are required to use this system.

Answer 260

Step I is the lowest level of the Use of Force Continuum and requires no authorization.

Answer 261

Gunners employing shoulder fired weapons from the aft deck of closed cabin boats should do so from a kneeling position with the gunner restraint system connecting them to the boat.

Answer 262

A TCOXN may be used to fill the role of TBCM if qualified and current on the MAW as the gunner.

Answer 263

Before the HVA transit, the planned transit route should be cleared of all suspicious vessels.

Answer 264

SZs are either fixed or moving.

Answer 265

Phase 3: Land based course of fire or Waterborne course of fire, must be completed prior to phase 4(member must be boat crew qualified)

Answer 266

Individual Unit National

Answer 267

Unit is operating under DoD TACON, outside U.S. territorial seas (12NM), and not conducting law enforcement missions. Air and Maritime homeland defense missions conducted by CG units under DoD TACON, regardless of location, unless otherwise directed by the Secretary of Defense. When engaged in national self-defense, as authorize by an authority designated in the SROE.

Answer 268

PMC shall be currently certified as BO.

Answer 269

To defend in case of an attack and to provide a visual deterrence.

Answer 270

For larger operations involving multiple afloat assets, TACON may assign a Patrol Commander (PATCOM) to assist with the on-scene coordination.

Answer 271

Maritime Critical Infrastructure Key Resource

Answer 272

Designated Trainers must have completed formal Coast Guard resident Tactical or Pursuit Training. CO/OIC's shall ensure Designated Trainers possess the appropriate level of certification, ability, maturity and demeanor required of this position. A Designated Trainer shall be assigned to each training platform.

Answer 273

Port Bow, Starboard Bow, Port Quarter, and Starboard Quarter.

Answer 274

Only level-1 commands have the authority to certify TCOXNs and TBCMs.

Answer 275

The prior step must be used or rejected as undesirable.

Answer 276

Shoulder-fired weapons may be utilized from the bow only when used with USCG Custom Design Single Point Sling and Weapon Attachment Set.

Answer 277

Key Port Area

Answer 278

The level for which minimum appropriate security measures shall be maintained at all times.

Answer 279

The Reaction Zone (RZ) is the area, contained completely within the SZ, where vessels that pose an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury shall not be allowed to enter.

Answer 280

The Security Zone Protection Unit (SZPU) is the team of assets with certified crews that work together to enforce the SZ and protect the HVA.

Answer 281

Tactical Control

Answer 282

The optimum defensive posture for HVA transit in unprotected waters is a four-boat escort.

Answer 283

Pursuit Mission Commander (PMC) PQS may be signed off by a Pursuit Designated Trainer or a currently certified PMC.

Answer 284

Fixed zones can be created around stationary assets at anchor, pier-side, or ashore.

Answer 285

Best use of weapons available How to present the smallest profile Triangulation if more than one boat is responding

Answer 286

Unit Commanders shall designate authorized training locations for high speed and/or tactical maneuver training, describe conditions under which the use of high speed and specialized tactics are appropriate within the Command Navigation Standards for both operations and training.

Answer 287

The authorization to use Step II tactics may require a Flag Officer Statement of No Objection (SNO).

Answer 288

High speed is defined as speed of 30 knots or greater.

Answer 289

Ramming, the act of aggressively making contact with the NCV, shall be used only as an act of self-defense or as a last resort to protect the HVA from an act of terrorism.

Answer 290

Vessels actively conducting PWCS shall be in this posture.

Answer 291

The Remington Model 870 shotgun with copper sabot slugs is the preferred weapon for delivering disabling fire against outboard engines.

Answer 292

The planned transit route, bridges, and large piers close to the transit area should be inspected for possible hazards. This inspection should also include alternate routes, emergency routes and anchorages.

Answer 293

The SV shall call “Out of position” over the VHF-FM radio when the SV has temporarily lost its tactical position and is unable to employ TTP to determine TOI intent.

Answer 294

To deter actions from being taken; To disrupt actions if they're taken.

Answer 295

The goal of the shadow maneuver is to take up position between the TOI and the HVA, in order to keep the TOI outside of the SZ while the SV remains inside the SZ.

Answer 296

50yds forward of NCV’s Bow.

Answer 297

The goal of shouldering is to contact a NCV with enough force to drive it in a new direction and prevent it from traveling on its intended course, or to compel compliance with orders to stop.

Answer 298

A transgender member is anyone who has received a medical diagnosis from a military medical provider that gender transition is medically necessary, including any member who intends to begin transition, is undergoing transition, or has completed transition and is stable in the preferred gender.

Answer 299

The CG will automatically contribute an amount equal to 1 percent of your basic pay to your Thrift Saving Plan (TSP) after 60 days of service.

Answer 300

Supplemental Education Grant

Answer 301

Units with less than 50 assigned members that are within one-hour commute of a large CG shore unit (Area/ District, Sector, ISC, Air Station) that has a CDAR may, if both units agree, designate that CDAR to serve the smaller unit.

Answer 302

Coast Guard Regulations, COMDTINST M5000.3B Chapter 4

Answer 303

Coast Guard Regulations, COMDTINST M5000.3B Chapter 4, Part 3

Answer 304

Once the gender marker is changed in DEERS, the Service member will be responsible for meeting all applicable military standards of the preferred gender.

Answer 305

Matching contributions by the CG will start at three | years of service.

Answer 306

CG Grant MGIB CGMA SEG

Answer 307

0 - DUI's 1 - Drink per hour 2 - Two drinks per occasion 3 - Drinks per day

Answer 308

A flexible workforce management tool that establishes standards for enlisted career progression by pay-grade.

Answer 309

Coast Guard men, women and their families.

Answer 310

For members who are pregnant for less than 20 weeks, the six month exemption remains in effect.

Answer 311

Intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when a victim does not or cannot consent.

Answer 312

Vice Commandant

Answer 313

Leadership and Diversity Advisory Council

Answer 314

Providing an agile, flexible, and adaptive Human Capital System that ensures a thriving, proficient, and effective workforce for complex, global missions.

Answer 315

For DoD and CG policy purposes, a transgender Service member is one who has received a medical diagnosis that gender transition is medically necessary

Answer 316

Anyone who joined the service in CY 2005 or earlier.

Answer 317

Donations to Unit from a non-prohibited, the OIC has the acceptance authority of $200. Anything that is over is forwarded to the next higher acceptance authority while also notifying CG Legal to ensure compliance.

Answer 318

Three hours per week during working hours, ops permitting, for voluntary participation in physical fitness enhancing activities.

Answer 319

Uncompromising ethical conduct and moral behavior in all situations.

Answer 320

January 1, 2018

Answer 321

Notify PSC. Upon conclusion of the MED Board, member will be separated or retired as a result of MED Board or HYT - if found fit for full duty.

Answer 322

Within 180 days of assuming command.

Answer 323

December 31, 2018

Answer 324

The SEG is designed to reimburse CGMA beneficiaries for certain costs, especially textbooks and fees, associated with a college degree program or a vocational technical training program.

Answer 325

A maximum matching of 4 percent through the completion of 26 years of service.

Answer 326

Refusal to complete alcohol treatment.

Answer 327

A piece of legislation that limits certain activities of employees of the executive branch, and as members of the Coast Guard workforce, it applies to all of us.

Answer 328

Special Victims Counsel

Answer 329

Meet MISSION Needs Meet SERVICE Needs Meet PEOPLE Needs

Answer 330

Gender transition begins when a Service member receives a diagnosis from a military medical provider indicating that gender transition is medically necessary.

Answer 331

1) Issue P&D 14 2) Member meets with CDAR 3) Member meets with Medical Officer for alcohol screening 4) Issue P&D 15 for completing screening 5) Issue P&D 16 for completed education 6) Member will be processed for separation

Answer 332

Leading Self Leading Others Leading Performance and Change Leading the Coast Guard

Answer 333

Yes, the member is separated from the CG, has a change in dependency, change in medical condition/ diagnosis, or proper documentation that Special Needs are no longer needed.

Answer 334

Commanding officers shall not furnish creditors with any information concerning the personal credit rating or financial responsibility of a member even if authorized by the member.

Answer 335

A transition plan in concert with their military medical provider.

Answer 336

Efficiency and Proficiency Requirements and Data-based Decisions

Answer 337

Reserve members shall follow the same policies and standards as active duty members.

Answer 338

Electronic means for submitting TA requests.

Answer 339

Commanding Officers of units with 50 or more personnel shall ensure that LDACs are established.

Answer 340

The Coast Guard will fund 100 percent of tuition cost not to exceed $250.00 per semester hour.

Answer 341

To be professional, accept accountability, and seek responsibility.

Answer 342

Anyone with less than 4,320 points as of December 31, 2017.

Answer 343

To treat others with fairness, dignity, and compassion.

Answer 344

A military member, enlisted or officer, regular or reserve with less than 48 months of Coast Guard service or, for officers, less than 48 months of commissioned Coast Guard service.

Answer 345

Units with 25 or more assigned personnel.

Answer 346

Unsolicited with a market value of $20 or less per occasion no more than $50 per calendar year from any one source. $10 or less on an occasional basis for supervisory position.

Answer 347

CGMA offers an interest free education loan of up to 3,000 dollars and has a program for reimbursing the loan origination fee charged to beneficiaries who obtain federal student loans.

Answer 348

Decent Affairs Officer (Handles active duty, retired, and dependent deaths).

Answer 349

The opt-in decision is irrevocable, so all members should carefully consider their own personal circumstances, time in service, career intentions, and financial situation to determine which retirement system is best for them.

Answer 350

ESO Vol. 1-4 CGI Website

Answer 351

Anyone with 4,320 points or more as of December 31, 2017.

Answer 352

Yes, AD members shall not be adversely affected in their selection for promotion, schools, or assignment.

Answer 353

Mandatory degree plans are required after the completion of the second course or after 6 semester hours using TA.

Answer 354

Relief Valves provides members a means for discussing or reporting command climate issues outside of their chain of command.

Answer 355

Climate Prevention Response Accountability

Answer 356

Service to Nation Duty to People Commitment to Excellence

Answer 357

The maximum time in service (TIS) based on AD base date an active duty member can remain in the service at a specific pay grade. E9 - 30 Years E8 - 26 Years E7 - 24 Years E6 - 20 Years E5 - 16 Years E4 - 10 Years

Answer 358

Standards of Ethical Conduct, COMDTINST 5370.B

Answer 359

All units should have at least one graduate of the Applied Suicide Intervention Skills Training (ASIST) program aboard.

Answer 360

Casualty Assistance Calls Officer

Answer 361

Self Referral Command Referral Incident Referral

Answer 362

1) Issue P&D 13 2) Member meets with CDAR 3) Member meets with Medical Officer for alcohol screening 4) Issue P&D 15 for completing screening 5) Issue P&D 16 for completed education

Answer 363

Deferred Abusive Dependent

Answer 364

Outpatient Rehab Intensive Outpatient/ Partial Hospitalization Inpatient Rehab Aftercare Emergency Care

Answer 365

Within 30 days of reporting aboard, their rating chain supervisor will review the IDP and conduct the initial IDP counseling session.

Answer 366

Special set of marks, Alcohol Incident, Revoke driving privileges for one year, SF-5588, Process for separation.

Answer 367

Satisfactory progress toward completion of unit quals. Satisfactory progress toward watch station quals. Satisfactory proficiency of craft, and Satisfactory conduct during the six months prior to applying.

Answer 368

Units with fewer than 50 personnel shall assign a representative to the LDAC within the unit’s chain of command that is geographically closest to them.

Answer 369

www.uscg.mil/transgender

Answer 370

Effective immediately, no otherwise qualified Coast Guard member can be involuntarily separated, discharged, or denied re-enlistment or continuation of service, solely on the basis of their gender identify.

Answer 371

Senior Enlisted Reserve Advisor

Answer 372

A gift is anything that has monetary value coming from a prohibited source(someone who wants to gain something from the Coast guard).

Answer 373

Once the gender marker is changed in DEERS, the Service member will utilize facilities in the preferred gender.

Answer 374

TA is only available for courses leading to the first associate, bachelor, and masters degrees.

Answer 375

Promote a balance of Work and Life, Improve mission performance, Provide stress relief tools, Strengthen the CG family.

Answer 376

All units with members requesting transition prior to 1 October 2016 are required to contact the Service Central Coordination Cell (SCCC) to gain initial guidance.

Answer 377

XO’s Request and Complaint Mast Chaplain Command Gold or Silver Badge Civil Rights Coordinator LDAC Chair CG SUPRT

Answer 378

Anyone who joined the service between CY 2006 and CY 2017.

Answer 379

A member that intends to begin transition; A member that is undergoing transition; and A member that has completed transition and is stable in their preferred gender.

Answer 380

Incident Determination Committee

Answer 381

Assistant Commandant for Human Resources

Answer 382

Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist

Answer 383

There will now be a lump sum option that will allow members to take a 25 or 50 percent lump sum at the time of retirement that will reduce the monthly retired pay by a corresponding 25 or 50 percent until age 67.

Answer 384

Unlawful use, possession, or trafficking of a controlled substance.

Answer 385

Members who are pregnant for 20 weeks or longer, to be exempt from weight and body fat standards for a twelve month period upon completion of pregnancy (delivery, miscarriages, etc.).

Answer 386

A person assigned to a newly reported member for a short duration (approximately two weeks).

Answer 387

Offensive hitting, slapping, or touching and any other actions which subjects an individual to ridicule or embarrassment.

Answer 388

Payments made for dependents of a Coast Guard member who has been discharged due to domestic violence. Member must have been on Active Duty for more than 30 days. Payments will be made for up to 36 months.

Answer 389

The annual cap for reimbursement of TA is $4000.

Answer 390

For the purpose of reimbursement, a successful course completion is defined as a grade of a C or higher for undergraduate courses, a B or higher for graduate courses, and a pass for pass/fail grades.

Answer 391

Failure to complete alcohol treatment.

Answer 392

Predictability Professional Growth Safety and Wellness

Answer 393

Diversity and Inclusion Equity and Opportunity

Answer 394

Anyone who joined the service in CY 2018 and beyond.

Answer 395

Drug and Alcohol Awareness Sexual Harassment Prevention Hazing Awareness Training Personal Financial Management

Answer 396

CG-1 established a Service Central Coordination Cell (SCCC) to assist commanders and Service members with the gender transition process.

Answer 397

A first enlistment good performer. This requires the first flag to recommend second chance waivers to the final discharge authority.

Answer 398

Misconduct Unsatisfactory Performance Loss of Confidence Inappropriate Relationships

Answer 399

A complete TA application (uploaded degree plan, command approved) must be received by the CG Institute no less than 14 days prior to the class start date, not including the date of submission to the CG Institute nor the class start date.

Answer 400

Service Central Coordination Cell

Answer 401

To prevent a worsening situation from happening or to prevent a complete loss of a vessel.

Answer 402

A unit does not have to be designated as a Pursuit Level IV Unit to conduct pursuit. However, higher authority may choose not to authorize employment of certain tactics if the boat crew is not certified in pursuit competencies.

Answer 403

Those that degrade the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions.

Answer 404

A written waiver may be a letter, memorandum, e-mail, Cutter log entry, ALMIS, or record message traffic.

Answer 405

Product Line

Answer 406

Minor discrepancies do not affect the operational readiness of the boat. However, a boat with minor discrepancies does not meet the standardization criteria as established for that boat.

Answer 407

Damage to or sacrifice of the boat is acceptable risk in the defense of the United States, its citizens, and/or installations.

Answer 408

B-0 (have a suitable SAR resource ready to proceed within 30 minutes).

Answer 409

When a member receives a direct eye‐strike from a laser, the crew shall act to ensure the safety of vessel and minimize further exposure to lasers. Crewmembers should not look for the source of the laser using binoculars or other magnifying optics since this could lead to significant eye injury.

Answer 410

Permanent deferment applies to a unit’s inability to complete a task due to AOR constraints and/or equipment/platform constraints.

Answer 411

Passengers and guests may be taken onboard unit boats, at the discretion of the unit commander, provided the numbers do not exceed the maximum safe number of passengers for the boat type, and all passengers are wearing Personal Flotation Devices.

Answer 412

Mishap Analysis, Assistance, Team

Answer 413

Maturity Judgment Patience

Answer 414

Personnel who have been wearing night vision equipment shall wait a minimum of two minutes before assuming control (helmsman).

Answer 415

Qualification is the one time attainment of performance tasks for a specific competency (completion of Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS).

Answer 416

If the boat remains un-located, an immediate Urgent Marine Information Broadcast (UMIB) shall be released. Following the UMIB, an immediate precedence message shall be released.

Answer 417

Single-boat heavy weather training is authorized when two heavy weather capable platforms are not available.

Answer 418

.1NM (200 Yards)

Answer 419

Paper charts; Key operating areas; Navigation zones defined; Specific hazards; Specific guidance; Nav/ piloting requirements; DR plots; Environment.

Answer 420

A member may be certified as a Heavy Weather Coxswain without completion of the surf tasks. The member’s completion or non-completion must be documented in the certification letter.

Answer 421

Deferments lasting more than 60 days require command level documentation of actions within the E-Training System which provide the next level in the chain of command visibility of resource issues.

Answer 422

The CO/OIC may issue interim certification letters to crew members regardless of their own certification status.

Answer 423

Review all prior inspection reports: STAN, RFO, and FORCECOM; Conduct inspections: Galley, armory, R&S, building and assets. Interview department heads.

Answer 424

The Command Cadre of the boat’s parent command shall be notified first, followed by the Operational Commander (OPCON), then the cognizant District Command Center.

Answer 425

Boat crew who received a direct eye strike from a laser shall be evaluated by medical personnel within 24 hours following exposure.

Answer 426

One experienced Engineer. One experienced Coxswain. If applicable, one experienced ATON, Tactical, Pursuit, Heavy Weather Coxswain or Surfman. If applicable, senior Law Enforcement Instructor (LEI).

Answer 427

Night vision devices will limit a person’s peripheral vision substantially. A normal field of view is 190°. With night vision, this may go as low as 40°.

Answer 428

Boat Crew Member (BCM) certification on a standard boat, consisting of PQS, Oral Board, Check Ride. Maintain BCM currency for 1 currency cycle. Complete Basic Boat Forces PQS. Have one year at a Boat Forces unit.

Answer 429

Smaller units may instead assign an E-5 after notifying the Office of Boat Forces (CG-731) in writing of the deviation from policy.

Answer 430

Interim certification letter - 60 days; Clearly state that the vessel shall only be operated during transit to the unit, initial training and familiarization, and for the engine break in period. Type tasks signed off.

Answer 431

Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

Answer 432

When communications are reestablished with the boat, an immediate cancel of UMIB and precedence message will be sent to all addresses listed in the LOST COMMS REPORT with notification that communications have been restored.

Answer 433

That same crew is not authorized to get back underway until 0800 the following day.

Answer 434

6' Seas 25 Knot Winds No Surf 10 Disp Ton Tow

Answer 435

An Active Duty member that certifies or recertifies after 01 April or after 01 October would be within the last half of the currency cycle and would not have to complete the minimum proficiency requirements for the respective period.

Answer 436

Engineering waivers may be issued on a case-by-case basis by the Product Line in order to reclassify a Disabling Discrepancy as a restrictive discrepancy, and to provide deviations from published maintenance procedures, Boat Class Maintenance Plans, or Maintenance Requirements Lists (MRL).

Answer 437

The TPO shall maintain certification as Boarding Officer.

Answer 438

The two types of communications searches are the PRECOM search and EXCOM search.

Answer 439

Do not affect the operational readiness of the boat. Document and monitor at the unit level.

Answer 440

Completed at least every 365 days, Completed 30-90 days before a Formal BFCO STAN Assessment,

Answer 441

The possibility of saving human life or the probability of preventing or relieving intense pain or suffering warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the boat if recovering the boat can reasonably be expected.

Answer 442

If a unit boat is required for mission response while passengers or guests are onboard, the passengers and guests shall be disembarked prior to proceeding with the mission, if at all possible.

Answer 443

In the event a boat sustains a disabling casualty while underway, the boat shall immediately return to the nearest safe mooring.

Answer 444

A Reserve member that certifies or recertifies after 01 July would be within the last half of the currency cycle and would not have to complete the minimum proficiency requirements for the respective period.

Answer 445

Seas < 4' = 10hrs Seas > 4' = 8hrs Hwx = 6hrs

Answer 446

If the casualty cannot be repaired within 48 hours, a CASREP shall be sent within 24 hours of discovery of the casualty.

Answer 447

All lasing incidents shall be reported, at a minimum, as a Class D MISHAP.

Answer 448

Those which make the boat not serviceable.

Answer 449

The assessment team shall consist of at least two personnel.

Answer 450

8 days and 2 nights semi-annually.

Answer 451

A Station XO/XPO shall maintain Boarding Officer certification. No waiver is permitted for this requirement.

Answer 452

Generally, the Coxswain is not permitted to leave the boat during any operation. However, when a situation exists onboard the distressed vessel that only the Coxswain is capable of alleviating, and the Coxswain can ensure the safety of the unit boat, it may be permissible.

Answer 453

A Bravo-Zero (B-0) response time is defined as a SAR unit underway within 30 minutes of notification of a distress.

Answer 454

A verbal waiver is authorized as long as it is followed with a written waiver within 4 hours.

Answer 455

10' seas and 30kt winds.

Answer 456

When situations exist that preclude a member from completing qualification tasks, the CO/OICs may defer tasks.

Answer 457

Waivers for restrictive casualties documented in the Asset Logistics Management Information System (ALMIS) are equivalent to official written waivers.

Answer 458

30' Seas 50 Knot Winds 20' Surf 150 Disp Ton Tow

Answer 459

Within 6 months of Reserve Crew Member certification.

Answer 460

Trailering hours shall be counted towards underway limitations for designated boat crews.

Answer 461

For the MLB platforms, seas (height) are greater than 10 FT and/or winds exceed 30 KTS.

Answer 462

Interim certifications should not exceed 60 days. However, CO/OICs may issue extensions until requirements are met.

Answer 463

Determines whether or not the Gain (benefits) outweigh the degree of risk.

Answer 464

Migrant Interdiction Living Marine Resources (LMR)

Answer 465

Those which restrict the operations of the boat such that it can perform some missions but not all missions safely.

Answer 466

Temporary Deferred Tasks- Interim certifications may be provided to allow member to operate when specific qualification tasks cannot be accomplished in a reasonable amount of time.

Answer 467

In the event a boat sustains a disabling casualty while underway, it shall immediately return to the nearest safe mooring and be placed into “Charlie” status. In many cases, the boat will require assistance from another vessel.

Answer 468

Boat Crew Examining Board (BCEB), Law Enforcement Qualification Board (LEQB), Ice Rescue Examination Board (IREB)

Answer 469

Seas/swell conditions combining to exceed 8 FT and/or winds exceeding 30 KTS.

Answer 470

The XO/XPO shall chair all QEBs.

Answer 471

Yes, check with Sector to see if they have direction of manning hours. BOAT Manual leaves comms watch to the discretion of the OIC as long as the area has sector coverage.

Answer 472

Helmets BCCS (coxswain and gunner) PFD and Pyro Vest Body Armor Gun Belt Gunner Restraint Fwd and Aft

Answer 473

Helmets and seatbelts.

Answer 474

Boat Forces Command Cadre shall certify within a reasonable amount of time (within six months of reporting aboard, unless stated otherwise below).

Answer 475

The probability of saving property of the United States or its citizens warrants the risk of damage to the boat if the value of the property to be saved is unquestionably greater than the cost of boat damage and the boat is fully expected to be recoverable.

Answer 476

Operational Commander or delegated authority.

Answer 477

Restrictive discrepancies shall be reported to the Operational Commander if the discrepancy cannot be repaired within 1 hour.

Answer 478

District Commanders shall publish alert postures for their District boat stations to include open/close dates for seasonal station (smalls).

Answer 479

Sector Search Expanding Square

Answer 480

Temporary entitlement no longer exists. The insignia is considered permanent upon earning.

Answer 481

Restrictive discrepancies are those which restrict the operations of the boat such that it can perform some activities but not all activities safely.

Answer 482

XO/XPO, All department heads, Training Petty Officer, ANT Supervisor (if assigned).

Answer 483

Yes - OIC must authorize it.

Answer 484

The boat crew, duty section, and any other persons who might reasonably be expected to be recalled to support unit operations are restricted from underway operations for 12 hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

Answer 485

The TPO will normally be staffed with a Boatswain's Mate (BM) E-6 or above.

Answer 486

Initial Qualification within 24 months of Reserve Crew Member certification.

Answer 487

Training Petty Officer develops it; Officer in Charge approves it.

Answer 488

Time spent at a sheltered anchorage can extend the maximum underway hours for crew by 50%. For example, if a boat crew takes shelter from a storm and finds a sheltered anchorage for 1 hour that crew gets 30 minutes back towards underway time.

Answer 489

Complete Boat Forces PQS (both Basic and Advanced) Pass an Advanced Boat Forces PQS qualification board. Maintain BCM certification on a standard boat for two currency cycles. Complete one of the following: SAR Fundamentals Course, BTM/BO certification. Five years cumulative service at Boat Forces units.

Answer 490

The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of Federal law does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the boat, unless in defense of self or others.

Answer 491

10' Seas 30 Knot Winds No Surf 100 Disp Ton Tow

Answer 492

The aircraft commander, cutter commanding officer, or coxswain on scene.

Answer 493

The Coast Guard is not required to conduct searches for bodies. If requests are received from responsible agencies, such as local police, military commands, etc., Coast Guard units may participate in body searches provided that these searches do not interfere with the primary duties of the units.

Answer 494

OIC shall begin the process for reduction in rate for incompetence.

Answer 495

The use of cell phones/texting devices and phone applications aboard Boat Force assets is prohibited without permission of the Coxswain; permission can be granted only on a case by case basis.

Answer 496

“Bravo (Restricted)”: The boat has one or more restrictive discrepancies with waivers.

Answer 497

If a boat fails to check in on the primary or secondary frequency within ten minutes of the communication schedule, the guarding unit shall initiate actions.

Answer 498

Members shall make all efforts to attend the course prior to reporting, or, if unable to attend prior, within 6 months of being in command cadre position.

Answer 499

The unit commander will have the ability to override the system’s decertification of any member at their unit in the event of system errors.

Answer 500

Provisional Interim- Interim certifications are provided when unit has an inability to complete training towards a specific competency either due to a new competency designation at a unit or a unit-wide decertification.

Answer 501

20' seas, 8' surf, and 30kt winds.

Answer 502

Unit Commanders shall conduct a materiel inspection of each boat assigned to the unit at least once per month or per Maintenance Procedure Plans.

Answer 503

While unit commanders may not be able to control family members’ actions (e.g. self-launching to conduct their own search), it is important to convey to the family that untrained vessels in the search area are likely to complicate and slow the efforts of the Coast Guard and trained SRUs.

Answer 504

PWCS training should be highly structured. Training shall be planned, not spontaneous.

Answer 505

Recertification within 12 months of reporting.

Answer 506

For at least 10% of the calendar year (36 days), averaged over at least five-years. A heavy weather day consists of a minimum of three hours of sustained HWX conditions.

Answer 507

Less than a six-hour sleep period – they need at least a six-hour sleep period to control fatigue on subsequent missions.

Answer 508

Authorized locations; Acceptable conditions; Speed restrictions; Weather Limits; Gunner placement; Boat operations.

Answer 509

Within 12 months of reporting.

Answer 510

The Amsler Grid is a convenient tool for assessment of laser impact on vision. Each grid includes easy to follow instructions designed for field use.

Answer 511

New Platform Provisional Interim Temporary Deferred Tasks

Answer 512

Parallel Search Creeping Line Trackline Return Trackline Non-Return

Answer 513

Seas < 4' = 8hrs Seas > 4' = 6hrs

Answer 514

350 miles or 8hrs

Answer 515

New Platform- Interim certifications are provided when unit receives a new boat “type” on which no one has been previously qualified or certified.

Answer 516

120 degrees to the right.

Answer 517

Team Leader (Boatswain’s Mate) Naval Engineer/Machinery Technician

Answer 518

Narrow search area and the object is likely to be found at one end.

Answer 519

If this is not possible, then the SMC must grant permission before private property is entered. Only when saving a person’s life can immediate action be taken.

Answer 520

Reported to the Operational Commander if discrepancy cannot be repaired within 1 hour.

Answer 521

Within 24 months of Boarding Team Member certification.

Answer 522

When a Station’s alert posture is compromised due to crew fatigue, a Crew Fatigue Message shall be sent.

Answer 523

Operational Commander

Answer 524

Stations shall conduct a pre-brief (including elements of risk assessment) of the heavy weather training plan prior to commencing training. Crews shall be properly outfitted with personal protective equipment. The CO/OIC shall notify the Operational Commander when wind conditions exceed 40 KTS. A certified Heavy Weather Coxswain shall be onboard each heavy weather capable boat.

Answer 525

Unit shall obtain a waiver from Commandant (CG-731) via Operational Commander to request a permanent deferment of a task that applies

Answer 526

Heavy Weather Stations shall have a minimum of two heavy weather-capable boats assigned. To the greatest extent possible, these boats shall be of the same class and type.

Answer 527

Speeds of 30 knots or greater.

Answer 528

Evaluate material condition; Evaluate crew performance; Verify R&S/ Standard Ops are being followed; Provide guidance to unit/ RFO team.

Answer 529

All personnel assigned into billets marked with boat crew competencies at a unit with enclosed cabin boats shall attend this course within the first 12 months of assignment to their first Boat Forces Unit.

Answer 530

Helmets PFD and Pyro Vest Heavy Weather Belt Goggles

Answer 531

All lasing incidents shall be reported in the e-MisReps system within 72 hours of the event.

Answer 532

More than a six-hour sleep period but less than a seven-hour sleep period – they need at least a two-hour sleep period to control fatigue on subsequent missions.

Answer 533

Underway hours for Reserve Currency are now a total of 66, with a minimum of 17 hours at night.

Answer 534

“Bravo”: The boat has no disabling casualties or restrictive discrepancies.

Answer 535

Yes, 60 days.

Answer 536

“Charlie”: The boat has one or more disabling casualties or the boat has restrictive discrepancies without waivers.

Answer 537

Uncertainty Alert Distress

Answer 538

After an incident, crew members receiving a direct eye strike from a laser should be assessed using the Amsler Grid Eye Chart and the coxswain shall determine if the crew can safely continue the mission.

Answer 539

The primary role of the MAAT is to respond immediately to mishaps for the purpose of gathering and preserving evidence in advance of a Commandant - Level MAB and assisting the Health Safety and Work-life Service Center (HSWL SC (se)) level MAB.

Answer 540

Once an engineering waiver reclassifies a disabling discrepancy as a restrictive discrepancy, the process for a restrictive discrepancy shall be followed.

Answer 541

Unit boats may be used in support of community and media relations. Units shall ensure the Operational Commander is informed of all unit commitments. All requests should be routed through the unit’s Operational Commander.

Answer 542

To provide a medical advice.

Answer 543

Boats underway shall establish communications contact at least every thirty (30) minutes.

Answer 544

Designation as Heavy Weather Station. Assignment of heavy weather capable boats. Assignment of Heavy Weather competencies. Use of certified HWX Coxswain.

Answer 545

Local Cutter support. Neighboring heavy weather Coast Guard Stations. Local fishermen, police, or fire rescue vessels of appropriate size/capability.

Answer 546

Within 12 months of reporting.

Answer 547

A verbal waiver is authorized, as long as it is followed with a written waiver within 4 hours.

Answer 548

Disabling casualties are those which make the boat not serviceable.

Answer 549

Identify the specific discrepancy which is waived; Describe the conditions under which the boat may be operated; and Stipulate concurrence on the measures to be taken to lessen or negate the hazard posed by the discrepancy.

Answer 550

Time-of-day; Sleep duration and quality; Stability of sleep/wake schedule; Continuous vs. split sleep; Period of sustained wakefulness.

Answer 551

Initiate action within five minutes of initial notification of a distress incident.

Answer 552

Either an ALMIS entry or CASREP shall be made within 24 hours of discovery of the casualty. Operational Commanders are responsible for monitoring the status of repairs to disabling casualties.

Answer 553

Boats with restrictive discrepancies shall only be operated if the Operational Commander has issued a written waiver.

Answer 554

Yes. Prefer to use AUX crews.

Answer 555

Any mission occurring between 2300 and 0500 should be considered “Higher Risk” because it interrupts crew’s normal physiological cycles.

Answer 556

90 degrees to the right.

Answer 557

Coast Guard personnel engaged in SAR operations should obtain permission from the owner or occupant before entering private property.

Answer 558

Operational Commander

Answer 559

Disabling casualties shall be reported to the Operational Commander and Sector Engineer Officer by the most expeditious means, followed up by a boat status message as soon as possible but no later than 12 hours after the casualty is discovered.

Answer 560

Major discrepancies are those that degrade the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions.

Answer 561

The probability of saving human life warrants a maximum effort. When no suitable alternative exists and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the boat is acceptable, even though such damage or abuse may render the boat unrecoverable.

Answer 562

The act of defending a particular unit of U.S. military forces or law enforcement agency assets from imminent danger.

Answer 563

Deadly Force: Any force that is likely to cause death or serious physical injury, including the proper use of standard service weapons.

Answer 564

Substantive law; Vessel status/flag; and Location.

Answer 565

Only that force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force shall not be used where assigned duties can be discharged without it. Excessive force may never be used; however, nothing in the application of the Coast Guard Use of Force Policy shall be construed as to require personnel to meet force with equal or lesser force.

Answer 566

National Marine Fisheries Service

Answer 567

Defense of the United States, U.S. Forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent.

Answer 568

In general, vessels (or aircraft) without nationality, and those assimilated as such, are subject to the jurisdiction of any nation.

Answer 569

Officer Presence: Appearance, demeanor, verbal and non-verbal communications that create an atmosphere of compliance.

Answer 570

District Commander has approved the request to accompany the boarding team; The media or other observers have obtained the owner/operator’s permission to be present before boarding the vessel; and No media or other observer shall embark the boarded vessel until the boarding team has completed the BISS and the Boarding Officer has authorized embarkation.

Answer 571

Auxiliary vessels are subject to LE boarding's. However, when under Coast Guard orders, such as for SAR or regatta patrols, Auxiliary vessels should normally not be boarded.

Answer 572

Station personnel can only officially observe while in official capacity, ie uniform, boat, or gv. Initiate a FIR and request assistance through CGIS and local law enforcement.

Answer 573

Seaward of the U.S. EEZ, the MSFCMA applies to vessels under the authority and jurisdiction of the United States on the high seas.

Answer 574

Listen Empathize Ask Questions Paraphrase Summarize

Answer 575

The waters 12 nautical miles wide adjacent to the coast of the United States and seaward of the baseline.

Answer 576

Whenever any technique or action higher than level 2 of the use of force continuum is used (normal application of handcuffs does not apply); Whenever any tactic higher than step 2 is used against a non-compliant vessel; Whenever any incident involving the use or potential use of force is deemed noteworthy by the OIC.

Answer 577

14 U.S.C. 143 and 19 U.S.C. 1401

Answer 578

14 U.S.C. 141 allows federal, state, and local agencies to request Coast Guard LE assistance when Coast Guard facilities and persons are especially qualified to perform a particular activity.

Answer 579

Part of the protective sweep (BISS) of a vessel for the safety of the boarding team, but is more focused.

Answer 580

Individual Unit National

Answer 581

National Security Authority

Answer 582

International law allows for the establishment of a contiguous zone, adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline, in which a coastal State may exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringements of its fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and customs laws.

Answer 583

MARSEC 3 is the Coast Guard’s most focused security posture, normally set when attack is deemed imminent or has already occurred.

Answer 584

Regulations contained in 50 CFR 224.103 make it unlawful to approach within 500 yards of a North Atlantic right whale by a vessel, aircraft or other means, or to fail to take required avoidance measures.

Answer 585

Assistance entry is the right of non-interference for a vessel (or aircraft in certain circumstances) to enter a foreign territorial sea to conduct a bona fide rescue of those in danger or distress at sea.

Answer 586

Coast Guard unit is operating under a DoD TACON, outside of U.S. Territorial Seas (seaward of the outer boundary on the 12 NM territorial sea), and not conducting law enforcement missions; Air and Marine homeland defense missions conducted by Coast Guard units under DoD TACON, regardless of location, unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense; When engaged in national self-defense, as authorized by an authority designated in the SROE.

Answer 587

Under the MSFCMA, foreign flag commercial fishing vessels are prohibited from fishing in the U.S. waters unless they are in possession of a valid fishing permit issued by NOAA, are engaged in Department of State approved scientific research, or are operating subject to the provisions of a bilateral/multilateral agreement.

Answer 588

A BISS is a quick and limited protective sweep of a vessel for boarding team safety.

Answer 589

DHS National Targeting Center (NTC)

Answer 590

Substantive law; Vessel status/flag; and Location.

Answer 591

High seas U.S. vessels in foreign waters Great lakes Federal reservations Lands/Waters not within nor between the 50 states Territorial Seas

Answer 592

If practicable, units shall conduct a boarding of all U.S. vessels receiving SAR assistance, either at-sea or after the vessel is moored.

Answer 593

Under international law, a warship, military aircraft, or other duly authorized vessel may approach in international waters any vessel, other than a warship or government vessel on non-commercial service, to verify its nationality.

Answer 594

Under the “peace of the port” doctrine, the U.S. may choose to refrain from asserting its jurisdiction over foreign flag vessels in its territorial sea and internal waters, leaving control of the matter to the flag State.

Answer 595

Only that force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force shall never be used where duties can be discharged without them. Excessive force shall never be used.

Answer 596

Detention of a person is the temporary limitation of that person’s freedom of movement.

Answer 597

For vessels operating in the Atlantic AOR, all observed whales should be treated as a North Atlantic right whale unless or until the whale is positively identified as another whale species.

Answer 598

Spaces not designed for continuous human occupancy • Limited or restricted means of entry and exit • Limited means of ventilation

Answer 599

MCI/KR are facilities, structures, systems, assets or services so vital to the port and its economy that their disruption, incapacity, or destruction would have a debilitating impact on defense, security, the environment, long-term economic prosperity, public health, or safety of the port.

Answer 600

The act of defending oneself or other persons from imminent danger.

Answer 601

Foreign vessels not operating for profit may conduct recreational fishing within the U.S. EEZ or state waters.

Answer 602

Customs waters for the U.S. are generally those waters shoreward of a line drawn 12 NM from the baseline (including territorial sea and internal waters with ready access to the sea).

Answer 603

Maritime Law Enforcement (MLE); Customs; Protection and Security of Vessels, Harbors, and Waterfront Facilities, including Law Enforcement (LE) Ashore; Assistance; and Coast Guard Investigative Service (CGIS) Special Agents.

Answer 604

It is preferred that NOAA OLE agents complete seizure and sale or donation of a catch.

Answer 605

Endangered Species Act

Answer 606

Control Techniques: Techniques or actions with a low probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones.

Answer 607

For Security Boarding's greater than 300 gross tons, teams shall be comprised of a minimum of 6 qualified armed LE personnel, at least one of whom shall be a certified Coast Guard Boarding Officer.

Answer 608

Generally, if a whale surfaces within 100 yards of the vessel, the unit shall take action as prudent and appropriate to ensure the safety of both the crew and the whale and to minimize damage to the vessel.

Answer 609

Security Zone - Established by the COTP, District, or Area Commander, can be fixed or moving, and have variable restrictions and size. NVPZ - Fixed in size, established by law, in force at all times around all naval vessels 100' in length or greater. 500 yards area, must be at minimum speed, nothing within 500 yards.

Answer 610

Passive Compliant Passive Resistor Active Resistor Active Aggressor

Answer 611

Once the unaccounted for person, weapon, or safety hazard has been located, or the basis for the suspicion is otherwise addressed.

Answer 612

The MMPA applies to any person or vessel shoreward of 3 NM from the baseline and to U.S. persons and vessels wherever located, except in the territorial sea of a foreign nation.

Answer 613

The principle of force majeure means that a vessel forced into coastal State waters by virtue of distress, whether brought about by natural or man-made causes, is generally not subject to coastal State jurisdiction during a reasonable period of time necessary to remedy such distress.

Answer 614

The Fourth Amendment protects U.S. persons and foreign persons in U.S. territory from searches that unreasonably interfere with a person’s reasonable expectation of privacy, and thus applies to inspections conducted to ensure compliance with governmental regulations.

Answer 615

A quick and limited protective inspection of a vessel for boarding team safety.

Answer 616

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Officer for Law Enforcement

Answer 617

International law allows for the establishment of an EEZ, adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 200 nautical miles (NM) from the baseline, in which a coastal State may exercise the control necessary to protect natural resources.

Answer 618

Verbal Commands: Verbal commands in the form of task direction with consequences aimed at the subject.

Answer 619

Jurisdiction is a government’s power to exercise legal authority over its persons, vessels, and territory.

Answer 620

Defense of the United States, U.S. Forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent.

Answer 621

Level IIIa

Answer 622

Aggressive Response Techniques: Techniques or actions likely to result in connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones, or that will produce irritation of the skin, eyes, and/or mucous membranes.

Answer 623

Intermediate Weapons: Techniques or actions with a high probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones.

Answer 624

Law Enforcement Officer Safety Act

Answer 625

In addition, regulations contained in 50 CFR 224.105 specify speed restrictions of no more than 10 knots on most ships under U.S. jurisdiction, 65 feet and over, while within seasonal management areas (SMA) to protect the North Atlantic right whale.

Answer 626

The MSFCMA establishes a national program for the conservation and management of the fishery resources of the U.S. to prevent overfishing, to rebuild over-fished stocks, and to facilitate long-term protection of essential fish habitats.

Answer 627

MARSEC 1 is the Coast Guard’s baseline security posture.

Answer 628

Whether a reasonable innocent person in the suspect’s position would feel a restraint on his/her freedom of movement to such an extent that it approaches a formal arrest.

Answer 629

Innocent passage is the right of non-interference for a vessel transiting inbound, outbound, or through a foreign territorial sea.

Answer 630

MLEM, appendix E.

Answer 631

Known weapons Unaccounted for person(s) Safety hazards

Answer 632

Authority is the government’s legal power to act.

Answer 633

The Contiguous zone is adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline, in which a coastal state may exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringements of its fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and customs laws.

Answer 634

Deadly force is authorized. OR There is a reasonable possibility that the use of deadly force may be required.

Answer 635

International waters are the waters seaward of the outer limit of the territorial sea of any nation, but encompassing the high seas EEZ and the contiguous zone.

Answer 636

A substantive law is one that prohibits certain action or requires affirmative conduct.

Answer 637

Key Port Areas are zones within ports or along navigable waterways where heavily populated areas, DoD assets, choke points, or Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (MCI/KR) would be vulnerable to attacks.

Answer 638

Marine Mammal Protection Act

Answer 639

Level 1, Officer Presence Level 2, Verbal Commands Level 3, Control Techniques Level 4, Aggressive Response Techniques Level 5, Intermediate Weapons Level 6, Deadly Force

Answer 640

The Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) established a program to ensure “optimum sustainable populations” of marine mammals.

Answer 641

MARSEC 2 is an increased security posture, normally set when there is a perception of heightened general risk.

Answer 642

The Coast Guard shall enforce or assist in the enforcement of all applicable federal laws on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

Answer 643

Internal waters for the U.S. are those shoreward of the baseline, including all waters on the U.S. side of the international boundary of the Great Lakes.

Answer 644

Piracy Transport of Slaves Unauthorized Broadcasting

Answer 645

Internal waters wholly within a single state.

Answer 646

A BISS shall be conducted as part of every boarding.

Answer 647

U.S. Fiscal, Immigration, Sanitary, and Customs

Answer 648

The Coast Guard may make inquiries, examinations, inspections, searches, seizures, and arrests upon the high seas and waters over which the United States has jurisdiction, for the prevention, detection, and suppression of violations of laws of the United States. For such purposes, commissioned, warrant, and petty officers may at any time go on board of any vessel subject to the jurisdiction or to the operation of any law of the United States, address inquiries to those on board, examine the ship ’s documents and papers, and examine, inspect, and search the vessel, and use all necessary force to compel compliance.

Answer 649

The Lacey Act prohibits unlawful transportation of certain fish or wildlife.

Answer 650

A “consensual boarding” means the master or person in charge of a foreign flagged vessel, Boarding other than a warship, on the high seas or other waters not within coastal State jurisdiction consents to the boarding of his/her vessel, regardless of whether the team otherwise has jurisdiction to board.

Answer 651

Infra-orbital nerve Hypoglossal nerve Mandibular nerve C-clamp Jugular notch

Answer 652

Administrative provisions Catch limitations Closed areas Gear restrictions Other requirements for particular species.

Answer 653

Transit passage is the right of non-interference for a vessel or aircraft transiting through a foreign territorial sea that comprises an international strait used for navigation between areas of international waters.

Answer 654

1.3 NM (2,600 yards)

Answer 655

Members reporting to a SEOPS or a WQS cutter who attained basic/advanced damage control qualifications should, at a minimum, complete all SEOPS/WQS ship-specific training required on the member’s new cutter.

Answer 656

The Indoctrination Program shall be structured so that it can normally be completed within two months of the member reporting aboard. Completion of assigned PQS or WQS qualifications may take longer.

Answer 657

2,800 yards (1.4 NM)

Answer 658

External Forces

Answer 659

These qualifiers shall be designated in writing by the Command and made know to all members of the Command.

Answer 660

Adding weight topside will move the center of gravity towards that weight addition. Removing weight will move the center of gravity away from the weight removal. Shifting weight will move the center of gravity parallel to, and in the same direction as the weight shift.

Answer 661

3.84 knots

Answer 662

Damage Control Training Team (DCTT). Engineering Training Team (ETT). Navigation and Seamanship Training Team (NSTT). Force Protection Training Team (FPTT)

Answer 663

Monthly viewing of CGBI Training Board Meetings Qualification Tracker

Answer 664

XPO should be your right hand person, carrying out your orders, You should include your XPO in decision making and get their advice, Give the XPO opportunities to learn, develop, and be in charge.

Answer 665

8° Pitch and 10° Roll

Answer 666

Ready for Sea

Answer 667

Carry out an active training plan; Advise members to frequently check their training summary; Ensure TMT and DA are fully up to date.

Answer 668

With the seas off the beam.

Answer 669

All cutters shall conduct a Shakedown Cruise following an inport period exceeding 60 days.

Answer 670

Cutter CO/OIC or acting CO/OIC shall approve/certify all entries made in TMT.

Answer 671

Subject to the discretion of the commanding officer or officer-in-charge, final qualification as an OOD shall not exceed 12 months.

Answer 672

1,000 Yards

Answer 673

Medical Dental Immunizations Medical Tests Evaluations Weigh-In's Mandated Training

Answer 674

The following cutter classes are not required to have a Unit Training Board; these responsibilities shall be assumed by their unit training officer or training petty officer: WPBs, WLIs, WLICs, WLRs and WYTLs.

Answer 675

Engineering Training Team

Answer 676

At a minimum, monthly plans are required.

Answer 677

Interim qualifications are not to exceed 3 months and should be issued in very limited situations.

Answer 678

Down flooding is the entry of water into the hull, resulting in progressive flooding and loss of stability.

Answer 679

All MTLs are posted and maintained on the Commandant (CG-751) website.

Answer 680

Oversee the operation and maintenance of all machinery and damage control equipment, Be part of the command and be a source of advice.

Answer 681

1,600 yards (0.8 NM)

Answer 682

WQS shall be used by affected cutters for individual qualification instead of Navy/Coast Guard PQS, locally generated JQRs or SEOPS programs.

Answer 683

0.3 NM (600 yards)

Answer 684

0.6 NM (1,200 yards)

Answer 685

Meets at least once per month to review training program requirements and establish/update training plans based on the cutter’s schedule and operating status.

Answer 686

Units should submit MTL change recommendations via their chain-of-command and operational commander to Commandant (CG-751) for consideration.

Answer 687

Force Protection Training Team

Answer 688

Gravity and Buoyancy

Answer 689

Ideally, change recommendations should be forwarded during the August to September time frame each year.

Answer 690

Internal Forces

Answer 691

Safe navigation of your ship, Ensure your ship is operationally ready to perform all assigned missions, Observe the functioning of ATON and report discrepancies, Be alert to reports or rumors of distress and respond to any reports received, Maintain discipline aboard your ship.

Answer 692

1,200 yards (0.6 NM)

Answer 693

The metacenter is the center of the arc through which the centers of buoyancy move.

Answer 694

The detrimental effect on which a partially filled tank or compartment can have on the stability of a vessel.

Answer 695

Navigation and Seamanship Training Team

Answer 696

1,650 Yards

Answer 697

The board’s purpose is to identify training requirements, establish and maintain training policy in a unit instruction, set priorities for training, develop a unit training plan and coordinate qualification oral boards.

Answer 698

2,100 yards (1.05 NM)

Answer 699

Exempted from this requirement are individuals who have previously served as officer-in-charge or executive petty officer of that cutter class.

Answer 700

No appreciable bearing change; Decreasing Range; CBDR

Answer 701

23.75 knots

Answer 702

A Sector or District representative shall be present.

Answer 703

KG is the vertical position of gravity; the distance from the baseline (keel) to the center of gravity.

Answer 704

Formal Schools Mandated Training Individual Qualification Programs Drills and Exercises Professional Development

Answer 705

Cutter Training and Qualification Manual, Master Training Lists, Watch Qualification Standards.

Answer 706

Drills/exercises scored with grades of 79% or less shall be repeated.

Answer 707

Relative bearing; CPA, range, bearing, time; Rules of the Road situation; Recommendation.

Answer 708

A written agreement between the CO and EO regarding the level of initial casualty control actions to be taken during periods of restricted maneuverability. It covers the particular machinery that the engine room can take control of in the event of a casualty.

Answer 709

18.43 knots

Answer 710

Drills/exercises scored with grades of 80% or higher shall be considered successful and can be entered into TMT as completed.

Answer 711

The Unit Training Plan, Form CG-5293 or locally created forms, spreadsheets or the Microsoft Outlook Calendar application as an alternative to the Unit Training Plan, Form CG-5293.

Answer 712

RFS is a specialized training and evaluation period that includes ATG participation for newly commissioned cutters or for cutters departing extended drydocks, maintenance or non-operational periods of six months or greater.

Answer 713

0.9 NM (1,800 yards)

Answer 714

2,900 yards (1.45 NM)

Answer 715

Actual evolutions (e.g., boardings, refueling at sea) may be credited as exercises, provided they are properly observed, evaluated and critiqued.

Answer 716

Heading into the seas with a speed of 4 to 6 knots is ideal.

Answer 717

On small cutters, a team may consist of one or two people.

Answer 718

A board shall have a minimum of two members, but shall consist of: At least one qualified OOD; EOW; or Tactical Action Officer (TAO) depending on the watchstation for which the member is qualifying. Division officer or department head responsible for the watchstation.

Answer 719

Stability and Loading Data Book.

Answer 720

Main Propulsion Space Fire Underwater Hull Damage Man Overboard Preparations for Abandon Ship Cutter Boat Launch and Recovery Low Visibility Piloting by ECINS Steering Casualty Other Basic Engineering Casualty Control Exercises (BECCEs) and underway cutter boat drills.

Answer 721

This responsibility cannot be delegated.

Answer 722

No specific requirement exists to retain any portion of the actual PQS booklet after a qualification has been fully documented. Personnel are encouraged to keep copies of final qualification sign-off sheets and qualification letters.

Answer 723

Damage Control Training Team

Answer 724

Team Leader Evaluator Safety Observer

Answer 725

Retained in unit files for two years. Electronic folders/ files are acceptable as long as final versions of Unit Training Plans are available for viewing or printing.

Answer 726

The purpose of the RFS process is to assess the cutter’s ability to operate safely and effectively until it can complete a full training cycle (CART/TSTA or SEOPS).

Answer 727

0.8 NM (1,600 yards)

Answer 728

OBTTs are composed of the most qualified officers and petty officers organized to assist the commanding officer in training individuals and teams, and in evaluating performance during training scenarios.

Answer 729

The negative effect on stability caused by the rupture of one, or more, exterior boundaries of a ship so that the sea may flow freely into, and out of the damaged compartment as the ship roles.

Answer 730

PIW in darkness, restricted visibility, or exact time is unknown.

Answer 731

Annually, on the members birth month.

Answer 732

These training evolutions should be indicated in the plan by specific drill numbers, course codes, topic names or specific identifiers; indicating generic “drills”, “mandated training”, etc. is not sufficient.

Answer 733

Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)

Answer 734

2.7 NM (5,400 yards)

Answer 735

400 yards (0.2 NM)

Answer 736

Underway familiarization shall not be conducted on the same vessel to which the member is being assigned.

Answer 737

Transverse and Longitudinal

Answer 738

The Executive Petty Officer

Answer 739

A successful unit self assessment is one that has no more than a 10 percent difference compared to ATO’s CART Assessment.

Answer 740

Unit Training Board membership shall, at a minimum, include the executive officer (XO) or executive petty officer (XPO), training officer or training petty officer and/or assistant, all department heads, educational services officer (if assigned), damage control assistant (if assigned) and corpsman (if assigned).

Answer 741

1.6 NM (3,200 yards)

Answer 742

All drills and operations are entered into EAL, which feed TMT and CGBI.

Answer 743

The intersection of the vertical line through the center of buoyancy and the vertical centerline is called the metacenter.

Answer 744

Before the execution of the training scenario, a thorough brief approved and signed by the Officer in Charge is required.

Answer 745

Provide a safe haven; notify OPCON, and the liaison officer for that area.

Answer 746

Though every assessment may be different, a basic RFS will include a doctrine review, CART/SEOPS checklist review and the execution of critical or core drills.

Answer 747

During this transition, CART/TSTA training cycles and SEOPS visits will continue on a biannual basis.

Answer 748

The OOD shall not use "dock jumpers" when mooring unless dockside line handlers are not available. Deliver line handlers to the dock by small boat if possible. The First Lieutenant shall indoctrinate "dock jumpers" to ensure that they understand their duties and safety precautions.

Answer 749

Special and Emergency Operations and Procedures

Answer 750

Walk Through (Crew notified); Training (Crew not notified, limited intervention); Evaluation (Crew not notified, no intervention).

Answer 751

The purpose of a Shakedown Cruise is to provide dedicated training time to assist cutter crews in acquiring skills essential for the safe and effective operation of the cutter.

Answer 752

25.76 knots

Answer 753

Annually, after a yard availability with alterations, after hot work, and it is allowed 5 degrees.

Answer 754

Input different courses and speeds to evaluate rules of the road situations.

Answer 755

Officers, petty officers, department heads or equivalent authorized to attest to individual attainment of qualification standards shall, at a minimum, be E-5 or above and be certified in that watchstation.

Answer 756

WPB-87, WPB-110, WPC-154 and WMEC-210.

Answer 757

Extension cords do not exceed 25 feet in length, with the exception of repair locker equipment. Two extension cords may be used in tandem, where a 25-foot length is insufficient.

Answer 758

The term free surface effect refers to the determinable effect on which a partially filled tank or compartment can have on the stability of a vessel. The effect is due to the shifting of liquids as the vessel heels and results in the rise of the center of gravity.

Answer 759

Hull inspection

Answer 760

The Officer in Charge

Answer 761

Emergency eyewash stations are located throughout the ship, especially in areas where there is a frequent risk of exposure to eye damage. Eyewash stations must be located within 10 seconds or 100 unobstructed feet of the eye hazard or eye hazardous operation.

Answer 762

800 yards (0.4 NM)

Answer 763

Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid

Answer 764

2.3 NM (4,600 yards)

Answer 765

RFOs assessments are conducted aboard cutters 175 feet or less in length.

Answer 766

Ship control, navigation, damage control and engineering will normally be stressed.

Answer 767

Force causing a vessel to react against a roll and return to an even keel.

Answer 768

No, OIC's best judgment.

Answer 769

Onboard Training Team

Answer 770

Office of Cutter Forces, CG 751 webpage.

Answer 771

The Officer in Charge

Answer 772

Yes, in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations Article 4-2-2A and Coast Guard Navigation Standards, COMDTINST M3530.2

Answer 773

A vessel on the same heading making 10 knots.

Answer 774

600 yards (0.3 NM)

Answer 775

Full rudder and alter your course 60 degrees, then shift your rudder until on the reciprocal of your base course.

Answer 776

All prospective commanding officers (PCOs) and officers in charge (POICs) are required to spend a period of underway familiarization on a cutter of the same class as their new command.

Answer 777

Shakedown Cruises are cutter self-assessments and are similar in nature to Ready for Sea (RFS) assessments, without ATG/SEOPS involvement.

Answer 778

Letter of designated Procurement Authority.

Answer 779

Operating and Maintenance Funds

Answer 780

Separate purchases made for the same item under the micro-purchase limit, for the purpose of exceeding the micro-purchase limit.

Answer 781

Approving an unauthorized purchase, if warranted.

Answer 782

Printing is Non-Ratifiable.

Answer 783

Yes, mandatory sources of supply must still be followed.

Answer 784

25% 1st Quarter 50% 2nd Quarter 75% 3rd Quarter 100% 4th Quarter

Answer 785

Leased/Rented/Borrowed property MWR items costing over $5000 Items over $5000 Silver service and silverware Artwork/models and artifacts with historical significance Licensed Software Foreign gifts and decorations retained by CG valued at $255 or more AE/IT equipment(monitors, keyboards, mice, and speakers are exempt

Answer 786

Written document specifying who is authorized certain roles in the procurement process.

Answer 787

Items that have Popular appeal Items that are difficult to control Are easily misappropriated for personal gains or for other reasons which justify their accountability

Answer 788

Ensure purchases are from authorized vendors, Ensure the purchases are under the micro-purchase limit, Follow procurement priorities, Certify the card holders PCA.

Answer 789

From the 19th to the 26th.

Answer 790

Purchase Card Application; used to verify (cardholder) and certify (AO) credit card purchases.

Answer 791

A process of approving an unauthorized commitment by an official who has the authority to do so. The individual who made the unauthorized commitment must state the facts, which precipitated the action. If the person who made the purchase is no longer available, the immediate supervisor must provide the info.

Answer 792

Govt. Printing Office (GPO) ONLY.

Answer 793

Conduct market research, Provide at least three estimates, Work through the Sector/ COCO to decide on the appropriate source.

Answer 794

Supplies - $3,500 Services - $2,500 Construction - $2,000

Answer 795

E7 or above - requires 3 people.

Answer 796

Member making purchase could have to pay for the purchase personally.

Answer 797

Yes, within reason.

Answer 798

Naval Engineering

Answer 799

Rental or lease of real property Telephone services (except cell phones) Cash Transactions Personal Purchases Savings Bonds Payment of freight transportation services

Answer 800

Plan on how a unit will spend its allotted funds, taking into account SMAs, planned maintenance, etc.

Answer 801

Financial Procurement Desktop - A computerized database where PR's are initiated and unit spending is tracked.

Answer 802

6 years 3 months

Answer 803

Excess funds available for distribution.

Answer 804

AO’s must receive refresher training every 2 years.

Answer 805

From the 12th to the 19th.

Answer 806

Standard Support Level

Answer 807

COMSEC Material Report (SF 153)

Answer 808

Upon receipt. At least annually. When someone having the combination no longer requires access. When the combination has been compromised or the container has been discovered unlocked and unattended.

Answer 809

Critical threat: This condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized warning.

Answer 810

This condition applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture.

Answer 811

High threat: This condition applies when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent. Implementation of this measure for more than a short period will probably create hardship and will affect the peacetime activities of the unit and its personnel. All previous measures remain in effect.

Answer 812

Low threat: This condition applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO. However, it may be necessary to implement certain selected measures from FPCON BRAVO as a result of intelligence received or as a deterrent. The measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.

Answer 813

Medium threat: This condition applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. The measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained for weeks without causing undue hardship, without affecting operational capability, and without aggravating relations with local authorities. All previous measures remain in effect.

Answer 814

Worse than CAT 3, and causes a loss of at least one primary mission.

Answer 815

CO/OICs shall ensure that all personnel on board cutters entering a shipyard or commercial dockside availability are instructed in industrial safety requirements.

Answer 816

Responsible for requisition of Product Line supplied parts.

Answer 817

Contact CEU and the Sector EO.

Answer 818

Disposal of paper rags, glass, metal, or food permitted only if shredded to less than 1-inch pieces.

Answer 819

It prohibits operation of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components.

Answer 820

Field Terminal Operator

Answer 821

Minor degradation in a primary mission; or a major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission.

Answer 822

Every 5 years

Answer 823

No, But there are few instances where spouses can receive ride(from duty location to official function and return trip).

Answer 824

Tool Control Program (TCP) is designed to provide quality tools and test equipment for asset maintenance while ensuring tool accountability and security.

Answer 825

Three sets of CCOL sheets are supplied to each cutter.

Answer 826

CCOL is updated after a Change, dry-dock, or pier side.

Answer 827

Sector PL SFLC CG-45 CG-4

Answer 828

Naval Electronic System Supply Support

Answer 829

A Garbage Management Plan must be maintained on board. (MARPOL Annex V, Regulation 9)

Answer 830

A single tag-out log is required for other cutter and boats.

Answer 831

To identify instruments that will not correctly indicate parameters because the instruments are defective or isolated from the system.

Answer 832

All cutters 65 feet in length and greater are required to prepare and maintain an Engineering Casualty Control Manual.

Answer 833

Liquid load list and docking position.

Answer 834

The Authorizing Officer

Answer 835

More than $5K but less than $10K.

Answer 836

As Low as Reasonably Achievable

Answer 837

Corrosion Control Prevention conducted Weekly IAW CCP Guide. (Enter in Special Inspection’s in ALMIS.)

Answer 838

Vessel Environmental Manual (COMDTINST M16455.1)

Answer 839

Engineering Changes (EC) Time-critical maintenance actions Time-critical inspections Temporary operational configuration changes

Answer 840

Cutter- Lock out/ Tag out log Station- Lock out Procedures IAW OSHA

Answer 841

Engineering Depot Supply

Answer 842

All cutters shall maintain a current In-Op Fitting Log.

Answer 843

TTP for damage control, firefighting TTP, and all bills required of a cutter 175 or less.

Answer 844

Assets not enrolled in EAL and ACMS Assets enrolled in EAL and ACMS

Answer 845

Initial Update Correct Cancel

Answer 846

Every three years

Answer 847

Log bilge water discharges including activity, location, date, time, and quantity.

Answer 848

Not Mission Capable Maintenance

Answer 849

Initial Update Correct Cancel

Answer 850

Surface Forces Logistics Center

Answer 851

Partially Mission Capable

Answer 852

Time Compliance Technical Order

Answer 853

Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health

Answer 854

The program requires maintainer ensure daily spot checks of tools and tool boxes is accomplished as outlined in the unit’s tool control instruction.

Answer 855

Enters in MPC’s and other data.

Answer 856

Sector CEU SILC CG-43 CG-4

Answer 857

Asset Logistics Management Information System

Answer 858

Pre-Mission Record

Answer 859

Chapter 090

Answer 860

Within 24 hours of discovery of an equipment or system deficiency.

Answer 861

Submit the report to the Product Line Manager via the assigned SFLC Port Engineer. One copy shall be retained on board for the cutter files.

Answer 862

1) Machinery Readiness 2) Engineering Casualties (BECCEs) 3) General Emergency Casualties 4) Damage Control Organization

Answer 863

Electronic Asset Logbook

Answer 864

Waivers for restrictive or disabling casualties documented in EAL are equivalent to official written waivers.

Answer 865

All vessels less than 140’ in length shall at a minimum record current Material Condition of Readiness in the Ship’s Log, or at CO/OINC’s discretion maintain a formal DC Closure Log.

Answer 866

Lock ALMIS Record (EO or call help desk).

Answer 867

OIC is required to conduct a safety inspection at least yearly.

Answer 868

Asset Material Management Information System

Answer 869

Specific instructions for the preparation of the ECCM are contained in Chapter 079 of the NEM.

Answer 870

Stability Tests conducted every 10 years on a single asset of each class of cutter.

Answer 871

29 CFR 1910 29 CFR 1915 Required by OSHA

Answer 872

Between the hours of 2200 and 0600, in port inspection requirements can be further reduced if all berthing areas are equipped with adequate installed flooding and fire sensor alarms to alert a sleeping watchstander, provided the watchstander is on board at all times.

Answer 873

Engineer Officers and Engineer Petty Officers (EO/EPO).

Answer 874

Only those tools enrolled in the TCP are authorized for asset maintenance.

Answer 875

Submit the report to the Product Line Manager via the assigned SFLC Port Engineer.

Answer 876

Tool accountability reduces Foreign Object Damage (FOD) or injury due to tools adrift on the asset. Tool security reduces replacement costs and ensures tool availability.

Answer 877

Every 30 days.

Answer 878

LCI- Logistic Compliance Inspection (Every 3 years)

Answer 879

Not Mission Capable Maintenance

Answer 880

Motor Pool Managers shall schedule a check of engine fluids, tire air pressure, and visually inspect each vehicle periodically not less than every 2 weeks.

Answer 881

Zero Items

Answer 882

Required for Fuel Tanks over 10,000 lbs and must be on file with the community right to know with the State.

Answer 883

Unlike controlled parts exchange, cannibalization is performed with the intent of not replacing or returning a part to the donor asset.

Answer 884

Planned Depot Maintenance Section

Answer 885

Pulped, ground or comminuted garbage capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 12 mm (0.47 in).

Answer 886

SLDBs are required on all cutters 65 feet in length and greater that are not required to maintain DC Books.

Answer 887

The person with the authority to sign tags/labels to be issued or cleared in the authorizing officer.

Answer 888

Annually (Ashore/Afloat)

Answer 889

Hearing/ Sight Conservation, Fire Prevention, Haz Comms, Haz waste, heat stress, Respiratory Protection.

Answer 890

ALMIS/ EAL

Answer 891

In the rare instance that the person is not available, the Commanding Officer may grant the Engineer or Operations Officer permission to clear the tag(s).

Answer 892

The EO/EPO is responsible for the preparation and upkeep of the department Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill.

Answer 893

Engineering Casualty Control Manual

Answer 894

Decision Support System

Answer 895

Planned Obligation Prioritization Board

Answer 896

To identify instruments that are out of calibration and will not accurately indicate parameters.

Answer 897

Occupational Medical Surveillance and Evaluation Program; a database to track safety and health of unit personnel.

Answer 898

Yes, Invite Sector EO, if something is failing you can CASREP.

Answer 899

Chapter 555

Answer 900

Aboard all cutters and boats.

Answer 901

Organizational Level Maintenance Depot Level Maintenance

Answer 902

Hazardous Waste Manual

Answer 903

Maintenance/Publication Feedback

Answer 904

You need to check the disable button in EAL when an open discrepancy is created. This is usually done by the technician and prevents the coxswain from checking the boat out.

Answer 905

You as the Unit identifies a project that your believe you can do yourself or you can find someone to do for you and it will not cost more than 10K but will cost more than 5K.

Answer 906

Six months.

Answer 907

Asset Logistics Management Information System

Answer 908

Stop, Move Away, Alert, & Close Off.

Answer 909

Cutter Standard Repair Locker Inventory, COMDTINST 9664.1 (series)

Answer 910

From cradle to grave.

Answer 911

The EO/EPO shall provide a Night Order Book to be read and initialed by the Engineer Officer of the Watch for each night, in port and at sea.

Answer 912

A list of items to include in the report is in chapter 90 NEM.

Answer 913

Mission Record

Answer 914

At minimum, two 1-1/2 inch (or 1-3/4 inch with 1-1/2 inch fittings), 50-FT lengths of hose shall be located at each fire station on the main weather deck, lower decks, and superstructures, with one 50-FT length connected to each fireplug.

Answer 915

Typically the Engineering Officer and an alternate, usually the Maintenance Control Officer, are designated to perform this action.

Answer 916

84 Single Protection 104 Double Protection

Answer 917

Proper routing information, what the casualty was, type of casualty, assistance required, ETR, and if engine, serial number, hours, type.

Answer 918

Maintenance Record

Answer 919

OINC, EPO, Port Engineer, and Yardmaster should provide measurements.

Answer 920

Identifies the status of casualty and parts or assistance required.

Answer 921

NSTM 074 and the Cutter Standard Repair Locker Inventory.

Answer 922

Master set Spare copy Posted in the compartment

Answer 923

Major degradation, but not the loss of a primary mission.

Answer 924

The person attaching the tag(s) shall be the ONLY person that removes the tag(s) and submits them for clearance.

Answer 925

Main control, Engineering Assist location, all repair lockers, DCC and the pilot house.

Answer 926

100% personnel accountability prior to lighting off CO2 (OIC Permission). 15 Min effectiveness of CO2 prior to indirect attack using fixed AFFF system. (3 Cans). OIC permission for fire team to enter space within 2 minutes of indirect attack.

Answer 927

Minimum of 2 divers with one safety observer (dive master)

Answer 928

The Maintenance Officer or Engineering Officer.

Answer 929

Asset Material Manager

Answer 930

Class Maintenance Plan, Naval Engineering Project List of scheduled work to be completed through the life of the cutter to help ensure a longer operational period.

Answer 931

Chapter 79

Answer 932

Shore Station Maintenance Record

Answer 933

The Authorizing Officer

Answer 934

Cutters and below can reduce inspection requirements while in port. Operating machinery must be checked at least once every four hours when in port, on electrical shore-tie between the hours of 0600 and 2200.

Answer 935

On cutters and boats with a single tag-out log requirement, the Engineering Department shall maintain this log.

Answer 936

The placement of a lockout device on an energy isolating device, in accordance with an established procedure, ensuring that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled cannot be operated until the lockout device is removed.

Answer 937

Reporting the condition of aircraft, boats, and vehicles for incidents of loss, theft, damage.

Answer 938

Navy Type Navy Owned

Answer 939

The ECCM shall contain emergency procedures to be followed by personnel assigned to the various Watch Stations if a casualty or machinery derangement occurs.

Answer 940

Naval Engineering Manual, COMDTINST M9000.6 (series)

Answer 941

It is a precaution to provide temporary special instructions or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised to operate equipment.

Answer 942

Carried Forward

Answer 943

Compartment Check off List- An itemized list of classified and unclassified fittings and damaged control equipment for setting material conditions of readiness.

Answer 944

Parts Pending

Answer 945

EPO is responsible for preparation and upkeep of the WQSB.

Answer 946

Used to cancel a CASREP

Answer 947

For liquid leak scenario: 2 mins to get charged hose into space (Minimum of 2 Cans of AFFF).

Answer 948

Logistics Compliance Inspection

Answer 949

Corrective Maintenance (CM) Preventive Maintenance Alterative Maintenance

Answer 950

A planning tool to identify future maintenance needs. They are used to report the need for maintenance or repair of an item that is: Beyond the capability of a unit's personnel resources. Beyond the unit's financial resources. Cost exceeds $5K. Alterations to structures/ facilities.

Answer 951

A device that utilizes a positive means such as a lock, either key or combination type, to hold an energy isolating device in the safe position and prevent the energizing of a machine or equipment. Included are blank flanges and bolted slip blinds.

Answer 952

All cutters are equipped with either 3% proportioning equipment designed for Type 3 AFFF concentrate or 6% proportioning equipment designed for Type 6 AFFF concentrate.

Answer 953

Cutter Commanding Officer (CO) has ultimate responsibility for maintenance completion on the cutter.

Answer 954

Monthly (Ashore/Afloat)

Answer 955

Cutters equipped with video and electronic control and monitoring systems that in addition to monitoring spaces for fire and flooding, can alert the watchstander of abnormal system parameters prior to failure, can reduce inspection requirements on operating machinery to at least once every four hours.

Answer 956

All cutters should formalize a local fire department agreement and conduct familiarization training at least Bi-annually.

Answer 957

Current Ship’s Maintenance Projects, used to document corrective maintenance needs only.

Answer 958

Chapter One

Answer 959

Operating Materials and Supplies

Answer 960

Every 3 Years

Answer 961

All cutter and boat operating machinery shall be inspected every hour, and readings shall be recorded.

Answer 962

CASREP DISCREP SSMR

Answer 963

Asset Computerized Maintenance System

Answer 964

Provides an update on efforts to resolve an equipment malfunction or degradation.

Answer 965

When a disabling discrepancy is entered, the asset | condition is automatically set to a downward pointing red arrow.

Answer 966

A valid Driver’s License

Answer 967

The shop supervisor.

Answer 968

Centralized Maintenance Manager

Answer 969

Special tools are those tools not in the standard tool box, but called out on an MPC to complete a given task.

Answer 970

A CG-4491 Parts & Material Request Form.

Answer 971

Chapter Four

Answer 972

Condition Based Maintenance

Answer 973

Submit this report no later than 31 January; if at sea at the end of the reporting period, submit the report upon reaching a port.

Answer 974

Carried Forward Depot

Answer 975

(CASCOR) this is the final report for a material casualty repaired by unit (sent within 24 hours of repair).

Answer 976

Time Compliance Technical Order (Configuration Change, Allotted Time Frame, if not completed disable boat).

Answer 977

40 hour OJT requirement waived Must issue at least 1 GFE certificate per quarter to keep certifications current.

Answer 978

Every 6 Months

Answer 979

No, it requires two person integrity and the second person must initial.

Answer 980

Engineering Department Standing Orders Night Order Book Steaming Orders Light Off Schedule Securing Schedule WQSB ECCM Cutter Engineering Report

Answer 981

Small units 160 feet in length and below shall assign 1-2 DCPOs

Answer 982

Yes, approved by the OIC, also required to have night order book.

Answer 983

Section I- Safety Items Section II- Hull Section III- Machinery/Electrical Section IV- Administrative Programs Section V- Cutter Engineering Summary Section VI- Remarks

Answer 984

A Tool Control Program must be established at each integrated unit.

Answer 985

A repair that does not impair the operational capability of a unit but fits the AFC 43 chargeable expense. Must be more than $5K.

Answer 986

Officer in Charge

Answer 987

As long as it is on the authorized chemical list for that vessel.

Answer 988

Not Mission Capable Supply

Answer 989

Asset has limited mission capability and required part is not in unit inventory.

Answer 990

Asset Computerized Maintenance System

Answer 991

Quadrennial

Answer 992

Annual, within 6 months of CG receiving new asset, and TCTO or major overhaul effecting machinery propulsion.

Answer 993

Submit to Sector Product Line Reviews District Approves

Answer 994

It is the CO’s responsibility to ensure that maintenance is completed in an orderly and timely manner to meet the assigned mission requirements.

Answer 995

Oxygen levels less than 19.5 percent or greater than 22 percent shall be considered as IDLH.

Answer 996

Depot Level maintenance expenses incurred in support of the Shore Unit Logistics Support Program.

Answer 997

Maintenance Release Authority (MRA) must be delegated in writing by the Sector/DSF Unit Commanding Officer.

Answer 998

Small boat product line takes 71% of budget.

Answer 999

Cutter Engineering Report is due NLT Jan 31st.

Answer 1000

Not used in CG.

Answer 1001

Boat type operator's handbook. This instruction clearly outlines what a disabling casualty is and what a restrictive discrepancy is.

Answer 1002

NTNO support requests must be documented in EAL as necessary AND communicated using the CASREP system in accordance with current Navy requirements.

Answer 1003

Chapter 1 - Machinery Readiness Chapter 2 - Engineering Casualties (BECCEs) Chapter 3 - General Emergency Casualties Chapter 4 - Damage Control Organization

Answer 1004

The Officer in Charge shall designate the authorizing officers in writing.

Answer 1005

ALMIS ENG Programs Hazmat Supply Configuration

Answer 1006

These inspections are normally carried out weekly while underway and bi-weekly in port.

Answer 1007

The cognizant department head is responsible for ensuring that checks and audits of all tag-outs are performed once every two weeks.

Answer 1008

100 degrees (take readings hourly)

Answer 1009

Asset is disabled, requires disabling discrepancy in EAL.

Answer 1010

Shore facilities or shore equipment failures that impair the operational capability of a unit. The condition must degrade the operational capability. Must be more than $5K.

Answer 1011

Call the Helpdesk and have them lock the boat record in ALMIS.

Answer 1012

CEU FAM (facility asset manager) District FAM Sector Engineer Officer

Answer 1013

The Authorizing Officer

Answer 1014

Fleet Logistics System

Answer 1015

Before you question anyone on what you believe may lead the member to being charged under the UCMJ.

Answer 1016

Alcohol is the Significant or Causative Factor Alcohol Must be Consumed

Answer 1017

All enlisted personnel are allowed to reenlist for periods of three, four, five, or six years.

Answer 1018

But if the matter is not resolved with the Command within that 15-day period, on the 16th day the military member may initiate the pre-complaint process with an EO Counselor.

Answer 1019

Members unable or unwilling to take the steps to satisfy requirements of this policy will be administratively separated.

Answer 1020

When the commanding officer is convinced that a member is negligent or careless in regard to personal finances, the individual may be advised to submit a statement of monthly finances and outstanding obligations. Such a request should not be placed in the form of an order and failure to comply with the advice should not be the occasion for disciplinary action.

Answer 1021

For OCONUS units, members applying for temporary separation for CNC must have completed at least two years at their current duty station prior to separation.

Answer 1022

CFC and CGMA are the only fundraising activities that may be conducted in an official capacity in the workplace.

Answer 1023

The maximum amount of time for TEMPSEP is two years, including processing time to return to active duty.

Answer 1024

This applies to both adoptions and to biological parents.

Answer 1025

If a member is transferred prior to satisfactory resolution of the problem, all current correspondence shall be forwarded to the member's new commanding officer.

Answer 1026

Eligibility for TEMPSEP does not guarantee approval. Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1), must approve or deny eligible requests based on the needs of the Service and the member’s record.

Answer 1027

They are normally are processed for separation.

Answer 1028

The relapse will be documented as their first alcohol incident and a new aftercare program will be reinstated effective the date the relapse was identified.

Answer 1029

The Temporary Separation (TEMPSEP) program allows Coast Guard active duty members to return to active duty after a temporary separation, allowing the member to focus on personal interests/issues they might be precluded from performing by remaining on active duty.

Answer 1030

Temporary relief for cause, and Permanent relief for cause

Answer 1031

The nature of the alleged offense(s); The physical and mental condition of the accused; The impact of the member's presence on the unit; and The unit's ability to ensure the member will be available at the request of the civilian authorities.

Answer 1032

Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute

Answer 1033

Tool to help individuals reach career goals. Action plan to move the individual from where they are to where they want to go.

Answer 1034

Each active duty member must complete and meet the eligibility requirements listed below by the SED of 1 February for the May SWE or 1 August for the November SWE.

Answer 1035

A member on an advancement list will have the advancement withheld until weight is met.

Answer 1036

Inappropriate: Unacceptable and not allowed under service policy. Prohibited: Violates UCMJ

Answer 1037

After receiving the final report of investigation, the District Commander, Commanding Officer, or Officer in Charge “substantiates” the abuse.

Answer 1038

Enlisted members must have at least four years of continuous active duty instead of at least six years of active duty per Article 3.F.1 of this Manual.

Answer 1039

The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (30 calendar days for reservist).

Answer 1040

Innocuous practical jokes, such as fetching “relative bearing grease” or “prop wash” do not constitute hazing as long as they are not intended to and actually do not humiliate, ridicule, or ostracize.

Answer 1041

For CONUS units, members applying for temporary separation for CNC must have completed at least one year at their current duty station prior to separation.

Answer 1042

Substance Abuse-Free Environment

Answer 1043

A copy of the Personnel Security Action, Form CG-5588, used to report any civil conviction shall be submitted to Commander (CG PSC-OPM) or (CG PSC-EPM), as applicable, and (CG PSC-PSD-MR).

Answer 1044

E2-E6/ O1-O4/ W2's within their first 48 months of service.

Answer 1045

No, with the exception of a tattoo in the form of a ring are authorized on the wearers finger with the limitation of one per hand (w/ the exception of thumbs).

Answer 1046

A commander who becomes aware of a hate incident will electronically report the incident within 48 hours to a Civil Rights Service Provider using memo format.

Answer 1047

The Coast Guard is not obligated to offer treatment prior to separation to individuals’ diagnosed with conditions that existed prior to enlistment.

Answer 1048

Three consecutive failed semi-annual weigh-ins. Members who fail to maintain compliance with weight and body fat standards for three consecutive weigh-ins (Apr-Oct-Apr or Oct-Apr-Oct).

Answer 1049

Members in the pay-grade E-3 or less are ineligible.

Answer 1050

Commander, (CGPC-epm) normally authorizes no-cost TAD orders for a maximum of six months for a HUMS because the situation involved is usually temporary.

Answer 1051

Underage drinking is considered an alcohol incident. Should an incident occur, the CDAR shall counsel the member and initiate an alcohol screening.

Answer 1052

If it appears the member will not be available for unlimited reassignment on completing the HUMS, Commander, (CGPC-epm) considers the hardship a permanent situation and normally will initiate discharge by reason of hardship.

Answer 1053

Handle the matter under the UCMJ for direct disobedience of an order, start an official investigation on the possible drug usage charge.

Answer 1054

Requests under this section must not be based on needs of the Service, and Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1), must endeavor to grant these requests as much as possible.

Answer 1055

Immediately upon a non-compliant weigh-in.

Answer 1056

Following one alcohol incident, enlisted members who have not advanced beyond pay grade E-2 and have more than two years of Coast Guard service shall normally be separated by reason of unsuitability due to alcohol abuse

Answer 1057

You must investigate any drug incident, process the member for discharge, possible UCMJ charges, and consider treatment.

Answer 1058

Members diagnosed with alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence within six months of enlistment are not physically qualified for enlistment. If appropriate, unit commanders shall recommend discharge

Answer 1059

Requests shall be submitted via Coast Guard Memorandum directly to Commander (CG PSC-EPM-2) with unit command endorsement, and in the case of a mutual, a copy to the other member's command.

Answer 1060

Yes, one sticker only.

Answer 1061

HUMS are at no cost to the government. However, in some very limited, unusual cases, the Service may decide the overall situation warrants the Service’s funding a permanent change of station (PCS) transfer.

Answer 1062

Commander, Coast Guard Personnel Center is the discharge authority in all cases of administrative separation. (EPM-1)

Answer 1063

Members that decline rehabilitation treatment shall sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry indicating they waive their right to benefits under the Department of Veterans Affairs program for treatment of chemical dependency.

Answer 1064

Travelers are required to submit travel claims for local administrative review at their unit within three working days from the termination of the travel.

Answer 1065

Unless there is an associated alcohol incident, the member may request removal of the screening letter and treatment plan from his or her Personnel Data Record after successfully completing the prescribed aftercare.

Answer 1066

An evaluation by a Collateral Duty Alcohol Representative (CDAR) does not satisfy the screening requirement contained in this Manual.

Answer 1067

Filing discrimination complaint. Investigation of complaint. Adjudication and other post-investigative processes.

Answer 1068

Three Years

Answer 1069

Members approved for TEMPSEP may request to cancel, prior to their separation date, their approved TEMPSEP agreement to remain on active duty or separate without TEMPSEP.

Answer 1070

This involves the initiation of counseling where an aggrieved individual may obtain information about determining whether his/her issue may be resolved through means other than a formal complaint, including alternative dispute resolution options.

Answer 1071

Members can be considered unsuitable for further service because of inaptitude, no adaptability, want or readiness of skill, clumsiness or inability to learn, personality disorders, apathy, defective attitudes, adjustment disorders, unsanitary habits, alcohol abuse, or financial irresponsibility.

Answer 1072

The Pre-Complaint process The Alternative Dispute Resolution process The Formal Complaint process

Answer 1073

When the member has served a total of eight or more years.

Answer 1074

They are normally are processed for separation.

Answer 1075

Members with less than six years of continuous active duty service in the Coast Guard are ineligible. Service in another military service must not be creditable towards TEMPSEP eligibility.

Answer 1076

Officers in Charge shall ensure that members diagnosed as chemically dependent by competent medical authority are offered rehabilitation treatment before discharge if they are amenable to the treatment.

Answer 1077

No, you need probable cause and a search authorization to single out a member for a urinalysis. Work through OPCON as only a Commanding Officer or Military Judge can grant a search authorization. There is no need for a search authorization if the urinalysis is random.

Answer 1078

Tangible Employment Action Hostile Environment

Answer 1079

At any point in the complaint process, an aggrieved person may opt for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), which is a prompt and informal alternative to the conventional complaint process.

Answer 1080

Purchasing alcohol for use by minors is not an alcohol incident, but does represent a serious breach of discipline and subjects the member to civil or military (UCMJ) penalties.

Answer 1081

Week 28 and beyond.

Answer 1082

Members have a supervisor and subordinate relationship Members are assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60 members) Members are assigned to the same cutter The relationship is between chief petty officers (E-7/8/9) and junior enlisted personnel (E-4 and below) The relationship is manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business.

Answer 1083

Discipline and Conduct

Answer 1084

Members on a current body fat probation are ineligible. Members may be on an exemption or abeyance.

Answer 1085

1) Distracts from unit readiness or poses a security risk of any kind. 2) By reason of the hours or nature of work interferes with or is not compatible with efficient performance of military duties. 3) May reasonably be expected to bring discredit on the service. 4) Is unethical in view of the possible exercise of influence attending the member's military position. 5) Involves a conflict of interest, generally having a direct business relationship with the CG as a vendor, contractor, or subcontractor.

Answer 1086

The marking official shall be an officer, civilian, chief petty officer, or first class petty officer. However, a first class petty officer me be designated as an executive petty officer. A marking official who is designated as an executive petty officer does not have to be one pay grade senior to the evaluee.

Answer 1087

1) Members who have a supervisor and subordinate relationship. 2) Members assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60 members active duty). 3) Members assigned to the same cutter. 4) The relationship is between Chief Petty Officers (E7/8/9) and junior personnel (E4 and below). 5) The relationship is manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business.

Answer 1088

A Humanitarian Assignment is a special assignment authorized to alleviate a hardship so severe an emergency leave cannot fully resolve it.

Answer 1089

Officers in Charge shall initiate an investigation into a possible drug incident.

Answer 1090

Tests may never be given early. However, ships may administer within 10 days after the scheduled date if underway during the entire period.

Answer 1091

As soon as possible, but no later than two weeks after diagnosis of pregnancy.

Answer 1092

Following an alcohol incident, commanding officers shall review the member's security clearance and access to classified material to determine whether the member’s clearance should be suspended.

Answer 1093

Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1) must act as approving authority to approve or deny requests for TEMPSEP.

Answer 1094

Must notify command within 2 weeks of knowing of pregnancy.

Answer 1095

Members exceeding max allowable body fat by less than 8% or weight by 35 pounds, all others are ineligible for probation and will be processed for separation.

Answer 1096

Members who are not tour complete at the time of separation are ineligible.

Answer 1097

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place, Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at training commands and students.

Answer 1098

The assignment policy offers married active duty members the opportunity to collocate or reside jointly whenever possible.

Answer 1099

No tattoos or brands on the arms shall exceed below the wrist.

Answer 1100

30 days from the period end date.

Answer 1101

They are normally are processed for separation.

Answer 1102

Transfer marks outside of 92 days NJP Advancement to E7 Change in Rate Reduction in Rate Performance

Answer 1103

Immediate family means: father, mother, person standing in loco parentis, spouse, children, brother, sister, or only living relative. In loco parentis is defined as a person who stood in place of a parent for the Service member 24 hours a day for a period of at least 5 years before the Service member became 21 years old or entered military service.

Answer 1104

In some cases, if the hardship continues after six months, Commander, (CGPC-epm) may authorize no-cost PCS orders for up to two years for humanitarian reasons.

Answer 1105

20th week (3rd trimester)

Answer 1106

Members are entitled to be advised of their rights under Article 31, UCMJ. This applies whether or not disciplinary action under the UCMJ is contemplated.

Answer 1107

If he is on an approved list for adoption with an adoption agency.

Answer 1108

Comments are required for all ratings of 1, 2, 7, U, or N in the Review Rating Comments section under the Reviewers tab.

Answer 1109

A petty officer first class, who requests assignment to a basic petty officer course and receives orders to it, shall be reduced to pay grade E-5 prior to departing present unit.

Answer 1110

The results of this alcohol screening shall be recorded and acknowledged on an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry or letter, as appropriate, in the member's PDR.

Answer 1111

Commands should not offer treatment to members with conditions that EPTE if said treatment will delay separation beyond 180 days of active Coast Guard service.

Answer 1112

Yes, maximum 4" x 4" in size.

Answer 1113

Self-referral to alcohol treatment, by itself, is not considered an alcohol incident.

Answer 1114

12 months.

Answer 1115

Earned leave, plus 30 days. | Military Assignments and Authorized Absences, COMDTINST M1000.8

Answer 1116

All members who TEMPSEP must affiliate with the Coast Guard Reserve.

Answer 1117

The child must be less than 1 year old at the time of separation.

Answer 1118

21 days prior to the period end date.

Answer 1119

EO Counselor has 30 days to inquire, resolve, or issue a right to file (RTF) a formal complaint.

Answer 1120

Miranda/Tempia rights.

Answer 1121

These members must meet the following additional criteria: 1) Have submitted a Victim Reporting Preference Statement, Form CG-6095, with the unrestricted reporting option selected, within two years of the requested separation date. 2) Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1) (with consultation from LSC-PSC) determine that preponderance of the evidence that a crime of sexual assault may have occurred.

Answer 1122

Military members may initiate contact with a CRSP or the CO/OIC within the 45 days of the event.

Answer 1123

USCG/CRD issues Final Action within 60 days.

Answer 1124

Sexual harassment is defined as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.

Answer 1125

No, the date of the message to be placed on the supplemental list is the date all qualifications must be completed.

Answer 1126

The minimum amount of time for a TEMPSEP is six months. Requests for a period of less than 6 months shall be reviewed on a case by case basis and will be subject to the needs of the service.

Answer 1127

An action or incident committed by a member or members of the local community against a Coast Guard military member or a dependent of a military member that is harassing, or perceived as discriminatory in nature.

Answer 1128

Should the self-referred member fail to complete the second aftercare plan they will be processed for separation.

Answer 1129

1) Engaging in sexual intimate behavior aboard any CG vessel, or in a CG controlled workspace. 2) Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. 3) Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at training commands and students.

Answer 1130

No extra duties are to be performed on the member’s Sabbath day.

Answer 1131

Minor offenses/ Maintenance of Discipline

Answer 1132

1) Dismissal 2) NJP 3) Court-Martial 4) Other Administrative Action

Answer 1133

Forwarding a matter to the next superior officer in the chain of command for disposition may also be appropriate when the appropriate punishment may be beyond the limits of the commanding officer’s NJP authority.

Answer 1134

Once commenced, restriction runs continuously and cannot be interrupted, except during the service of a punishment of confinement or restriction adjudged by a court-martial, an appeal of the NJP, or emergency leave.

Answer 1135

Provides OINC’s with the authority to impose NJP without resort to the judicial forum of Courts Martial.

Answer 1136

Any officer who succeeds to command in the absence of the assigned commanding officer because of death, incapacitation, illness, Temporary Additional Duty (TAD), relief for cause or leave has the power of the assigned commanding officer to impose punishment.

Answer 1137

Military Justice Manual Manual for Courts Martial

Answer 1138

Appeals shall be submitted through the commanding officer who imposed the NJP and any superiors in his/her chain of command to the “superior authority” designated by this section to act upon that appeal.

Answer 1139

Maintenance of Discipline - Each commanding officer is responsible for the maintenance of discipline within his or her command.

Answer 1140

NJP may be imposed for minor offenses made punishable by the UCMJ as defined in Part IV, MCM.

Answer 1141

Ordinarily, an offense should be considered minor if the maximum sentence that could be awarded at a general court-martial does not include a dishonorable discharge or confinement for more than 1 year.

Answer 1142

Part V, Manual for Courts-Martial [MCM], supplements Article 15, UCMJ, and provides procedural guidance.

Answer 1143

You must receive Commandant Authorization prior to imposing NJP for civil offences pending trial or tried by state court. You cannot for cases prosecuted in Federal Court.

Answer 1144

As a matter of Coast Guard policy, authorization from the Judge Advocate General (CG-094) must be obtained before NJP may be imposed for an offense pending trial or tried by a state or foreign criminal court.

Answer 1145

A OIC imposing punishment may defer punishment at the Time of NJP. The execution of restriction or restriction with extra duties may be delayed until arrival of the vessel in port.

Answer 1146

A member of the Reserve is subject to the UCMJ while performing Inactive Duty for Training [IDT], Active Duty for Training [ADT], or active duty.

Answer 1147

NJP may not be imposed for an offense previously tried by court-martial and resulting in a finding of guilty or not guilty.

Answer 1148

Yes, When acting they assume the same authority as the regularly assigned OIC.

Answer 1149

A suspension must be for a definite period, not to exceed six months, and this period shall be specified when the punishment is suspended.

Answer 1150

The commanding officer may, though he or she is not required to, also allow the member to copy all or parts of the PIO’s report and other supporting materials.

Answer 1151

A member punished under Article 15, UCMJ, may appeal if he or she considers the punishment imposed “unjust” or “disproportionate” to the acts of misconduct for which punished.

Answer 1152

Before you question anyone on what you believe may lead to a member being charged under UCMJ.

Answer 1153

1) Seriousness of the offense; 2) Circumstances surrounding the offense; 3) Member’s prior performance and potential; 4) Potential rehabilitative effect of punishment on the particular member; 5) Mitigating and extenuating circumstances; 6) Effect of offense upon the good order and discipline within the command; 7) Beneficial effect of immediate punishment; 8) Deterrent effect of punishment on potential offenders; 9) Recommendations from any subordinate commanders; and 10) Potential adverse administrative consequences (e.g., loss of eligibility for good conduct award; eligibility for reenlistment or promotion; show cause board; recoupment of selective reenlistment bonus; administrative discharge).

Answer 1154

14 Days Restriction 14 Days Extra Duty 3 Days Pay

Answer 1155

This is covered under the Military Justice Manual. If a warrant is presented and generated by the state your unit is located you should turn the member over.

Answer 1156

To suspend a punishment means to hold it in abeyance, or not execute it, for a specified period, with remission at the end of that period.

Answer 1157

A Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 is not required to initiate a preliminary inquiry

Answer 1158

14 Days extra duty; 14 Days restriction; 3 Days forfeiture of pay.

Answer 1159

Any member of the armed forces who is aware of an offense may submit a Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910.

Answer 1160

The burden of proof required in order to award punishment at NJP is a preponderance of evidence, the commanding officer must determine it is “more likely than not” that the member committed an offense(s) defined by the UCMJ

Answer 1161

The nature of the alleged offense(s); The physical and mental condition of the accused; The impact of the member's presence on the unit; and The unit's ability to house the individual

Answer 1162

Report of Offense and Disposition

Answer 1163

EMI is defined as instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient.

Answer 1164

NJP may be imposed upon TAD personnel by the commanding officer of the member’s permanent unit or by the commanding officer of the unit to which the member is temporarily assigned.

Answer 1165

Suspension of punishment may be especially appropriate when it is the member’s first offense or where there are extenuating or mitigating circumstances.

Answer 1166

Prior to imposition of NJP, the member must be allowed to examine documents and other evidence that the NJP authority will examine and consider in determining whether to impose NJP.

Answer 1167

After NJP is imposed, the amount of punishment may not be increased on appeal or for any other reason.

Answer 1168

Suspension provides the member with an additional incentive for proper behavior.

Answer 1169

A mast representative shall be appointed to assist the member in preparing for and participating in the mast proceedings, unless the member declines appointment of a mast representative.

Answer 1170

A reservist may not be retained on IDT or ADT solely for the purpose of maintaining NJP authority.

Answer 1171

Felony level UCMJ Violations Violations of Federal Criminal Law Victim Status Lost Stolen misappropriated government property Death of covered person Workplace violence and threatening behavior Personally identifiable information Cyber Crime Child Porn Child Abuse, Spouse Abuse TWIC criminal investigation and enforcement actions Security violations Desertion or disappearance of a CG member on AD Protective Service operation Fraud, waste and abuse Information of significant interest – criminal investigation Prisoner transport

Answer 1172

Military Justice Manual Enclosure (1)

Answer 1173

Extra duties are performed after regular working hours.

Answer 1174

No, you need probable cause and a search authorization to single out a member for urinalysis; Ask the member to submit to a Consent Search; Work through OPCON as only a CO or military judge can grant a search authorization; No need for search authorization if urinalysis is random.

Answer 1175

Summary, Special, and General.

Answer 1176

The representative should be an officer or petty officer and must, if practicable, be attached to the unit of the commanding officer conducting the mast.

Answer 1177

Extra duties may only be imposed on members of the grade of E-6 and below.

Answer 1178

NJP may be imposed upon TAD personnel by the commanding officer of the member’s permanent unit or by the commanding officer of the unit to which the member is temporarily assigned.

Answer 1179

The person submitting the Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 may rely upon information received from other sources and does not have to have personally witnessed the alleged act of misconduct.

Answer 1180

Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice [UCMJ], provides commanding officers with the authority to impose NJP without resort to the judicial forum of a courts-martial.

Answer 1181

When a minor offense has been committed and lesser administrative measures are considered insufficient to meet the needs of good order and discipline, a commanding officer should consider invoking his or her authority under Article 15, UCMJ, to impose NJP.

Answer 1182

Safety and Security Operational Readiness Health and Welfare

Answer 1183

A member who appeals his or her NJP is required to serve any punishment while appeal is pending. If action by the appeal authority is not taken within 5 calendar days after submission, however, upon the member’s request, any un-served punishment involving restraint or extra duties shall be deferred until action on the appeal is taken.

Answer 1184

A mast is not an adversarial proceeding. It is different from courts-martial; a member has no right to be represented by an attorney at mast. It is possible, however, that the member may obtain the services of an attorney or any other person, at no expense to the government, to appear as his or her spokesperson

Answer 1185

The executive officer may amend the Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 as necessary to ensure the Details of Offenses are supported by evidence. A copy of any amended Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 shall be provided to the member.

Answer 1186

The appeal must be submitted in writing within 5 calendar days of the imposition of the punishment, or the right to appeal shall be waived in the absence of good cause shown.

Answer 1187

The number of hours to be served daily, not to exceed two hours daily.

Answer 1188

Under Article 31(b), UCMJ a military member suspected of an offense may not be questioned unless he or she is informed of the nature of the offense, advised that he or she does not have to make a statement, and informed that any statement made may be used as evidence.

Answer 1189

When a mast punishment is suspended for a specified period and the member is transferred before the end of the period, the punishment is automatically remitted when the member is transferred.

Answer 1190

Medical Dental Chaplain Pay Leave Liberty

Answer 1191

The burden of proof required in order to award punishment at NJP is a preponderance of evidence. This standard means that before NJP may be awarded, the commanding officer must determine it is “more likely than not” that the member committed an offense(s) defined by the UCMJ.

Answer 1192

Special Liberty Base or Ship Movies MWR Events On Base Driving Commissary Duty Swaps Base Clubs Civilian Clothes on Unit On base Parking

Answer 1193

5 Calendar Days

Answer 1194

If the commanding officer determines that the alleged offense is too serious to be disposed of through NJP, he or she should not announce a finding or impose NJP. The commanding officer should inform the member that he or she intends to consider referring the matter for trial by court-martial or referring the matter to his or her superior commander, and that the member will be informed when a decision is made.

Answer 1195

The member will receive credit for performing extra duty on the Sabbath day if it falls within the prescribed period of extra duty

Answer 1196

When imposing NJP, the commanding officer should also consider whether to suspend all or part of the punishment imposed.

Answer 1197

Extra Military Instruction, phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient, directed towards the correction of that deficiency. Not to be substituted for NJP.

Answer 1198

A retiree may not be recalled to active duty solely for the imposition of NJP.

Answer 1199

4910 Rights advice Form PIO Report and all report enclosures

Answer 1200

UCI occurs when senior personnel knowingly or unknowingly influence court members, witnesses, or others participating in military justice cases to the detriment of the accused.

Answer 1201

A work-related injury or illness requires more than simple first aid treatment but does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap. Non-aviation property damage of $5,000 or more but less than $50,000. Near misses (High Potential for Loss).

Answer 1202

An injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability. The cost of reportable property damage is $2,000,000 or greater. A Coast Guard aircraft, including an Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) or cutter is missing, abandoned, recovery is impossible or impractical, or is beyond economical repair. A Coast Guard boat has reportable property value of $100,000 or more and is missing or abandoned, for which recovery is impossible or impractical, or is beyond economical repair. Any Coast Guard personnel are missing or missing in action.

Answer 1203

An incident where boat crew members or other aircrew members receive a static shock during hoisting operations is considered a reportable Class D mishap.

Answer 1204

High Potential for loss (HIPO). HIPO events include near misses and have Coast Guard-wide implications. HIPO incidents shall be reported, even with minimal or no injury, illness, or damage. They are usually associated with Class C or D mishaps since they have a potential to be a more severe mishap.

Answer 1205

An injury or occupational illness that requires treatment by a medical professional and results in, for any time beyond the day or shift in which it occurred: (a) Loss of time from work; (b) Placement on a limited duty or restricted duty status; (c) Removal from flight status, and/or; (d) Transfer of any individual(s) to a different job. The resulting cost of reportable property damage, or damage to cutters and aircraft (including UAS), is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000. Coast Guard boats that incur repairable damage of $50,000 or more, but less than $100,000.

Answer 1206

An unplanned, unexpected, or undesirable event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, or damage to or loss of materiel.

Answer 1207

Any injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability. The resulting cost of reportable property damage, or damage to cutters and aircraft (including UAS), is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000. Three or more personnel are hospitalized inpatient. A Coast Guard boat has repairable damage of $100,000 or more.

Answer 1208

CG-83 Office of Resource Management

Answer 1209

Basic Daily Food Allowance; amount of money required to provide a daily ration.

Answer 1210

Purchase vs. Allowance

Answer 1211

FSAT and FINCEN. SPO if on an afloat unit.

Answer 1212

Purchase vs. Allowance: Purchases support the menu. Perpetual Inventory: Menu is driven by inventory.

Answer 1213

OIC must send a written memo to HQ explaining the cause and how you are going to correct it. Notify FSAT.

Answer 1214

No, These items need to be purchased with unit operating funds

Answer 1215

Provide unit assessments Provide on the job training for FS's Provide assistance to FS and command in administering a dining facility

Answer 1216

If used, must be operated separately by non FS personnel, members cannot be charged meals to cover coffee mess.

Answer 1217

XPO, weekly

Answer 1218

Yes, if on the menu, max 1 liter bottles.

Answer 1219

Food Service Assistance and Training Team

Answer 1220

Funds are being managed properly. Quality of meals is acceptable. Crew has minimal complaints.

Answer 1221

For maintenance (dry-dock/ dockside): Email FSAT Note on CGDFOS Switch crew to BAS

Answer 1222

Leftovers- May be retained 24 hours chilled or for 5 hours if maintained Hot.

Answer 1223

For a permanent closure: Notify CG-1111 via letter through the chain of command with copies to the FINCEN and FSAT. Note the reason for closure, disposition of stores, and affect on the crew.

Answer 1224

Basic Daily Food Allowance. 10 Days prior to the start of each calendar quarter.

Answer 1225

NLT 10th of each month.

Answer 1226

Energy Drinks Meal Supplements Pre-Made Meals (no Boston Market meals)

Answer 1227

CGDFOS (CG-2576) Provisional Inventory Report (CG-4261) Supply Fund Report DHS 1501 (for each purchase card) Menu Procurement Request (CG-4200)

Answer 1228

Temporary and Permanent

Answer 1229

That the amount of money being spent is within 10% of the rations claimed. That all purchases are from authorized vendors.

Answer 1230

Food Service Manual COMDTINST M4061.5 (series)

Answer 1231

Try to transfer stores to another unit until it is fixed. If you cannot salvage food: Donate it to a non-profit group, survey lost items, note on CGDFOS.

Answer 1232

41F or below 140F or above Frozen Foods 0F or below

Answer 1233

Can be run out of galley funds as long as coffee is on the menu, only allowed at meal times.

Answer 1234

At least two

Answer 1235

SIK (daily rations)

Answer 1236

Annually, By a CPO or above (outside of the galley chain of command).

Answer 1237

Prospective cutter, station, or ANT Commanding Officers, Officers-in-Charge, Executive Officers and Executive Petty Officers shall pass the appropriate (Initial or Renewal) DWO Examination prior to executing orders.

Answer 1238

Failure to pass the examination within two attempts following receipt of orders will result in the cancellation of those orders and documentation, at a minimum, via an administrative remarks entry.

Answer 1239

1) Side light; 2) Stern light; 3) Towing light; 4) Three masthead lights in a vertical line.

Answer 1240

1) An alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam, other than for a vessel being overtaken; 2) An alteration of course towards a vessel abeam or abaft the beam.

Answer 1241

When the length of a tow exceeds 200 meters a diamond shape shall be exhibited where it can best be seen.

Answer 1242

Narrow Channels

Answer 1243

Such a situation shall be deemed to exist when a vessel sees the other ahead or nearly ahead and by night she could see the masthead lights of the other in a line or nearly in a line and/ or both sidelights and by day she observes the corresponding aspect of the other vessel.

Answer 1244

1,000 Meters

Answer 1245

An intermittent flashing amber (yellow) beacon with a sequence of operation of one flash per second for three (3) seconds followed by a three (3) second off period.

Answer 1246

Unless otherwise agreed, when two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other.

Answer 1247

The vessel proceeding upbound against the current shall hold as necessary to permit safe passing.

Answer 1248

When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether such a situation exists she shall assume that it does exist and act accordingly.

Answer 1249

A vessel shall not cross a narrow channel or fairway if such crossing impedes the passage of a vessel which can only safely navigate only within such a channel or fairway.

Answer 1250

For prospective cutter, station, or ANT command cadre and designated cutter operations personnel, the October-December time frame is within the one-year requirement of the typical summer PCS season.

Answer 1251

A vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light.

Answer 1252

Positioning and Technical Details of Lights and Shapes

Answer 1253

Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity

Answer 1254

All vessels and vessels equipped with radar.

Answer 1255

A regular power driven vessel of its size and class.

Answer 1256

A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel or fairway shall keep as near to the outer limit of the channel or fairway which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable.

Answer 1257

A power driven vessel which takes action in a crossing situation with another power driven vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, not alter course to port for a vessel on her own port side.

Answer 1258

A vessel engaged in fishing shall not shall not impede the passage of any other vessel navigating within a narrow channel or fairway.

Answer 1259

When two power driven vessels are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side shall keep out of the way and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid crossing ahead of the the other vessel.

Answer 1260

1) A vessel not under command; | 2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver.

Answer 1261

The Rules of the Road examination module for International + Inland, Module Number Q100 is the only authorized substitute for the DWINTO.

Answer 1262

A power driven vessel which, because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water is severely restricted in her ability to deviate from the course she is following.

Answer 1263

Any action taken to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time, and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship.

Answer 1264

Where one of two vessels is to keep out of the way the other shall keep her course and speed.

Answer 1265

Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken.

Answer 1266

When both have the wind on the same side, the vessel which is to the windward shall keep out of the way of the vessel which is to leeward.

Answer 1267

Side lights and a stern light.

Answer 1268

An all round flashing yellow light (120 fpm).

Answer 1269

Members who possess a valid Merchant Mariner Credential are not waived from the requirements of this Instruction. Members are required to take the Initial DWO Examination (DWINTO) if they do not meet the requirements of a renewal examination.

Answer 1270

A power driven vessel operating on the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or waters specified by the Secretary, and proceeding down bound with a following current shall have the right of way over an up bound vessel, shall propose the manner and place of passage, and shall initiate maneuvering signals as appropriate.

Answer 1271

An examination failure does not necessarily require a decertification of an OOD or coxswain qualification unless the Commanding Officer/Officer-in-Charge (CO/OIC) has lost faith in the member’s overall ability.

Answer 1272

If the member fails to pass the examination within six months after reporting, that fact shall be documented, at a minimum, via an administrative remarks entry, and the member will normally be transferred during the next assignment season.

Answer 1273

Initial and the renewal.

Answer 1274

Every vessel shall use all available means appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions to determine if risk of collision exists. If there is any doubt such risk shall be deemed to exist.

Answer 1275

BMs shall be current in the appropriate (Initial or Renewal) DWO Examination for advancement. BMs that have not passed the DWO examination are not eligible to advance, or be placed on the supplemental or striker eligibility lists.

Answer 1276

Every vessel shall at all times proceed at a safe speed so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions.

Answer 1277

A power driven vessel operating in narrow channels or fairways on the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or waters specified by the Secretary, and proceeding down bound with a following current shall have the right of way over an up bound vessel, shall propose the manner and place of passage, and shall initiate maneuvering signals as appropriate.

Answer 1278

1) Rule 9 - Narrow Channels 2) Rule 10 - Traffic Separation Schemes 3) Rule 13 - Overtaking

Answer 1279

As vessels shall, so far as practicable, avoid crossing traffic lanes but if obliged to do so shall cross on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow.

Answer 1280

On the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or water specified by the Secretary, a power driven vessel crossing a river shall keep out of the way of a power driven vessel ascending or descending the river.

Answer 1281

DWINTO is required for members who have not previously passed the DWO Examination or have exceeded a period of five years since the date of their last successful examination.

Answer 1282

Sailing Vessels

Answer 1283

Any alteration of course and/ or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/ or speed should be avoided.

Answer 1284

Responsibilities Between Vessels

Answer 1285

Action by Stand-On Vessel

Answer 1286

1) Two power driven vessels; 2) Within sight of one another; 3) Meeting on a reciprocal or nearly reciprocal course; 4) So as to involve risk of collision.

Answer 1287

Distress Signals

Answer 1288

A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to maneuver as required by these rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel.

Answer 1289

Pilot Rules

Answer 1290

The vessel which has the wind on the port side shall keep out of the way of the other.

Answer 1291

A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam.

Answer 1292

Every vessel proceed at a safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances or conditions of restricted visibility.

Answer 1293

Technical Details of Sound Signal Appliances

Answer 1294

1) A vessel not under command; 2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; 3) A vessel engaged in fishing.

Answer 1295

Overtaking

Answer 1296

A power driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver.

Answer 1297

Application

Answer 1298

Action to Avoid Collision

Answer 1299

Crossing Situation

Answer 1300

Head-On Situation

Answer 1301

Assumptions shall not be made on the basis of scanty information, especially scanty radar information.

Answer 1302

This rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility.

Answer 1303

Traffic Separation Schemes/ Vessel Traffic Services

Answer 1304

1) Capability/ limitations of the radar. 2) Constraints imposed by the scale used. 3) Effect of interference on radar detection. 4) Possibility of vessels/ objects not detected. 5) Number/ location of moving vessels. 6) The more exact assessment of visability.

Answer 1305

Distress Signals

Answer 1306

When two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other.

Answer 1307

Safe Speed

Answer 1308

Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility

Answer 1309

Risk of Collision

Answer 1310

When, from any cause, the vessel required to keep her course and speed finds herself so close that collision cannot be avoided by the action of the give way vessel alone, she shall take such action as will best aid to avoid collision.

Answer 1311

Action by Give-Way Vessel

Answer 1312

Normally join or leave a traffic lane at the termination of the lane, but when joining or leaving from either side shall do so at as small an angle to the general direction of traffic flow as practicable.

Answer 1313

1) Sidelights; 2) Two towing lights in a vertical line; 3) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

Answer 1314

1) Sidelights; 2) Stern light; 3) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

Answer 1315

Shall reduce her speed to the minimum at which she can be kept on her course. She shall if necessary take all her way off and in any event navigate with extreme caution until danger of collision is over.

Answer 1316

She shall take avoiding action in ample time provided.

Answer 1317

1) Two power driven vessels; 2) Within sight of one another; 3) Are crossing; 4) So as to involve risk of collision.

Answer 1318

1) A vessel not under command; 2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver; 3) A vessel engaged in fishing.

Answer 1319

Any subsequent alteration of the bearing between the two vessels shall not make the overtaking vessel a crossing vessel within the meaning of these rules or relieve her of her duty of keeping clear of the overtaken vessel until she is finally past and clear.

Answer 1320

Every vessel which is directed to keep out of the way of another vessel shall, so far as possible, take early and substantial action to keep well clear.

Answer 1321

1) Side lights; 2) Stern light; 3) Towing light; 4) Masthead light; 5) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

Answer 1322

When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether she is overtaking another, she shall assume that is the case and act accordingly.

Answer 1323

1) Such risk shall be deemed to exist if the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does not appreciably change. 2) Such risk may sometimes exist even when an appreciable bearing change is evident, particularly when approaching a very large vessel or a tow or when approaching a vessel at close range.

Answer 1324

A vessel less than 2 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway.

Answer 1325

A vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light.

Answer 1326

A vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close quarters situation is developing and/ or risk of collision exists.

Answer 1327

1) The state of visibility. 2) Traffic density in the area. 3) Your maneuverability ability (stop/ turn). 4) Background lighting at night. 5) State of wind/ sea/ current (prox to nav haz). 6) Draft in relation to depth of water.

Answer 1328

Every vessel shall have due regard to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility.

Answer 1329

1) Overtaken 2) Not Under Command 3) Restricted in Her Ability to Maneuver 4) Constrained by Draft (international only) 5) Fishing 6) Sailing 7) Power Driven 8) Seaplanes 9) Wing in Ground 10) Overtaking

Answer 1330

Every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and of the risk of collision.

Answer 1331

DWINTR is administered to members who have previously passed an Initial Examination or a Renewal Examination within the last five years. This five year period of eligibility commences on the date of their last successful examination.

Answer 1332

1) Side light; 2) Stern light; 3) Towing light; 4) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

Answer 1333

Prior to receiving orders, a member may take the DWO examination multiple times without repercussions. Once orders are issued, the member must pass the test within two attempts.

Answer 1334

The latter vessel may however take action to avoid collision by her maneuver alone, as soon as it becomes apparent to her that the vessel required to keep out of the way is not taking appropriate action in compliance with these rules.

Answer 1335

In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking can take place only if the vessel to be overtaken has to take action to permit safe passing, the vessel intending to overtake shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate sound signal.

Answer 1336

Coast Guard personnel shall not engage in independent firefighting operations, except to save a life or in the early stages of a fire to avert a significant threat without undue risk.

Answer 1337

0-23: Green 24-44: Amber 45-60: Red

Answer 1338

Article 98, the Law of the Sea Convention makes the act of stopping to render assistance to mariners in distress while transiting a foreign territorial sea fully consistent with the principles of innocent passage, thus disassociating entry or rendering assistance while in innocent passage from the notion that these acts violate a coastal State’s sovereignty.

Answer 1339

When an Auxiliary vessel on routine safety patrol or otherwise on orders discovers a vessel requesting assistance, but not in radio contact with the Coast Guard, the Auxiliarist will relay the request for assistance to the Coast Guard operational commander and may undertake to provide assistance, if capable.

Answer 1340

The release of names of individuals being sought or having been rescued by the Coast Guard may be released by the responsible PAO or SMC while a SAR case is open and active.

Answer 1341

The person exercising ACTSUS authority shall personally ensure that notifications are made and interaction established with the NOK at the earliest possible time.

Answer 1342

Coast Guard personnel shall not actively engage in firefighting except in support of a regular firefighting agency under the supervision of a qualified fire officer.

Answer 1343

In cases involving towing by the Coast Guard or Coast Guard Auxiliary, the vessel being assisted will normally be taken to the nearest safe haven that has an available means of communication, normally a telephone.

Answer 1344

A case where the subject reported to be in distress is confirmed not to be in distress and not to be in need of assistance. In a false alert case, the reporting source either misjudged a situation or inadvertently activated a distress signal or beacon resulting in an erroneous request for help, but did not deliberately act to deceive.

Answer 1345

On Scene Commander

Answer 1346

Rescue Coordination Center

Answer 1347

Cooperation with other States, Agencies, Territories, and Political Subdivisions. The Coast Guard may, when so requested by proper authority, utilize its personnel and facilities to assist any Federal agency, State, Territory, possession, or political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, to perform any activity for which such personnel and facilities are especially qualified.

Answer 1348

Air embolism is caused by excess gas pressure inside the lungs. It is most likely to develop during an improperly executed ascent. As the diver ascends, the air in the lungs expands, forcing gas bubbles directly into the bloodstream. This air (bubble) typically is transported to the brain where blockage of blood flow will occur depriving the brain of oxygen.

Answer 1349

Properly trained, qualified, and supervised Coast Guard law enforcement personnel may use force in accordance with the Coast Guard Use of Force policy, when necessary, to compel compliance with an evacuation order issued under the aforementioned conditions.

Answer 1350

For all AE rescue operations conducted by Coast Guard rescue units, the Coast Guard National Command Center shall be promptly notified.

Answer 1351

The Coast Guard's primary concern in a search and rescue situation is to provide timely and effective assistance.

Answer 1352

This pattern is used when there is a high degree of confidence the search object is close to the estimated datum position.

Answer 1353

The safety of assisting personnel; The safety of the persons in danger or distress; U. S. foreign relations with the coastal State; and Any applicable international SAR agreement.

Answer 1354

Authority to Engage in SAR. Authorizes the Coast Guard to perform any and all acts necessary to rescue and aid persons, and to protect and save property.

Answer 1355

A Coast Guard resource may assist in a non-distress situation when no higher priority missions exist and no other capable resource is reasonably available.

Answer 1356

Upon completion of the pattern, a second pattern is started with the heading of the new first leg 30 degrees to the right of the final course of the first pattern.

Answer 1357

A case where information is conveyed with the intent to deceive.

Answer 1358

Units shall claim a case and submit MISLE data when notification of distress has been received or a Search Rescue Unit (SRU) is launched.

Answer 1359

The decision to force or compel mariners to abandon their vessels should normally be made by the cognizant SAR Coordinator (SC). If time does not permit consultation with the SMC and cognizant SC, and if in the On Scene Coordinator’s (OSC) objective judgment a life-threatening emergency exists affecting the subject vessel, and there is an immediate need for assistance or aid, the OSC may authorize this action.

Answer 1360

As the first SRU begins a Victor Sierra search, the second begins its pattern at datum in a direction of 90 degrees to the left of the first leg of the first SRU.

Answer 1361

Mayday Relays are intended to alert the maritime public of an incident involving imminent danger to life.

Answer 1362

Awareness Initial Action Planning Operation Conclusion

Answer 1363

MEDICO is an international term normally meaning the passing of medical information by radio. Medical advice is available through many sources that include Coast Guard and DOD medical providers, medical firms and hospitals contracted by shipping companies and international service organizations such as the International Radio-Medical Center (CIRM).

Answer 1364

Assistance Entry

Answer 1365

The final decision to conduct a MEDEVAC rests with the aircraft commander, cutter commanding officer, or coxswain on scene.

Answer 1366

To meet the SAR response standard for most Coast Guard unit AORs, Coast Guard units with a SAR readiness responsibility shall maintain a B-0 (have a suitable SAR resource ready to proceed within 30 minutes of notification of a distress) readiness.

Answer 1367

Search and Rescue Unit

Answer 1368

These patterns are best used when the datum is established within close limits, a very high coverage immediately around the datum is desired, and the area to be searched is not extensive.

Answer 1369

ACTSUS authority inherently rests with the SAR Coordinator. ACTSUS authority may be delegated to Sector Commanders. Sector Commanders may further delegate authority to the Deputy Sector Commander or the Sector Chief of Response. District Chief of Incident Management shall be advised if this delegation is made.

Answer 1370

There is no legal obligation for the Coast Guard to undertake any particular rescue mission.

Answer 1371

Uncertainty Phase; Alert Phase; and Distress Phase.

Answer 1372

Transporting NOK decisions are made by the SMC. These decisions should be made in consultation with the cutter commanding officers, boat coxswains and aircraft commanders directed to respond to the incident.

Answer 1373

SAR Response Coordinator

Answer 1374

Maritime Mobile Service Identity

Answer 1375

SAR as a Primary Duty. Specifies duty of the Coast Guard to develop, establish, maintain, and operate rescue facilities for the promotion of safety on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S.

Answer 1376

Urgent Marine Information Broadcasts (UMIBs) are a tool used by Coast Guard SAR Mission Coordinators to alert the maritime public to a distress or potential distress situation.

Answer 1377

District Command Center

Answer 1378

Taking on water, medical problems, problem anchoring, dangerous currents or location, weather, impending darkness, survival equipment, air temp, fog.

Answer 1379

"Reasonably available” means that the resources should be able to respond before the situation deteriorates.

Answer 1380

Sector Search Pattern: Single Unit

Answer 1381

Nitrogen narcosis or “rapture of the deep”, which is not a decompression illness, is caused by the narcotic effect of the nitrogen in the diver's breathing medium and disappears when the diver moves into shallower water or surfaces.

Answer 1382

If MARBs are declined in a non-distress situation, the Coast Guard has no further obligation to monitor or respond unless boaters change their mind or the situation deteriorates. The burden lies solely with boaters.

Answer 1383

Forcible and/or compelled evacuations should only be conducted when a life-threatening emergency exists, and there is an immediate need for assistance or aid.

Answer 1384

Units may claim a case whenever a response is made no matter the time or effort expended.

Answer 1385

Once a SAR case is closed or suspended in MISLE, any request for names of individuals rescued by the Coast Guard must be submitted by the requestor IAW The Coast Guard Freedom of Information and Privacy Acts Manual.

Answer 1386

The mission and purpose of the Coast Guard’s Search and Rescue (SAR) Program is to prevent death or injury to persons and loss or damage to property in the marine environment.

Answer 1387

The DISTRESS phase exists when grave or imminent danger requiring immediate response to the distress scene threatens a craft or person.

Answer 1388

This term means a person who has been trained and certified, under National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) guidelines to take command of firefighting operations.

Answer 1389

When practical, the first leg of the search is normally in the direction of search object drift.

Answer 1390

A Safe Haven is considered a place that can accommodate and will accept the safe mooring of the vessel.

Answer 1391

Unpressurized aircraft conducting a diving accident MEDEVAC should fly at the lowest safe altitude; recommendation is for MEDEVAC aircraft is to transport at 1000 feet or below.

Answer 1392

Digital Selective Calling

Answer 1393

Used to identify options: Spread Out Transfer Avoid Accept Reduce

Answer 1394

To perform a search (AE rescue operations in a coastal State’s territorial sea extends only to rescue operations not searches. Coastal State permission must be obtained prior to entering into, flying over or landing in territory or territorial sea of a coastal State for search operations unless other prior arrangements have been made.

Answer 1395

SMC responsibilities shall not be delegated below the Sector level.

Answer 1396

Sector Search Pattern: Two-Units

Answer 1397

The code states that the Coast Guard shall develop, establish, maintain and operate SAR facilities and may render aid to distressed persons and protect and save property on and under the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. It also states that the Coast Guard may use its resources to assist other Federal and State entities. Thus, Coast Guard performance of SAR is essentially permissive in nature.

Answer 1398

An UNCERTAINTY phase exists when there is knowledge of a situation that may need to be monitored, or to have more information gathered, but that does not require moving resources.

Answer 1399

All uncorrelated MAYDAY channel 16 calls; Uncorrelated VHF-FM DSC distress calls; Flare sightings; Overdue vessel reports; and Other situations as deemed necessary by the SMC.

Answer 1400

Article 98 of the Law of the Sea Convention, “Every State shall require the master of a ship flying its flag... to render assistance to any person found at sea in danger of being lost.”

Answer 1401

All turns in this pattern are 120 degrees to the right.

Answer 1402

The most probable location of a search object corrected for movement over time.

Answer 1403

Square Single Unit

Answer 1404

Maritime SAR Assistance Policy

Answer 1405

SAR watchstanders must determine that the case is in the distress phase, and shall articulate that they believe the subject is in imminent danger. If a SAR watchstander determines that a case is in the alert or uncertainty phase, the watchstander shall complete pre-comms and ex-comms to investigate or obtain information on a vessel’s location.

Answer 1406

In the event that is not possible, this responsibility may be delegated to a mature member of the Command who may be physically proximate to the NOK (e.g., Station CO/OINC) and who is thoroughly familiar with the case.

Answer 1407

The MSAP is the result of an effort enacted by Congress in 1982. It directed the Commandant to “review Coast Guard policies and procedures for towing and salvage of disabled vessels in order to further minimize the possibility of Coast Guard competition or interference with...commercial enterprise.”

Answer 1408

Decompression sickness and air embolism are the most serious threats to the diver and require immediate treatment with hyperbaric oxygen in a recompression chamber.

Answer 1409

An SMC shall be designated for every SAR case to successfully manage each mission and to skillfully coordinate resources.

Answer 1410

Decompression sickness, sometimes called the “bends”, is generally brought about by the diver absorbing gas into the blood from the compressed air breathed while diving. A diver must ascend slowly to avoid having these gases form into bubbles.

Answer 1411

The UMIB shall be broadcast for at least one hour at 15-minute intervals.

Answer 1412

Maritime SAR Assistance Policy. Established to minimize the Coast Guard competition with commercial assistance.

Answer 1413

Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement

Answer 1414

If conditions and circumstances do not permit a safe recovery by on scene rescue units, rescue personnel should make every effort to mark the lifesaving vessel. The marking shall clearly indicate that the Coast Guard has investigated the lifesaving vessel.

Answer 1415

When it has become definitely established, either by time or circumstances, that persons are dead, the Coast Guard is not required to conduct searches for bodies. If, however, requests are received from responsible agencies, such as local police, military commands, etc., Coast Guard units may participate in body searches provided that these searches do not interfere with the primary duties of the units.

Answer 1416

Used to identify hazards: Planning Event Complexity Asset Selection Communication Environment Conditions

Answer 1417

Active Search Suspended

Answer 1418

All course changes are 90 degrees to the right.

Answer 1419

Callouts differ from UMIBs in that they are a radio broadcast directed toward a specific vessel, rather than directed at a broad audience, as is the UMIB. Callouts also do not imply or require a state of “urgency” whereas the UMIB by definition conveys urgency.

Answer 1420

An ALERT phase exists when a craft or person is experiencing some difficulty and may need assistance, but is not in immediate danger or in need of immediate response. Apprehension is usually associated with the ALERT phase.

Answer 1421

Any salvage operations shall be performed at the discretion of the unit CO/OINC.

Answer 1422

The Coast Guard renders assistance as available, based on the level of personnel training and the adequacy of equipment.

Answer 1423

Coast Guard rescue assets are authorized to enter a coastal State’s territorial sea to rescue persons in distress; such assistance is to be provided without regard to the nationality or status of such persons or the circumstances in which they are found.

Answer 1424

Minimize loss of life, injury, and property loss and damage in the maritime environment; Minimize crew risk during SAR missions; Optimize use of resources in conducting SAR; and Maintain a world leadership position in maritime SAR.

Answer 1425

When commercial salvors are on scene performing salvage, Coast Guard units may assist them within the unit’s capabilities, if the salvor requests.

Answer 1426

SAR Mission Coordinator

Answer 1427

Title 14, Sections 2, 88, and 141 of the U.S. Code.

Answer 1428

A Coast Guard swimmer shall NOT go under the water and enter a capsized or submerged object.

Answer 1429

When possible, SMCs should conduct survivor debriefs to gather all information available regarding the actual circumstances surrounding the details of the incident.

Answer 1430

The first leg is normally in the direction of the search object's drift.

Answer 1431

Marine Assistance Request Broadcast

Answer 1432

The Coast Guard is under no obligation to agree to any such request or demand. If a decision to comply with such a request is made, it should be made clear that the operator is assuming the risk of the operation. The fact that the action is undertaken at operator’s request, and is against Coast Guard advice, should be logged.

Answer 1433

NOK should be notified of the decision to suspend active searching if no significant developments occur at least one day prior to actual suspension. This prepares the family for the actual ceasing of operations while giving them at least one more day of hope.

Answer 1434

Identify Tasks Identify Hazards Assess Risk Identify Options Evaluate Risk vs. Gain Execute Decision Monitor Situation

Answer 1435

Dive related injuries fall into three general categories: decompression sickness, air embolism, and nitrogen narcosis.

Answer 1436

SAR Mission Coordinator

Answer 1437

Markings should be made to be visible and recognizable from the air and sea at a distance of 300 feet. A broadcast notice to mariners should be made appropriate to location, type of hazard and future disposition.

Answer 1438

A guideline of 10 minutes is recommended for the SMC to await an answer to a MARB before the SMC directs Coast Guard or Auxiliary resources to respond.

Answer 1439

.1NM or 200 yards

Answer 1440

At least four.

Answer 1441

Isolated Danger Mark

Answer 1442

Yellow buoys and beacons are called “special marks”.

Answer 1443

RACON is an acronym for Radar Beacon.

Answer 1444

2,400 miles from Manasquan, NJ to Brownsville, TX. It runs southerly along the Atlantic and westerly on the Gulf Coast.

Answer 1445

The vessel is to the left of the center of the channel.

Answer 1446

A light showing continuously and steadily.

Answer 1447

They will display a white light with the characteristic Morse Code “A”.

Answer 1448

Preferred channel, safe water marks, isolated danger, special marks, and information/regulatory ATON use only letters.

Answer 1449

The yellow triangle shows that the aid should be kept on the right side when traveling north to south/east to west.

Answer 1450

International Association of Lighthouse Authorities

Answer 1451

Isolated danger marks display a white light with a “group-flashing” characteristic; and are fitted with a visually distinctive top mark, consisting of two black spheres, one above the other.

Answer 1452

Lateral: Buoys and beacons indicate the sides of the channel or route relative to a conventional direction of buoyage. Cardinal: Uses a buoy to indicate the location of a danger relative to the buoy itself.

Answer 1453

Ranges are pairs of beacons located to define a line down the center of a channel or harbor entrance.

Answer 1454

Electronic Horns Sirens Whistles Bells Gongs

Answer 1455

10 meters, with a 99.7% probability.

Answer 1456

A light in which all durations of light and darkness are equal.

Answer 1457

A light in which the total duration of light in a period is shorter than the total duration of darkness and the appearances of light (flashes) are usually of equal duration

Answer 1458

Extending some 2,400 miles along the Atlantic and Gulf coasts of the U.S., the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) is a largely sheltered waterway, suitable for year-round use.

Answer 1459

Piling split or missing

Answer 1460

A turn A front range (white)

Answer 1461

They will only display a white light and may display any light rhythm except quick flashing.

Answer 1462

Non-lateral aids in the ICW, such as ranges and safe-water marks, are marked with a yellow horizontal band.

Answer 1463

The point where a channel divides when proceeding from seaward, or the place where two tributaries meet.

Answer 1464

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a system of 24 satellites operated by the Department of Defense (DoD).

Answer 1465

Conical buoys, often referred to as “nun buoys,” are unlighted ATON.

Answer 1466

A preferred channel buoy (junction buoy)

Answer 1467

A point where two channels meet when proceeding seaward.

Answer 1468

They are used to mark isolated dangers (wrecks or obstructions) which have navigable water all around.

Answer 1469

When a buoy is “watching properly”, it is marking its charted position “on station” and properly displaying all other distinguishing characteristics.

Answer 1470

Solid red ATON buoys and beacons bear even numbers.

Answer 1471

Information and regulatory buoys and beacons indicate various warnings or regulatory matters.

Answer 1472

White with a horizontal blue stripe.

Answer 1473

Though there are white and yellow lights, only ATON with green or red lights have lateral significance.

Answer 1474

Buoy “8” displays one single flash of red every4 seconds.

Answer 1475

A light in which the total duration of light in a period is longer than the total duration of darkness and the intervals of darkness (eclipses) are usually of equal duration.

Answer 1476

Observe the functioning ATON within the unit's AOR. Report to OPCON any aids that are not working properly or are off station.

Answer 1477

Uniform State Waterway Marking System

Answer 1478

Cylindrical buoys, often referred to as “can buoys,” are unlighted ATON.

Answer 1479

They mark anchorages, dredging/spoil areas, fishnet areas, and other special areas or features.

Answer 1480

Once the receiver has computed the range of at least four satellites, it processes a position that is accurate to within 13 meters horizontally.

Answer 1481

These beacons transmit a Morse Code reply when triggered by a boat’s radar signal. This reply “paints” the boat’s radar screen in the shape of dashes and dots representing a specific Morse Code letter, always beginning with a dash.

Answer 1482

The vessel is to the right of the center of the channel.

Answer 1483

Most are lit 24 hours per day and may display either red, green, or white lights or combinations of the same.

Answer 1484

Major lights display a light of moderate to high candlepower. They may also have high intensity audible signaling devices, radio beacons and radar beacons (RACONs).

Answer 1485

Conducted every 5 years.

Answer 1486

Missing day board Not showing proper characteristic

Answer 1487

Determining whether a light is major, or minor, depends upon its candlepower and the luminous range of the light.

Answer 1488

Solid green ATON buoys and beacons bear odd numbers.

Answer 1489

International Association of Lighthouse Authorities (IALA) Region B.

Answer 1490

A light in which flashes are produced at a rate of 60 flashes per minute

Answer 1491

When lighted, special marks will display a yellow light with a Fixed (“F”) or Flashing (“Fl”) characteristic. Special marks may also be used to mark the center of the traffic separation scheme.

Answer 1492

The Light List is a seven-volume, annual publication providing information on ATON maintained or authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard located on coastal and inland waters.

Answer 1493

Junction buoy

Answer 1494

Waterways Analysis and Management

Answer 1495

The yellow square shows that the aid should be kept on the left side when traveling north to south/east to west.

Answer 1496

Entrance marker, flashes white 1 short 1 long, marks the entrance to a channel or isolated danger, safe to pass on all side. [red and white in color]

Answer 1497

A black buoy with a red stripe, two black spheres atop the buoy, marked with a letter. Flashes two short every five seconds.

Answer 1498

Light List Number

Answer 1499

Daybeacons Lighted beacons (minor lights) Major lights Light towers

Answer 1500

Beacons have day boards attached to a structure.

Answer 1501

Safe efficient flow of commerce.

Answer 1502

Daybeacons are unlighted fixed structures fitted with a dayboard for daytime identification.

Answer 1503

Just as daybeacons are sometimes substituted for unlighted buoys, lighted beacons are substituted for lighted buoys.

Answer 1504

CO's shall consider not taking action on a victim’s collateral misconduct (e.g., minor offenses such as underage drinking) until the final disposition of the sexual assault case to ensure priority is placed on the sexual assault and not the collateral misconduct.

Answer 1505

Command representatives shall not interview the alleged offender about the incident, other than a limited inquiry to ascertain safety issues.

Answer 1506

If a victim reveals minor offenses in addition to the alleged sexual assault, that information will be subject to the same rules governing disclosure as the reported sexual assault.

Answer 1507

The Rape, Abuse, and Incest National Network.

Answer 1508

At the victim’s discretion or request, the HCP, VA, EAPC/SARC, or FAS shall arrange for the victim to have either a medical examination to ensure overall health and/or to have forensic evidence collected.

Answer 1509

It is strongly recommended that all units have at least one trained VA.

Answer 1510

Victims of sexual assault should not have their security clearance or ability to carry a Coast Guard-issued firearm suspended solely because they made an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault.

Answer 1511

Threatening behavior is an individual's threat, either overt or implied, to commit an act of physical aggression or harm at the workplace.

Answer 1512

“Sexual assault” is defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent.

Answer 1513

A victim does not have to participate in a law enforcement investigation, but may be asked to sign a statement declining law enforcement assistance or any further prosecutorial actions (Waiver of Prosecution Letter).

Answer 1514

EAPC/SARC, an FAS, a VA, or a Coast Guard/ DoD HCP.

Answer 1515

Commands are strongly encouraged to have at least one VA, especially on afloat units where access to an EAPC/SARC or other trained resource is limited.

Answer 1516

“Consent” means words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct at issue by a competent person.

Answer 1517

Articles 120 and 125 of the UCMJ.

Answer 1518

Medical Officer (MOs) and Independent Duty Health Services Technicians (IDHS) are HCPs. MOs, IDHSs and VAs afloat are able to accept Restricted Reports, but only MOs can collect forensic evidence.

Answer 1519

Forensic evidence collected under a Restricted Report will be stored (unprocessed) by CGIS Headquarters for at least 12 months from the report date if the report has not changed to Unrestricted during that time frame.

Answer 1520

Workplace violence is any act or attempted act of physical aggression or harm by an individual that occurs at the workplace.

Answer 1521

The victim should avoid bathing, brushing his or her teeth, changing clothes, eating, drinking (even water), or cleaning in any way prior to the packaging/collection of those items that may contain forensic evidence.

Answer 1522

CGIS has sole responsibility for conducting the criminal investigation of a sexual assault allegation. Commands are prohibited from taking any formal or informal investigative action, to include preliminary inquiry or interview of alleged victims, suspects or witnesses regarding the assault.

Answer 1523

Sexual Assault Forensic Examination

Answer 1524

When a victim elects Restricted Reporting, the victim’s disclosure of the assault to unauthorized individuals at anytime thereafter changes the report to Unrestricted.

Answer 1525

EAPC, SARC, FAS, VA, or HCP.

Answer 1526

The Restricted Reporting option may be used by a service member or civilian spouse sexually assaulted by their active duty service member spouse to disclose to specific individuals on a confidential basis that he or she is the victim of a sexual assault.

Answer 1527

The Unrestricted Reporting option may be used by the service member to disclose to his or her chain of command that he or she is the victim of a sexual assault.

Answer 1528

CG assets may not be used as backdrops or transportation unless the CG is participating in the event.

Answer 1529

They will be given the same access to which any other visitor in entitled.

Answer 1530

"Our goal is to ensure that we send our rescue crews out and that everyone makes it home safely."

Answer 1531

Security Accuracy Policy Propriety

Answer 1532

Requests from candidates to tape or film campaign material at CG units must be denied.

Answer 1533

Public Affairs Guidance

Answer 1534

Press release talking points.

Answer 1535

Vice Admiral Charles D. Michel

Answer 1536

Captain Gregory N. Todd

Answer 1537

Rear Admiral Meredith L. Austin

Answer 1538

RADM Pat DeQuattro

Answer 1539

Vice Admiral Karl L. Schultz

Answer 1540

Master Chief Adwoa Hendricks

Answer 1541

People Partnerships Professionalism

Answer 1542

Master Chief Steven W. Cantrell

Answer 1543

Master Chief Charles R. Bushey

Answer 1544

Admiral Paul F. Zukunft

Answer 1545

CAPT Gregory J. Sanial

OIC - All Decks Flashcards

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