OM-B 2022 Flashcards

(277 cards)

1
Q

1) Shal all the wind limits (Airbus and Wizz Air) be considered, as including wind gusts/maximum wind speed ?

A

(1.1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Operations on a Narrow Runway covered by “Compacted Snow” is not allowed. Which RWYCC limit applies in any other circumstances to calculate Xwind Limits ?

A

(1.3.1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) What is the definition of a Narrow Runway ?

A

(1.3.1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) What is the condition for both CPT and FO to be able to operate on a Narrow Runway?

A

(1.3.3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Describe the company limitations for ground manoeuvring:
- while taxing on a runway
- on straight taxiways
- where a taxiway passes through a ramp area
- on normal taxiway turns
- for tight 90º turns or 180º turnarounds

A

(1.3.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) Is the low speed end of the landing roll considered to be part of the rollout or the taxi ?

A

(1.3.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7) Turns to RETs/HST are designed for such a radius that they can be used up to what speed?

A

(1.3.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) Describe the company IAS limitations.

A

(1.3.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) During Descent, 250kt should be maintained below 5000FT AAL or ?

A

(1.3.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) What does T FLEX MIN = to ?

A

(1.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) What is the maximum distance from an Adequate Airport ?

A

(1.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) Distance to an Adequate Airport is 380NM does this include WX suitability ? (1.5)

A

(1.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) According to FCTM what is the standard drift down one engine inoperative speed to be used ?

A

(1.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) During checklist reading should both pilots be responsible to verify that the item has been
completed correctly?

A

(2.2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15) What are the 3 checklist that are completed silently by PM?

A

(2.2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) From when until when are headsets not required to be used?

A

(2.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17) Can the PM make system selection without the call of the PF, and in this case what should he do after ?

A

(2.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) Usually the commander should make the first call to SCA after RVSM check, if that is not the case within how many minutes should the SCA contact the cockpit ?

A

(2.6.2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) What should the Commander tell the SCA during the first call after RVSM check ?

A

(2.6.2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) From when until when should the flight deck door be closed ?

A

(2.6.3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) Can position crew members fly in the flight deck at Commander’s discretion ?

A

(2.6.3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

22) After FL100 and what degree of PITCH shall the Commander decide to switch SEAT BELT SIGN OFF ?

A

(2.6.4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23) What is the call to be made on the PA in case there is an urgent need to brief the SCA, unless EMER CALL button was pushed ?

A

(2.6.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24) During the final stages of a prepared on unprepared emergency landing, what calls should be made on the PA at 1500ft AGL, 500ft AGL and by who ?

A

(2.6.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25) Following a unprepared or prepared emergency landing or an emergency on the ground (ex.RTO) after parking brake is set, which call should be made by the flight deck and who makes the call ?
(2.6.5)
26
26) Following a unprepared or prepared emergency landing or a RTO what are the possible TWO calls that can be made from the Flight Deck on the PA once ECAM or Paper Checklist are completed ?
(2.6.5)
27
27) Should you rely on the Auto Callout during any approach for the call outs “ONE HUNDRED ABOVE” and “MINIMUM” ?
(2.7)
28
28) Explain the Altimeter Calls when setting STD or QNH ?
(2.7.1)
29
29) When should the call RATE be made ?
(2.7.2)
30
30) What call should be made 1000ft before reaching FCU ALT/FL?
(2.7.2)
31
31) Is that True that you should never attempt to select V/S or PUSH LEVEL OFF when ATL* mode is engaged during climbing or descent ?
(2.7.2)
32
32) When should you call RAD ALT ?
(2.7.4)
33
33) Auto Callout is based on Radio Altimeter, on what reference are stabilisation criteria based on ?
(2.7.4)
34
34) During an NPA with Minimum between 400ft and 600ft when would it be suggested to make the 500’ Call (Cleared to Land or Negative Clearance) ?
(2.7.4)
35
35) When should the PM make the call PAPI and what should be the PF answer ?
(2.7.5)
36
36) For how long should you keep the side stick take over push button if you want to claim control of the plane ?
(2.7.6)
37
37) Describe the Stabilisation Criteria for a Normal and Circling Approach ?
(2.8.1-2)
38
38) Short transition fluctuations of VAPP are acceptable beyond stabilisation criteria below 1000ft, caused by turbulence, sudden wind change or slow A/THR response, after such situation, what altitude should the approach be fully stable by ?
(2.8.1)
39
39) Is a 360º turn or an orbit allowed for the purpose of meeting stabilisation criteria’s ?
(2.8.1)
40
40) ATC may require a 360º turn or an orbit for traffic sequencing, what are the two cases by which such manoeuvre is allowed ?
(2.8.1)
41
41) Describe when is a Missed Approach/Go Around Mandatory ?
(2.8.3)
42
42) Is take off with FD off when FD are serviceable permitted ?
(2.9.1)
43
43) When requested OFF should FD be deselected simultaneously ?
(2.9.1)
44
44) Except for AP U/S what should hand flying be limited to ?
(2.9.1)
45
45) Define RAW DATA as per Airbus definition ?
(2.9.1)
46
46) Which altitude/FL should be set on the FCU when flying a STEP SID or STAR (with constraints) ?
(2.9.2)
47
47) Is a company requirement to use A/THR when ...?
(2.9.3)
48
48) Which speed must be used when flying with Manual Thrust ?
(2.9.3)
49
49) Describe the position of the feet when landing with strong crosswinds(>20kts) or landing on slippery or contaminated runways to aid directional control with the use of auto-brake ?
(2.9.5)
50
50) Down to what altitude can AP stay connected to during a CAT I Approach ?
(2.9.6)
51
51) From when until when should tray tables be stowed?
(2.10)(2.12.14)
52
52) In which way should you handle PB switches ?
(2.10)
53
53) In which way should you perform the flight control check ?
(2.10)
54
54) Which Cost Index (CI) should used for Diversion (all cases) ?
(2.10.1)
55
55) In case of Terrain in the vicinity while operating in/out of an airport, what is the set up of TERR on ND and WX on ND for PF and PM ?
(2.10.2)
56
56) In what case is it allowed to turn the WX on ND OFF ?
(2.10.3)
57
57) Do VOLMET or weather via ACARS replace ATIS ?
(2.10.4)
58
58) For altitude reporting for flights in RVSM from which side the altitude data must be taken from ?
(2.10.5)
59
59) What is the recommended set up of the TCAS during climb, cruise and descent ?
(2.10.5)
60
60) After passing which FL should all the radio frequencies be recorded on the OFP ?
(2.10.6)
61
61) What is the standard call for a Radio Check over 121.5 ?
(2.10.6)
62
62) In case of Loss of Communication, should you note down the last frequency and first frequency where communication was lost and then reestablished ?
(2.10.6)
63
63) What is the procedure in case Departure clearance is given during taxi (differently from receiving clearance pre-departure) ?
(2.10.6)
64
64) What should you do in case clearance to line up, enter/cross runway or take off clearance is received when the other pilot is not listening ?
(2.10.6)
65
65) What does the COM CHECK imply ?
(2.10.6)
66
66) Are you allowed to use the INT/RAD spring loaded switch instead of the “push to talk” trigger on the side stick ?
(2.10.6)
67
67) Is it permitted to tune VHF 1 with RMP 2 ?
(2.10.6)
68
68) Up to how many miles before TOD should calls to Handling Agent be attempted ?
(2.10.6)
69
69) Explain the Pack Flow Policy.
(2.10.7)
70
70) Explain the Cost Index Policy.
(2.10.8)
71
71) Is there any rule regarding minimum LDA for take-off alternate airport ?
(2.11.1.)
72
72) For which Frequency Coverage does Wizz Air hold the approval when flying in NAT HLA ?
(2.11.2)
73
73) For how long can RNP10 be maintained in case of GPS PRIMARY LOST and No Ground Base Radio Navaid update is possible ?
(2.11.2)
74
74) What is the allowed and suggested amount to be taken extra, if while analysing the OFP you realise that some changes are possible in regard to fuel consumption due to a longer then expected SID/ STAR?
(2.11.3)
75
75) In case Tankering is suggested on the OFP, who will make the final decision if to carry such extra amount or not ?
(2.11.5)
76
76) Which critical parts of the Cockpit Preparation should never be interrupted ?
(2.12.1)
77
77) When the aircraft is cold, until when should no switching or power be connected to the electrical system ? (One thing from CPT side, one thing from PM side (could be either CPT or FO))
(2.12.1)
78
78) How long after switching on the GPU (EXT PWR: from AVAIL green to ON blue) should you wait to start the APU when entering an unpowered aircraft ?
(2.12.1)
79
79) When OAT is above 0º, delay the APU START and APU BLEED ON as long as...?
(2.12.1)
80
80) What is the only case when APU and GPU in parallel is permitted (otherwise usually not recommended) ?
(2.12.1)
81
81) When OAT is below 0º why should you start APU + APU BLEED as soon as possible ?
(2.12.1)
82
82) In what position is the CAPT/CAPT & PURS switch for EVAC set on ?
(2.12.1)
83
83) What is the official procedure to check the Cooling Time by FADEC on the EWD ?
(2.12.1)
84
84) If Cooling Time is less than.....sec the Cooling Time is not displayed ?
(2.12.2)
85
85) In case of very long Cooling Time what procedure shows good airmanship ?
(2.12.2)
86
86) What is the minimum distance an aircraft should remain from a suitable diversion airport while flying in NAT HLA ? (=1 hour single engine diversion)
(2.12.2)
87
87) Which FL should be inserted in the FL/TMP field on the FMS INIT LOAD in case of a planned intermediate “step” CRZ FL (from OFP) ?
(2.12.2)
88
88) Why wind data should not be inserted in the PERF APPR page during FMGS Initialisation ?
(2.12.2)
89
89) Against what possible mistakes does the insertion of the destination QRH (during cockpit preparation )provide a safety net to ?
(2.12.2)
90
90) Which altitude should be inserted in the FCU while waiting to receive an official clearance ?
(2.12.2)
91
91) Why is the use of PBDs to built a pseudo EOSID not recommended ?
(2.12.2)
92
92) When reaching INIT-B, during cockpit preparation which ZFW and CG (standard) should be inserted ?
(2.12.)
93
93) What is the Default Flap Setting for Take Off in Wizz Air ?
(2.12.3)
94
94) What is considered a Standard Take-Off ?
(2.12.4)
95
95) What should be “called” when briefing a SID or STAR ?
(2.12.4)
96
96) What is the degree tolerance between FMGS track and Chart when briefing a SID or STAR ?
(2.1.2.4)
97
97) A full emergency briefings should only be performed for the first sector, nevertheless which points should be highlighted during a short Emergency Briefing on following sectors ?
(2.12.4)
98
98) Resight the Emergency Briefing ?
(2.12.4)
99
99) What is the only case placing hands on thrust levers below 400ft AGL during an EO TO is allowed ?
(2.12.4)
100
100) What is the tolerance Track and Distance when flying in NAT HLA ?
(2.12.4)
101
101) What is Planned uplift Kg made by ? ( ? - ? = )
(2.12.5)
102
102) Which items should be cross checked on a Load and Trim Sheet ?
(2.12.5)
103
103) What does the Before Push Back Fuel Check involve ?
(2.12.5)
104
104) Should all the slides be armed before requesting Start Up ?
(2.12.6)
105
105) Until when the second engine should not be started ?
(2.12.6)
106
106) In case of de-icing after start (to remote stand) what is the the only item postponed after the selection of Engine Mode Selector Normal stating the beginning of the After Start Flow ?
(2.12.6)
107
107) If the aircraft has been parked in wet conditions for a long time, what can you expect during the first brake application (Brake Check) ?
(2.12.7)
108
108) On straight taxiway and above what speed is rudder preferred over nose wheel steering use ?
(2.12.7)
109
109) What does Briefing “CONFIRMED” means ? (5 Items)
(2.12.7)
110
110) What is the recommended ND setting during Taxi ?
(2.12.7)
111
111) Is it allowed for the PM to record complicated taxi instructions on the MCDU scratchpad ?
(2.12.7)
112
112) As turning the Taxi Light ON and OFF to indicate stop of aircraft movement is only regulated by the FAA, what practise should you use in terms of Taxi Light lifetime ?
(2.12.7)
113
113) During Taxi, PF should normally set Thrust Lever to EPR not higher than....., if this thrust is insufficient PF may increase thrust further to maximum....% N1 ?
(2.12.7)
114
114) Should additional runway margin be considered when performing a 180º turn on Wet or Contaminated runway ?
(2.12.7)
115
115) What type of thrust and braking should you use if a 180º turn is required on a runway with minimum turn radius ?
(2.12.7)
116
116) For a A320 180º turns of a runway may be performed on a Narrow Runway, what about the A321 ?
(2.12.7)
117
117) When a radar heading is issued by ATC prior take off, what function should be set on FCU ?
(2.12.8)
118
118) Whenever a flight is cleared for visual departure or direct (instead of SID) which function on MCDU should never be used ? And what instead ?
(2.12.8)
119
119) What would happened to the FMGS data if a DIRECT TO was executed on the ground ?
(2.12.8)
120
120) What should you do before lining up for a LVO departure if the RWY is ILS supported ?
(2.12.8)
121
121) If you have been cleared to line up and no delay has been notified by ATC, after how many minutes should you notify being ready to ATC ?
(2.12.8)
122
122) What does being “READY” (for departure) actually means ?
(2.12.8)
123
123) How many degrees within the runway should you be before applying initial stabilisation values (Thrust) ?
(2.12.8)
124
124) Until what speed should the PM call “THRUST SET” ?
(2.12.8)
125
125) Except during a SPECIAL EFP, a turn should never be made before ...AGL ?
(2.12.8)
126
126) When is a Rolling Take Off not allowed ?
(2.12.8)
127
127) What should you do if the FMA is blank after applying FLEX and still blank/wrong after applying TOGA ?
(2.12.8)
128
128) Describe the associated procedure with a RTO with or without RETURN TO RAMP ?
(2.12.8)(3.7)
129
129) During an RTO PM should make the 70kts call ONLY...?
(2.12.8)
130
130) What is the difference between NADP 1 and NADP A ?
(2.12.14)
131
131) Why should you be careful of a late switch from QNH to STD setting in case the QNH value is significantly below STD value ?
(2.12.14)
132
132) Should you intentionally trigger the FLAP AUTO-RETRACTION function ?
(2.12.14)
133
133) No paperwork should be done until FL...?
(2.12.14)
134
134) What is the maximum gradient climb speed ?
(2.12.14)
135
135) What is the maximum ROC EO speed ?
(2.12.14)
136
136) What is the maximum ROC All Engines speed ?
(2.12.14)
137
137) Is it allowed for the pilot monitoring ATC on VHF1 to also listening on VHF2 (WX) ?
(2.12.15)
138
138) Is it permitted for the pilot transmitting/receiving on VHF2 to monitor VHF1 on reduce volume ?
(2.12.15)
139
139) Once Cruise is reached what is worth to do and discuss about ?
(2.12.15)
140
140) The A/THR system can result in slow thrust response during rapidly changing wind direction/speed or orographic turbulence encountered when flying above mountainous areas resulting in either rapid speed loss (even
(2.12.15)
141
141) Should you enter a Holding if Oceanic Clearance cannot be obtained prior entry to NAT ?
(2.12.15)
142
142) Oceanic FIR is RNP10. What should be entered in the “REQUIRED” value field of navigation accuracy in case GPS PRIMARY LOST? And what should you do if nevertheless ACCURACY becomes LOW ?
(2.12.15)
143
143) What call should be made from the Flight Deck in case of Turbulence encounter where safety of Cabin Crew is at risk ?
(2.12.16)
144
144) Explain the all the time “head up” during FMGS arrival preparation ?
(2.12.17)
145
145) What should be checked in regard to calculated VAPP if gusty crosswind are expected for the landing ?
(2.12.17)
146
146) What could happen if diverting to ALTN only once the minimum destination fuel has been reached ?
(2.12.17)
147
147) Should you inform SCA if an LVO is expected ?
(2.12.17)
148
148) During the Approach FMGS Preparation, should you enter the gust value for the wind from ATIS or ATC ? For example if reported wind is 150/20/30 which value should be considered ?
(2.12.17)
149
149) What should be remembered in terms of company V/S restrictions when descending(or climbing) with Managed Mode (DES or CLB) ?
(2.12.17)
150
150) What is the danger of initiating a MANAGED DESCENT after overflying the descent point ?
(2.12.17)
151
151) What is the minimum Flap selection for the CABIN READY button to be active on FAP (Cabin) ?
(2.12.18)
152
152) If the CABIN READY button on FPA has been pressed by SCA, when will the ECAM LDG MEMO - CABIN turn green ?
(2.12.18)
153
153) If all reasonably attempts of the crew failed to achieve a “secured” status of the cabin, may the Commander decide to land (with an unsecured cabin) ?
(2.12.18)
154
154) If no “cabin secured” status has been reported by SCA, and there is still enough time before landing (above stabilisation altitude) can the flight deck seek confirmation by calling SCA ?
(2.12.18)
155
155) When is approach checklist usually called and in what situation should it be called again even if previously completed ?
(2.12.19)
156
156) Until when should Approach Phase not being manually activated ?
(2.12.19)
157
157) To reduce flap wear and minimise the possibility of exceeding VFE, when is the best time to select flaps ? (flaps/slats are non intended to be used for aircraft deceleration)
(2.12.19)
158
158) Is it allowed to fly lower speed than the manoeuvring speed for the actual flap configuration ?
(2.12.19)
159
159) Flying lower speed than the manoeuvring speed for the actual flap configuration is allowed, this is part of the “unstable speed range” of the flight envelope. What is the downside of doing that ?
(2.12.19)
160
160) What should you do in case the aircraft is not decelerating as anticipated prior to, or after intercepting the glide slope, rather than using speed breaks with Flaps >1 ?
(2.12.19)
161
161) What should you do if following approach chart speeds or ATC speeds could lead to a possible unstabilized approach ?
(2.12.19)
162
162) List the methods which can be used in case of a potential overspeed during approach ?
(2.12.19)
163
163) What danger could be faced, if not enough speed margin above F speed for final turns requiring an heading change of Above 45º ?
(2.12.19)
164
164) In case of FPL sequencing required during approach what standard calls should be used ?
(2.12.19)
165
165) Is it allowed to momentarily set THR LEVERS above CLB detent in case of unsatisfactorily A/THR performance?
(2.12.20)
166
166) What is the lowest altitude AAL by which F2 should be out ?
(2.12.20)
167
167) What type of configuration management should you consider when facing the following conditions: • high landing weight (above 60t) • Aircraft with sharklets • Tailwind on final • Turbulence caused by thermals associated with convective weather • Nonstandard, steeper than normal G/S
(2.12.20)
168
168) On approaches where Minima is referenced to BARO should you rely on the auto-Callout, for the “100 ABOVE” and “MINIMUM” call ?
(2.12.20)
169
169) If PF announces “VISUAL” are the “100 ABOVE”, “MINIMUM” or altitude with distance call still necessary ?
(2.12.20)
170
170) What is the risk when initiating a Go-Around at or above the altitude selected on the FCU?
(2.12.20)
171
171) What is the best practise to avoid Altitude Bust, if deciding to perform a Go-Around initiated at or above the altitude selected on the FCU?
(2.12.20)
172
172) When performing a Go-Around should TOGA always initially be applied?
(2.12.20) (unless is a Discountinued Approach)
173
173) Should you consider Manual Thrust in case during a Go-around Speed Trend may exceed VFE ?
(2.12.20)
174
174) Is selection of V/S allowed if SRS is engaged ?
(2.12.20)
175
175) Is the selection of V/S or “push to level off” allowed when ALT* is engaged?
(2.12.20)
176
176) What are the possible reasons to reject a landing which was previously judged achievable?
(2.12.20)
177
177) Describe how a go-around below minima should be handle regarding “rotation rate” and flap selection?
(2.12.20)
178
178) What are the best interception degrees for ILS approach (especially Manually Flown RAW DATA) to avoid overshooting, especially if initiating the turn only once LOC needle starts inward movement? (30º-45º-60º-etc)
(2.12.21.1)
179
179) Is the use of “step down descent” for NPA allowed?
(2.12.21.2)
180
180) When performing a VOR NPA should you hard tune the NAVAID or soft tune is good enough?
(2.12.21.2)
181
181) What is the best ND selection display on PM side to be able to call deviation when performing a VOR NPA?
(2.12.21.2)
182
182) What is it adviced to do in regard to GPWS, when performing a LOC approach using ILS equipment? (G/S U/S or not intended to be used)
(2.12.21.2)
183
183) If GPS PRIMARY is active instead of “timing” which recommended spacing distance maybe used when of downwind with ND ROSE, while performing a Circling Approach?
(2.12.21.4)
184
184) Does the standard procedure for a missed-approach during Circling (as per OMA) precludes the Commander for an alternative strategy (if briefed and coordinated by ATC) ?
(2.12.21.4)
185
185) Unless differently specified what is the standard go-around altitude to be set on the FCU ?
(2.12.21.4)
186
186) If the standby attitude indicator fails during a CAT3B approach is a miss-approach mandatory?
(2.12.21.6)
187
187) What is the WX requirement to perform a Practise CAT3B approach with Autoland?
(2.12.21.6)
188
188) Are the pre-flight planning requirements still valid once the aircraft commences the flight?
(2.12.22)
189
189) Is it advisable for the Commander to retain some fuel margin above Final Reserve to allow for contingency at final destination when adopting a COMMIT TO LAND procedure?
(2.12.22)
190
190) What is the difference between selecting ENABLE ALTN and NEW DEST function on the FMGC when performing a Diversion?
(2.12.22)
191
191) What should be done if difficulty in directional control is experienced during the landing rollout?
(2.12.23)
192
192) What are the advantages of landing with FLAP3, in what WX condition is it recommended and not recommended?
(2.12.23)
193
193) Is it true that an overweight landing will always require an overweight maintenance inspection?
(2.12.23)
194
194) An Overweight Landing will always require post maintenance inspection, is this more outlying than burning fuel to be able to land within limits?
(2.12.23)
195
195) If the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was contaminated with slush or snow, until when should you wait before retracting the flaps/slats?
(2.12.24)
196
196) In exceptional cases are you allowed to disregard the 3 min engine cooling time for CEO aircraft?
(2.12.24)
197
197) Should you consider Single Engine Taxi when contaminated or slippery taxiway or parking stands?
(2.12.24)
198
198) When is Single Engine for A321 not advised and when it is?
(2.12.24)
199
199) Below what N1 percentage can the Beacon be switched OFF, at parking stand?
(2.12.25)
200
200) After which checklist is the Commander allowed to open the cockpit entry door?
(2.12.25)
201
201) Which ECAM page and standard call must CM1 said to SCA to authorise disembarkation?
(2.12.25)
202
202) Describe the standard Chocks configuration?
(2.12.25)
203
203) Describe the additional Standard Chocks configuration in case of night/long stay and/or during severe weather conditions or wind speed exceeding 25kts?
(2.12.25)
204
204) If it is the last flight of the day and no maintenance is taking over the plane, what should be done before the Commander signs the AFL?
(2.12.25)
205
205) If the Brake temperature is very high, should the Commander anyway place the Parking Brake On before closing the plane?
(2.12.25)
206
206) Since Alternate planning is Runway specific, will any change in runway at Destination or Alternate require adjustment of the ALTN fuel calculation?
(2.13.1)
207
207) Explain what is a FUEL ALTERNATE.
(2.13.1)
208
208) Explain what is a COMMERCIAL ALTERNATE.
(2.13.1)
209
209) Which alternate is usually selected at planning stage when risk of diversion is low?
(2.13.1)
210
210) Which alternate is usually selected at planning stage when risk of diversion is high?
(2.13.1)
211
211) When two alternates are required can one of them be a FUEL ALTERNATE?
(2.13.1)
212
212) What consideration should be made when there is a possibility of high number of diversion at busy airports?
(2.13.1)
213
213) CONT99 has an historical data based on fuel consumption monitoring for each route/aeroplane combination over how many years ?
(2.13.2)
214
214) Explain the TANKERING procedure and what considerations to be made to finally decide if to tanker more, less or amount stated on OFP?
(2.13.2)
215
215) What is a safe margin from MLW when TANKERING?
(2.13.2)
216
216) When should you consider intersection take off if lower FLEX is more than 5 degrees?
(2.13.2)
217
217) Optimum flight level is defined as flight level at which the balance of fuel consumption and flight time is the most economical. Within how many feet from Optimum FL (above or below) should you fly?
(2.13.2)
218
218) What does the selection of Optimum Flight Level depends on?
(2.13.2)
219
219) By inserting what datas can the FMGS give a more accurate calculation than OFP in regard to Optimum FL?
(2.13.2)
220
220) On a flight with a route longer than 350NM GCD, when is it advised to use the OFP Optimum FL and when the FMGS?
(2.13.2)
221
221) What is the most economical V/S during an early descent?
(2.13.2)
222
222) In what position should the cockpit door be left during a ferry flight with no occupants, and why?
(2.13.3.1)
223
223) Which door should be armed and disarmed by the Commander on a ferry flight with no occupants and when should so be done?
(2.13.3.1)
224
224) A MASTER WARNING requires immediate action, but does not take priority over....?
(3.3)
225
225) A MASTER CAUTION (level 2) requires crew action when ....?
(3.3)
226
226) A CAUTION (level 1) requires only....?
(3.3)
227
227) If any OEB is applicable, who calls OEBs and at what point during the Abnormal Operation Procedure?
(3.3)
228
228) Should you dismiss completely OEBs with ECAM ENTRY: NONE?
(3.3)
229
229) When Engine Failure during take off happens, after what altitude and action should the PM announce the title of the failure?
(3.3.)
230
230) Explain F-DODAR.
(3.5)
231
231) Describe the different procedure into preparing an approach if AP is available or when NOT available?
(3.5)
232
232) Describe which situations can fall under the list of Abnormal?
(3.5)
233
233) FCOM review during Abnormal/Emergency situations is advisable only after ...?
(3.5)
234
234) Can you consider a ECAM Warning no longer applicable if during the procedure it disappears?
(3.5)
235
235) During in flight emergency operations Thrust Lever should never be operated by PM and guarded switches always require PF confirmation, does the same apply when on the ground?
(3.5)
236
236) RED ASAP means? AMBER ASAP means?
(3.5)
237
237) Explain the definition of a MAYDAY call and how to make one?
(3.5)
238
238) Explain the definition of a PANPAN call and how to make one?
(3.5)
239
239) Asking updates to ATC, keeping high situational awareness of time, weather and fuel is of most important, would you agree?
(3.5)
240
240) What should you do if after a bird strike there is an obvious sign of Engine Damage?
(3.5.5)
241
241) Describe the signs of Engine Damage following a Bird Strike?
(3.5.5)
242
242) How is it advisable to react during those situations following a Bird Strike? - Severe engine damage - Strong engine vibration - Known or suspected airframe damage or engine damage - Damaged windshield - Known or suspected strike to Air Data and AOA sensors - Bird Strike during approach or landing
(3.5.5)
243
243) Which equipment should you check after a Lightning Strike?
(3.5.5)
244
244) Explain NITS briefing.
(3.6)
245
245) Should a NITS briefing be repeated back?
(3.6)
246
246) During an Emergency Landing, which calls should be made at 1500ft AGL, 500ft AGL, once on the ground and Parking Brake is set?
(3.6)
247
247) During Take Off, above 100kts, should pilots stop for Electrical Failures?
(3.7)
248
248) Below which speed does the Autobrake become inoperative?
(3.7)
249
249) Which items must be completed for a new departure after a RTO WITHOUT Return to Ramp ?
(3.7)
250
250) Will the cabin crew wait for the Commander order to initiate an evacuation in case the aircraft has suffered major structural damage ?
(3.8)
251
251) What should be communicated and coordinated with ATC before a landing during an emergency situation ?
(3.8)
252
252) Is it true that while performing the Emergency Evacuation checklist the shut down of engine and APU may require reselection of VHF1 on ACP1 ?
(3.8)
253
253) After an Evacuation, who is the last person to leave the plane and is it possible from the rear door?
(3.8)
254
254) Is the “no call” policy until passing 400ft AGL applicable to all failures or just for Engine Failure procedure?
(3.9)
255
255) If during a EFATO on a straight flight path, which FCU selection should be made if NAV appear and what selection if RWY TK appears instead?
(3.9)
256
256) Explain the Standard and Special EFP.
(3.9)
257
257) What would happen if after exiting SRS mode (OP CLB) TOGA is selected with Slats still out?
(3.9)
258
258) If a FUEL LEAK is detected should you count the fuel in the affected tank still usable?
(3.9)
259
259) During an LVO approach, it is Airbus policy to go around if an ENG FAIL is experienced between 1000 - 100 ft RA, should you do the same if ENG FIRE is detected?
(3.9)
260
260) Engine-out go around (Missed Approach) does not factor in a level acceleration segment. What is the company policy? If the 10 min TOGA requirement is limiting ?
(3.9)
261
261) Explain why you should or should not consider relighting an engine if both the scenarios where landing is possible at short notice or not?
(3.9)
262
262) When the decision has been made who announces “Emergency Descent”?
(3.10)
263
263) What is the priority of manoeuvres for an Emergency Descent?
(3.10)
264
264) Who announces on the PA “CABIN CREW EMERGENCY DESCENT, CABIN CREW EMERGENCY DESCENT” ? PF or PM?
(3.10)
265
265) An ENG or APU fire has not been SECURED until the fire lights is ....?
(3.10)
266
266) Who makes the 1500ft AGL and 500ft AGL call during an Emergency Landing? PF or PM?
(3.10)
267
267) What signs can indicate a Windshear or Downburst?
(3.18)
268
268) In case of suspected faulty speed indications, which procedure should be followed when only one side is effected and when all sides are effected ? (PF,PM,ISIS)
(3.19)
269
269) During a Loss of Braking why is it important to limit the brake pressure application to 1000PSI?
(3.20)
270
270) In regard to HIJACK what does the non application of standard body cover procedure to enter the cockpit can indicate?
(3.21)
271
271) If a diversion is decided due to e medical emergency, which airports are preferred to used? Can the fly continue after disembarkation of effected pax?
(3.22)
272
272) In case of Cockpit incapacitation is it advised to use stairs of aerobridge once arrived at the stand?
(3.22.1)
273
273) What can be the causes for a Quick Disembarkation?
(3.23)
274
274) How many degrees of turn is assumed if obstacle clearance considerations require a turn before reaching clean manoeuvring speed?
(4.1)
275
275) What is the MORA obstacle clearance and within how many miles from route?
(4.2)
276
276) At what speed is the drift down procedure performed over mountainous areas where obstacle clearance can be an issue?
(4.3)
277
277) Explain the LMC procedure.
(7.4)