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OMB > OMB-SOP > Flashcards

OMB-SOP Flashcards

1
Q

what is the documents’ order of priority ?

A

‐ Wizz Air OMB SOPs/Normal Check List

‐ QRH/Airbus OEBs – The QRH and FCOM list OEBs that have priority over ECAM during
abnormal operation.

‐ Emergency/Abnormal procedures - ECAM/QRH and FCOM (if applicable and if time permits).

p. 0P2/4

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2
Q

what is the priority in case of discrepancies between procedures/publications ?

A

‐ Wizz Air Crew Orders (CO).
‐ Wizz Air Operations Manuals and SOPs.
‐ Wizz Air Cabin Attendant Manual (CAM).
‐ Airbus AFM, FCOM, FCTM, (including TR’s).
‐ Operation specific Wizz Air Manuals (EFM, LVOM, MNPS, RVSM, CWOM, etc.).

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3
Q

what does Contaminated Runway means ?

A

means a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway
surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:

a. surface water more than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent
to more than 3 mm (0,125 in) of water;

b. snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or

c. ice, including wet ice.

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4
Q

what is considered as a Dry Runway ?

A

A dry runway is one which is neither wet, nor contaminated

(includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porous
pavement and maintained to retain “effectively dry” braking action even when moisture is
present.)

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5
Q

what is considered as a Wet Runway ?

A

Wet runway’ means a runway of which the surface is covered with water, or equivalent,
less than specified by the ‘contaminated runway’

(definition or when there is sufficient
moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant
areas of standing water)

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6
Q

what is the Maximum X-Wind for a Standard Runway ?

A 
good - 29 TO, 33 LDG
medium/good - 20
medium - 15
medium/poor - 10
poor - n/a
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7
Q

what is the Maximum X-Wind for a Narrow Runway ?

A 
good - 20
medium/good - 15
medium - 10
medium/poor - 5
poor - n/a
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8
Q

is it permitted to operate on a Narrow Runway contaminated by “compacted snow” ?

A

NO

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9
Q

is it permitted to operate on a “ice runway contaminated” with No Reporting Breaking Action ?

A

NO

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10
Q

what is the definition of a Narrow Runway ?

A

width less than 45 m but not less then 30 m

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11
Q

what is a “specially prepared winter runway” ?

A

is defined as a runway with a dry frozen
surface of compacted snow and/or ice which has been mechanically treated with sand or grit, or
chemically treated to improve runway friction

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12
Q

what are the First Officer company limitations for less then 500hrs Airbus Fly by wire ?

A
  • runway, taxyway or apron contaminated or slippery…..not permitted
  • maximum x-wind standard runway……10kt
  • maximum x-wind narrow runway……5kt
  • runway lenght…..<1800m….landing not permitted
  • cloud ceiling (BKN/OVC) < MDA/DH + 100ft…..landing not permitted
  • RVR < min req + 200 m……landing not permitted
  • landing FLAP3 …….not permitted
  • Challenging Airport……not permitted
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13
Q

what is the minimum taxyway width ?

A

15 m

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14
Q

what is the maximum speed on a straight line taxyway ?

A

below 30kt

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15
Q

what is the maximum speed when a taxiway passes through a ramp ?

A

below 20kt

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16
Q

what is the maximum speed on a normal taxyway turn ?

A

below 15kt

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17
Q

what is the maximum speed for a 90º turn ?

A

below 10kt

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18
Q

what is the maximum speed for a 180º turn ?

A

below 10kt

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19
Q

what is the maximum runway exiting speed for RET/HST ?

A

50kts even on wet condition

As the primary aim of RETs/HSTs is to expedite traffic, pilots should not unnecessarily slow down (e.g.: to 10-15 kts) before exiting via such a taxiway.

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20
Q

what is the Minimum Flex Temperature ?

A

OAT + 5 degrees

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21
Q

what is the maximum distance from an adequate airport ?

A

380NM

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22
Q

what is the average TAS for one engine drift down procedure as by FCTM ?

A

380kt TAS

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23
Q

when are you allowed to perform only the “transit stop” checklist items ?

A
  • The flight crew can confirm, that the “SECURING THE AIRCRAFT” procedure/checklist has not
    been previously performed, and
    ‐ The aircraft is continuously attended by a flight crew or cabin crew member.
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24
Q

Checklists, as part of FCOM PRO SUP are ‘read and do’ done by the PM except which checklist is red by PM and actions done by PF ?

A

MANUAL ENGINE START PROCEDURE

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25
Q

what is that checklist which is “read and do” by PM which is at the back of the company normal checklist ?

A

DE-ICING ON GROUND

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26
Q

which one are the three checklists that are completed “silently” by the PM ?

A
  • AFTER LANDING CHECKLIST,
  • SINGLE ENGINE TAXI CHECKLIST,
  • SECURING CHECKLIST
27
Q

in the event of an ECAM MEMO FAILURE, which checklist are to be use to replace the the MEMO ?

A

AIRBUS TO or LDG checklist at the back of the QRH

28
Q

what is the CM1 responsabile for ?

A

‐ compiling the aircraft flight log (AFL),

‐ checking the load and trim sheet.

29
Q

what is the CM2 responsabile for ?

A

‐ completing the journey log,
‐ accessing DOW/DOI according to crew configuration from the OnBoardDB,
‐ opening any relevant MEL/CDL item in LPC Browser or OnBoardDB.

30
Q

what is the Commander responsabile for ?

A

‐ signing the load and trim sheet,
‐ signing the journey log at the end of the rotation (flight deck crew shall discuss and agree delay
codes),
‐ making sure, that details of the journey log have been entered into AIMS,
‐ signing (with ID number) a work order (WO),

31
Q

what is the Co-pilot responsabile for ?

A

‐ entering the journey log details into AIMS.

32
Q

when can you remove the Head Set during flight ?

A

above FL200 until Start of Descent

33
Q

any time a crew member makes an adjustments, changes etc……

A

….he will advise the other crew member of its INTENTIONS and get an acknowledgment

34
Q

normally PF will call for system selection (such as “engine anti-ice”)….what will the PM action be ?

A

PM will action and inform PF accordingly

“engine anti-ice ON”

35
Q

when does the “sterile cockpit” applies ?

A
  • push back/towing
  • during engine start
  • any time an engine is running on the ground
  • below FL100 or MSA whichever is the higher
  • while in a holding pattern
  • whenever the seat belts signs are illuminated
  • during abnormal or emergency operations
36
Q

what is the only type of paperwork that can be done during a sterile cockpit environment ?

A 
only OFP essential entries
such as:
- clearances
- changes to cleared altitude and FL
- fuel monitoring
- essential weather infos
37
Q

during the climb phase when should the Commander initiate a call to the SCA ?

A

after RVSM checks

38
Q

in normal operations when should the cockpit door stay closed ?

A

from the time all external aircraft doors are closed following embarkation until any external aircraft door is subsequently opened for disembarkation

39
Q

what is the procedure for pilot returning, or a cabin crew visiting the cockpit, before opening the cockpit door?

A

body cover procedure

by cabin crew and video camera
identification by the flight crew are to be applied before opening the cockpit door

40
Q

when can PA not be done ?

A
  • when moving on ground, expect at the holding point in case of long delay
  • not allowed after start of descent
41
Q

what is the recommended Rate of climb or descent when change level of 2000FT or less when at en-route FL ?

A

V/S 1000 or less

42
Q

when should you never attempt to select V/S or “PUSH LEVEL OFF” ?

A

when the ALT* mode is engaged during climb or descent

43
Q

when should the call “RAD ALT” be announced ?

A
  • by both pilots
  • at first visual indication
  • not following the aural 2500
44
Q

are stabilisation criteria based on BARO or RADIO ALT ?

A

BARO

45
Q

what is the mandatory action in case not fully stabilised by 1000ft AAL ?

A

go-around

46
Q

what are the parameters to be considered fully stabilised ?

A

-On profile : within 1 dot GS (ILS), 100ft (NPA), within 1 light high or low on the VASI/PAPI(visual).
‐ Established on the final track.
‐ Landing configuration.
‐ VAPP TARGET (or VAPP, when selected speed is used)
-5/+10kts.
‐ V/S is not higher, than 1000 FPM.
‐ Stabilized approach power if autothrust is not engaged.
‐ Spoilers are armed.

47
Q

short transitory fluctuations of VAPP are acceptable beyond these limits below 1000 ft caused by turbulence, sudden wind change, or slow A/THR response, as
long as the approach is fully stable by ?

A

500ft

48
Q

can the landing gear be extended below VLO to meet the stabilisation criteria ?

A

yes

49
Q

below 1000ft the PF is required to have his hand on the thrust levers unless ?

A

is making FCU selection

50
Q

what is the stabilisation criteria for Circling Approach ?

A 
• At 1000ft AAL, the aircraft is to be:
‐ Gear down.
‐ F 3.
‐ F speed.
‐ V/S is not higher, than 1000 FPM.
‐ Spoilers are armed.

• At 500ft AAL, the aircraft is to be:
‐ Within one light high or low on the VASI/PAPI (or visually established on the correct vertical
path of the landing runway if no VASI/PAPI is available.
‐ Established on the landing runway axis.
‐ Landing configuration.
‐ VAPP TARGET (or VAPP, when selected speed is used)
-5/+10kts.
‐ Stabilized approach power if A/THR is not engaged.

51
Q

when is a miss-approached/go around always mandatory ?

A

• If passing 1000’ AAL, the last received RVR/visibility value is below the applicable minimum
(approach ban).
• If it is obvious that any component of the stabilization criteria will not/has not been achieved by the
required point.
• If the approach becomes unstable below the required point.
• At any time it is ordered by the PM on the grounds of safety.

52
Q

are FD OFF T/O permitted when FD serviceable ?

A

NO

53
Q

can you select FD only on one side ?

A

NO

54
Q

if FD are ON can you chose to followed them or disregard them ?

A

NO, you must follow them

55
Q

when FD are commanded OFF by PF what should the PM do ?

A

turn them OFF simultaneously

56
Q

when flying a visual approach, should the FD be left ON or OFF ?

A

OFF

57
Q

except when the AP is U/S, hand flying should be limited to ?

A
  • initial T/O
  • descent below FL100/10000
  • approach and landing
58
Q

what is considered by AIRBUS an ILS RAW DATA ?

A

AP and FD OFF

59
Q

what is the WIZZ AIR Policy regarding when flying a SID or a STAR or an Approach ?

A

to only set the next published level

when flying a SID with STEP climb or a STAR/approach with step descent, “only set the first stop altitude”.

On passing the first restriction, or when further cleared, reset the FCU altitude and recommence the climb/descent.

60
Q

what is the company requirement regarding the use of A/THR ?

A

must be used:

  • NPA
  • Circling Approach
  • Visual Approach
61
Q

what type of speed is recommended to be used when flying with Manual Thrust and why ?

A

Managed Speed in order to GS Mini Protection

62
Q

what is the procedure regarding PM guarding the side stick ?

A

PM should lightly rest the hand on the stick for T/O and LDG below 1000ft

63
Q

during take off who is the only one who is permitted to fully rest his feet on the rudder pedals ?

A

CM1 in case of rejected take off

64
Q

is it permitted for the PF to fully rest his feet on the rudder pedals during landing ?

A

YES

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