OMM Flashcards

1
Q

What are the somatic levels of the head and neck?

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the somatic levels of the heart and lung?

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the somatic levels of the foregut?

***Stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, pancreas

A

T5-T9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the somatic levels of the midgut?

***distal half of the duodenum, small intestine, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, 2/3 transverse colon

A

T10-T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the somatic levels of the hindgut?

***distal 1/3 transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

A

T12-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the somatic levels of the kidney?

A

T10-T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the somatic levels of the appendix?

A

T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the somatic levels of the upper extremity?

A

T2-T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the somatic levels of the Lower extremity?

A

T11-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the somatic levels of Upper ureter and gonads?

A

T10-T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the somatic levels of Lower ureter and All other GU

A

T12-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the primary motions of the OA?

A

Flexion and Extension

Type 1 like: Sidebending and rotation are opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the primary motions of the AA?

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary motion of C2-C7?

A

Sidebending

Type 2 like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the facet orientation of the portions of the spine?

A

Cervical: BUM: backwards, upwards, medial

Thoracic: BUL: backwards, upwards, lateral

Lumbar: BM: Backwards and Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of a typical rib?

A

Head neck and body

One facet articulates with the same numbered vertebrae

One facet articulates with the above number vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristics of the atypical ribs?

***(ribs with either a 1 or a 2 in the numbers)

A

Rib 1: one facet and two subclavian grooves

Rib 2: rough area for serratus anterior

Rib 10: one facet

Ribs 11 and 12: no neck, one facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 1?

A

Anterior and middle scalenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 2?

A

Posterior Scalene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 3-5?

A

pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 6-9?

A

Serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In treating exhalation dysfunctions, what muscles are utilized for rib(s) 10-12?

A

Latissimus dorsi

23
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T1-T3?

A

SP and TP are in line

24
Q

What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T4-T6?

A

TP is half a segment above the SP

25
What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T7-T9?
TP is one full segment above SP
26
What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T10?
TP is one full segment above the SP **TP of 10 is actually in line with T9 SP
27
What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T11?
TP is a half a segment above the SP
28
What is the anatomic and spacial relationship between the spinous and transverses processes of T12?
SP and TP are equal
29
_______ is the age related or wear and tear degenerative changes in the spine
Spondylosis
30
What are the findings that are associated with spondylosis?
Osteophytes Disc space narrowing Pain with movement that resolves with rest
31
Obesity and overuse are common risk factors of ________
Spondylosis
32
________ refers to the anterior slippage of one vertebrae relative to the one beneath it
Spondylolisthesis
33
What will the Xray of a patient with spondylolisthesis demonstrate?
Step off
34
_______ is a fracture in the pars interarticularis of a vertebrae
Spondylolysis
35
What will the Xray of a patient with spondylolysis show?
Scotty dog: pars interarticularis is the neck
36
What is a positive straight leg raise indicative of?
Lumbar disc herniation L5 and S1 is the most common with a posterolateral displacement of the disc from a weak posterior longitudinal ligament
37
What are the 3 structures that can be narrowed and cause spinal nerve impingement in lumbar spinal stenosis?
Central spinal canal Lateral spinal recess Spinal intervertebral foramen
38
In ______ ________ ________ the back pain is worse with extension and better with flexion ***shopping cart injury and wide gait
Lumbar spinal stenosis
39
In a functional short leg length discrepancy (acquired, usually from a hip replacement), what is the innominate somatic dysfunction typically?
Anterior innominate rotation
40
In an anatomical short leg length discrepancy, what is the innominate somatic dysfunction?
Posterior innominate rotation
41
What is the treatment for a short leg in an older patient?
1/16 inch every 2 weeks
42
What is the treatment for a short leg of a younger patient?
1/8 inch every 2 weeks
43
What is the MAX short leg treatment?
1/2 inch every 2 weeks
44
The _______ ligament stabilizes the anterior motion of L5 on the pelvis and is the FIRST ligament injured in an innominate SD
Iliolumbar
45
What are the attachments, action, and innervation of the piriformis muscle>
Anterior sacrum and greater trochanter attachments ABduction and EXternal rotation S1 and S2 innervation
46
What is the main hip flexor?
Iliopsoas
47
Name the SD: positive seated flexion on the ipsilateral side ASIS is inferior PSIS is superior Quads are tight
anterior innominate rotation
48
Name the SD: positive seated flexion on the ipsilateral side ASIS is superior PSIS is inferior Hamstring tightness
Posterior innominate rotation
49
Name the SD: Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side ASIS is superior PSIS is superior
Superior innominate shear
50
Name the SD: Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side ASIS is closer to the umbilicus Ischial tuberosity is more lateral
Inflare
51
Name the SD: Positive seated flexion test on the ipsilateral side ASIS is further to the umbilicus Ischial tuberosity is more medial
Outflare
52
During craniosacral flexion, the sacral base rotates ______ and is in ________
Posteriorly Counternutation
53
During craniosacral extension, the sacral base rotates ______ and is in _______
Anteriorly Nutation