OMM Flashcards

(329 cards)

1
Q

2 major RF for develop LBP in preg?

A
  • smoke

- heavy manual labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

boggy tissue w increased moisture –> acute or chronic SD?

A

acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ropy tissue –> acute or chronic SD?

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

burning tenderness –> acute or chronic SD?

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is hysteresis

A

“stress-strain”: time bw elasticity & creep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is creep

A

capacity of fascia & other tissues to lengthen when subjected to constant tension –> result in less resistance to 2nd load application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hysteresis represents loss of what in connective tissue system?

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

according to concept of creep –> tissue that is under slow, long lasting stress will eventually lose what?

A

tissue –> slow, long lasting stress –> lose elastic qualities –> not “go back”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

anatomic barrier –> limit of what type of motion?

A

passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

physiologic barrier –> limit of what type of motion?

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is elastic barrier

A

barrier bw anatomic & physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens if go past anatomic barrier?

A

tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens if go past anatomic barrier?

A

tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?

A

3, 7, 9, 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

plumb line for perfect posture –> line should go thru what 8 pts?

A
  • coronal suture
  • external auditory meatus
  • cervical vertebral bodies
  • shoulder jt
  • lumbar vertebral bodies
  • hip jt
  • knee jt
  • lat malleolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal walking cycle –> 2 phases? what % of time in each phase?

A
  • stance –> foot on ground (60%)

- swing –> foot swing forward (40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what kind of sacral mvmt?

A

left on L oblique axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction lumbar spine SB? rot?

A

SB –> L

rot –> R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what happen to R innominate?

A

as leg raised –> mv from ant to post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction thoracic spine rot?

A

L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction thoracic spine rot?

A

L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HVLA –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ME –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • active
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ST –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
S/CS --> utilizes what type of forces? - direct/indirect - active/passive - extrinsic/intrinsic
- indirect - passive - extrinsic, intrinsic
26
cranial --> utilizes what type of forces? - direct/indirect - active/passive - extrinsic/intrinsic
- direct, indirect - passive - extrinsic, intrinsic
27
myofascial --> utilizes what type of forces? - direct/indirect - active/passive - extrinsic/intrinsic
- direct, indirect - passive - extrinsic, intrinsic
28
springing --> utilizes what type of forces? - direct/indirect - active/passive - extrinsic/intrinsic
- direct - passive - extrinsic, intrinsic
29
articulatory --> utilizes what type of forces? - direct/indirect - active/passive - extrinsic/intrinsic
- direct - passive - extrinsic, intrinsic
30
what is Dalrymple treatment?
lymphatic pump via feet
31
what is effleurage?
stroking mvmt --> mv fluids
32
what is petrisage?
deep knead/squeeze --> express swelling
33
what is tapotement?
strike belly of muscle --> increase tone, arterial perfusion
34
what is klapping?
strike skin w cupped hand --> loosen material
35
do soft tissue techniques correct jts?
no
36
muscle energy --> during what part of treatment is neuromusc apparatus reset?
relaxation phase (refractory state)
37
isometric --> what happens to muscle: - length - tension
- length: no change | - tension: increase
38
isotonic --> what happens to muscle: - length - tension
- length: shorter | - tension: no change
39
isolytic --> what happens to muscle: - length - tension
- length: longer | - tension: increase
40
isometric: - who "wins"? - what is it used for?
- nobody win | - correct SD
41
isotonic: - who "wins"? - what is it used for?
- pt win | - strengthen physiologic weak muscle
42
isolytic: - who "wins"? - what is it used for?
- physician win | - break up adhesions/scarring
43
approximation of origin/insertion w/out change muscle tension --> what type of muscle energy?
isotonic (concentric)
44
contracture of muscle w forced lengthening --> what type of muscle energy?
isolytic (eccentric)
45
goal of oculocephalogyric reflex
affect reflex muscle contraction using eye motion
46
oculocephalogyric reflex --> eye mvmts affect what musculature (2)?
- cervical | - truncal
47
oculocephalogyric reflex --> should have pt look to what direction to relax R side?
L
48
Down synd --> why cervical HVLA is contraindicated?
laxity of transverse, alar lig of atlas
49
HVLA --> which are absolute contraindication? which are relative? - RA - Down synd - OA - osteoporosis - disc herniation
absolute: - RA of cervical spine - Down synd relative: - RA (not cervical spine) - OA - osteoporosis - disc herniation
50
S/CS --> usu hold for 90sec --> what body region needs to be held for 120sec?
ribs
51
S/CS --> as a general rule --> when more midline, use more of what type of motion to trt? when farther from midline, need to also utilize what type of motion?
close to midline --> more flex/extend far from midline --> also use SB/rot
52
ant cervical TP --> tx
flex --> SARA
53
where is ant L5 TP?
lat to pubic symphysis
54
ant C3 TP --> tx
extend --> SARA
55
piriformis TP --> tx
flex hip >90 --> abduct --> finetune w ext/int rot
56
myofascial release --> tx technique
- position of ease | - hold til release
57
FPR --> tx technique
- place in neutral - position of ease - compress - hold for 3-5sec
58
what grp of muscles are responsible for knee flex?
hamstrings
59
hamstrings --> include what muscles?
BITE ME: - biceps femoris - semitendinosus - semimembranosus
60
still technique --> tx technique
- position of ease - exagg til tissue relax - compress - mv thru restriction
61
Chapman pt --> pathophys
diseased organ --> excess sympathetic tone --> focal area of hyperirritability, ischemia, tissue congest --> chapman pt
62
Chapman pt --> tx
decrease SNS tone --> net increase in PSNS tone
63
OMM exam --> find pt that very painful, not radiate --> what pt is this?
chapman pt
64
OMM exam --> find pt that very painful, pain radiate --> what pt is this?
trigger pt
65
ant chapman pt --> feels like?
small nodule --> smooth, firm, discrete, tender
66
post chapman pt --> feels like?
rubbery
67
ant chapman pt --> location (2)
- w/in deep fascia | - on periosteum
68
post chapman pt --> location (2)
- bw SP & TP | - near costo-transverse struct
69
otitis media --> chapman pt location?
superior clavicle
70
pharyngitis --> chapman pt location?
superior 1st rib --> just lat to manubrium
71
sinusitis --> chapman pt location?
superior 2nd rib
72
conjunctivitis --> chapman pt location?
lat humerus
73
heart dz --> chapman pt location?
bw rib 2-3 --> just lat to sternum
74
liver --> upper, mid, or lower GI?
upper
75
GB --> upper, mid, or lower GI?
upper
76
spleen --> upper, mid, or lower GI?
upper
77
pancreas --> upper, mid, or lower GI?
upper & mid
78
inf mesenteric ganglion --> location
umbilicus
79
celiac ganglion --> location
below xiphoid
80
trigger pt --> location
w/in taut band of skeletal muscle or in muscle fascia
81
what does trigger pt represent?
somatic manifestation of viscerosomatic/somatovisceral/somatosomatic reflex
82
press trigger pt --> what does it feel like?
hypersens --> charact referred pain, tender, autonomic phenomena
83
trigger pt --> pathophys
direct stimuli to muscle --> muscle strain, overwork, posture imbalance (initiate trigger pt) --> continuous sensory input --> --> spinal cord --> sensitize interneurons --> maintain trigger pt
84
trigger pt --> tx (7)
- vapo-coolant spray - local anes inject - dry needle - reciprocal inh - ischemic compress - ME - myofascial release
85
what is key articulation for all cranial motion
sphenobasilar synchrondrosis: base of sphenoid meet base of occiput
86
cranial: flex --> what happens to sacral base
mv post/sup
87
cranial: extend --> what happens to sacral base
mv ant/inf
88
inhale --> what happens to cranial bones
FLowER: midline bones --> flex paired bones --> ext rot
89
inhale --> what happens to: - AP diameter - transverse
AP: shorten transverse: increase
90
exhale --> what happens to cranial bones
midline bones: extend | paired bones: int rot
91
exhale --> what happens to: - AP diameter - transverse
AP: increase transverse: decrease
92
dura --> aka?
reciprocal tension membrane
93
what are the 3 dural reflections
- falx cerebri - falx cerebelli - tentorium cerebelli
94
dura --> firmly attaches where (4)
- foramen magnum - C2 - C3 - S2 --> post/sup
95
what is responsible for cranial rhythmic impulse (CRI)?
1ary resp mechanism
96
what is 1ary resp mechanism (PRM)
5 compts that fx together to ctrl & reg: - pulm resp (2ary resp) - circulation - digestion - elimination
97
what is normal CRI
6-12cycles/min
98
what are 5 compts of PRM
- inherent motility of CNS w resp - fluctuation of CSF - mobility of dura - mobility of cranial bones - mobility of sacrum
99
vault hold --> finger positions
- index --> greater wing of sphenoid - 3rd finger --> front of ear --> temporal bone - 4th finger --> behind ear --> mastoid region of temporal - little finger --> lat angle of occiput
100
dysfx of what CN can cause tinnitis
CN VIII
101
tinnitis --> trt what cranial bones?
temporal
102
tinnitis --> high pitched --> indicates temporals are in what position?
int rot
103
tinnitis --> low pitched --> indicates temporals are in what position?
ext rot
104
HA on L side --> indicates what SD?
R torsion
105
HA --> wing of sphenoid is low on what side of HA?
same side
106
which are worse --> extension or flexion HA?
extension
107
anosmia --> trt what bone?
ethmoid
108
temporal dysfx --> can affect what CN? why?
CN 9, 10, 11 --> go thru jug foramen
109
what is core link
dural connection of occiput & sacrum
110
vagal SD --> can be d/t dysfx of what (3)
- OA - AA - C2
111
newborn --> poor suckling --> may be d/t to what condition?
occipital condylar compression (CN 12)
112
newborn --> poor suckling --> tx
decompress occipital condyles
113
cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) --> goal?
stim body's inherent therapeutic potency
114
cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) --> whom?
F past due date
115
cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) --> encourages what type of mvmt of cranial bones?
int rot/ext
116
cranial: VSD --> indications? (2)
- rigid head | - sinusitis/allergic rhinitis/migraine/throbbing
117
cranial: VSD --> trts what 5 parts
- occipital sinus (falx cerebelli) - transverse sinus (tentorium cerebelli) - straight sinus (Sutherland's fulcrum) - sagittal sinus (falx cerebri) - metopic suture
118
cranial: V-spread (contre coup) --> goal?
release peripheral sutures
119
cranial: temporal rocking --> goal?
reduce/increase CRI
120
temporal --> ext rot --> what happens to mastoid process?
mv post/med
121
temporal --> int rot --> what happens to mastoid process?
mv ant/lat
122
what is Galbreath technique
facial sinus pressure --> stroke --> lymph drain
123
cranial: parietal lift --> indication
HA at vertex
124
cranial: frontal lift --> indication
frontal sinus HA
125
cranial: what are the midline bones (4)
- sphenoid - occiput - vomer - ethmoid
126
what is the axis for rotation of temporal bone
petrous ridge
127
CCP: R leg length
shorter
128
CCP: resp motion
motion of abd wall down to umbilicus instead of to pubic symphysis
129
CCP: R iliac crest --> cephalad or caudad
caudad
130
CCP: R ASIS --> inf or sup? med or lat?
inf med
131
CCP: R pubic symphysis --> cephalad or caudad?
caudad
132
CCP: R innominate --> fascial drag --> cephalad or caudad?
caudad
133
CCP: R innominate --> ant or post rot?
ant
134
CCP: upper thorax --> rot clockwise or CCW?
clockwise
135
CCP: lower thorax --> shift L or R?
L
136
CCP: R costal margins --> resist compression or easy to compress?
easy
137
CCP: R 1st rib --> ant or post?
post
138
CCP: R 1st rib --> elevated or depressed?
depressed
139
CCP: R infraclavicular --> concave or convex?
concave
140
CCP: rib cartilage 2-6 on R --> deep or stickyouty?
deep
141
CCP: R arm --> longer or shorter?
longer
142
CCP: head --> turned L or R? SB L or R?
turned L --> SB R
143
CCP: vertebra 2 --> rot L or R?
L
144
CCP: R sacral sulcus --> deep or stickyouty?
deep
145
CCP: R ILA --> ant/post? sup/inf?
ant sup
146
CCP: sacral fascial drag --> cephalad or caudad?
cephalad
147
CCP: sacral tender points present?
no
148
CCP: sphinx test pos or neg?
neg
149
CCP: sacral diagnosis
L on L forward sacral torsion
150
muscles: hip flexor
RIP: - rectus femoris - iliacus - psoas major
151
muscles: hip extensors
hamstrings --> BITE ME: - biceps femoris - semitendinosis - semimembranosus
152
muscles: knee extensors
quadriceps femoris: - vastus lat - vast medialis - vastus intermedius - rectus femoris
153
muscles: hip adductors
GAAP: - gracilis - adductor magnus - adductor longus - adductor brevis - pectineus
154
muscles: hip abductors
- gluteus medius/minimus | - tensor fascia lata
155
muscles: ext rotators
piriformis
156
iliacus TP --> tx
cross ankles --> rest on leg
157
adductor TP --> tx
flex hip & knee --> adduct hip --> slight ext rot
158
sup pubic shear --> tx utilizes what muscle grp?
hip adductors
159
sup pubic shear --> ME tx
leg off table --> pt push knee toward opp shoulder
160
inf pubic shear --> tx utilizes what muscle grp?
hip extensors
161
inf pubic shear --> ME tx
- leg on shoulder - cup ischial tuberosity --> push superiorly - monitor SI jt
162
ant rot innominate --> ME tx
- leg on shoulder | - monitor SI jt
163
ant rot innominate --> tx utilizes what muscle grp?
hip extensors
164
post rot innominate --> tx utilizes what muscle grp?
hip flexors
165
post rot innominate --> ME tx
leg off table --> pt push knee toward same shoulder
166
ant rot innominate --> HVLA tx
abduct leg --> lift 30deg off table
167
post rot innominate --> HVLA tx
abduct leg
168
upslipped innominate
``` superior IT + 2 of following: - iliac crest - ASIS - pubic tubercle - PSIS ```
169
R upslipped innominate --> ME tx
- R leg --> slight abduct --> int rot --> pull leg | - L foot on thigh --> push on thigh
170
location: S1 TP
sacral sulcus
171
location: S2 TP
sacral base --> midline
172
location: S3 TP
middle of sacrum
173
location: S4 TP
sacral apex
174
location: S5 TP
ILA
175
sacrum --> caudad skin drag --> assoc w what SD (2)
- backward sacral torsion | - sacral extension
176
sacrum --> cephalad skin drag --> assoc w what SD (2)
- forward sacral torsion | - sacral flexion
177
ischial tuberosity spread --> can be used to trt what sacral SD?
forward sacral torsion
178
lat sims technique --> used for what SD?
forward sacral torsion
179
forward sacral torsion --> ME tx --> lumbar spine should flexed and rot in what direction relative to the torsion?
same direction
180
sacral dx: - R deep sulcus - L inf/post ILA - neg sphinx
L on L FST
181
sacral dx: - R deep sulcus - L inf/post ILA - pos sphinx
L on R BST
182
sacral dx: - L deep sulcus - R inf/post ILA - neg sphinx
R on R FST
183
sacral dx: - L deep sulcus - R inf/post ILA - pos sphinx
R on L BST
184
sacral dx: - L deep sulcus - L inf/post ILA - neg sphinx
L unilat flexion
185
sacral dx: - L deep sulcus - L inf/post ILA - pos sphinx
R unilat extension
186
sacral dx: - R deep sulcus - R inf/post ILA - neg sphinx
R unitlat flexion
187
sacral dx: - R deep sulcus - R inf/post ILA - pos sphinx
L unilat extension
188
lat recumbent technique --> used for what SD?
backward sacral torsion
189
location: quadratus lumborum TP
tip of rib 12
190
location: ant thoracic 1-6 TP
midline sternum
191
location: ant thoracic 12 TP
mid-axillary line --> inner iliac crest
192
ant thoracic 12 TP --> tx
stand on same side --> legs on knee --> SB/rot toward
193
post spinous process 1-12 TP --> tx
1-4 --> arms off table 5-9 --> hands under abd 10-12 --> hands under ASIS
194
post transverse process 1-12 TP --> tx
same side arm --> up next to head
195
locked up SD --> aka?
- inhalation SD | - exhalation restriction
196
locked up SD --> key rib?
inf
197
locked down SD --> aka?
- exhalation SD | - inhalation restriction
198
locked down SD --> key rib?
sup
199
ant rib TP --> location according to DMU? according to boards?
DMU: - rib 1-2 --> midclavicular - 3-6 --> mid-axillary Boards: ant axillary line
200
ant rib TP --> tx
opp arm on leg --> ipsilat arm off back of table --> SB/rot toward --> flex head
201
post rib TP --> tx
same arm on leg --> other arm off back of table --> SB/rot away --> flex head
202
locked up ribs --> assoc w what TP?
post rib TP
203
locked down ribs --> assoc w what TP?
ant rib TP
204
locked up rib 1-5 --> ME tx
flex
205
locked up rib 6-10 --> ME tx
flex & SB
206
locked up rib 11-12 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
quadratus lumborum
207
locked down rib 1 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
ant & mid scalene
208
locked down rib 1 --> ME tx
hand on head --> turn head 5-10deg away --> hold breath in --> push head into hand
209
locked down rib 2 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
post scalene
210
locked down rib 2 --> ME tx
hand on head --> turn head 20-30deg away --> hold breath in --> push head into hand
211
locked down rib 3-5 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
pect minor
212
locked down rib 3-5 --> ME tx
hand on ear --> my hand on elbow --> hold breath in --> push elbow toward opp ASIS
213
locked down rib 6-9 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
serratus ant
214
locked down rib 6-9 --> ME tx
arm up 90deg --> i hold elbow --> hold breath in --> push elbow into hand
215
locked down rib 10-12 --> ME tx --> utilizes what muscle?
lat dorsi
216
locked down rib 10-12 --> ME tx
arm up --> taco --> hold breath in --> push ASIS into hand
217
C2 --> R articular pillar deeper in flexion --> better in ext --> diagnosis?
C2 ESrRr
218
location: post C1 TP
lat to inion TP
219
post C1 TP --> tx
ESARA
220
location: post C2 TP
C2 --> sup lat spinous process
221
post C2 TP
ESARA
222
location: post C3 TP
C2 --> inf lat spinous process
223
post C3 TP --> tx
FSARA
224
location: post C4-8 TP
inf lat spinous process above level
225
post C4-8 TP --> tx
ESARA
226
location: ant C1 TP
post ramus of mandible
227
ant C1 TP --> tx
rotate away
228
location: ant C2-6 TP
ant transverse process
229
ant C2-6 TP --> tx
FSARA
230
location: levator scap TP
sup med scapula
231
levator scap TP --> tx
hand on chin --> push elbow down
232
location: trapezius TP
anywhere along upper part of trap
233
trapezius TP --> tx
arm over monitoring hand --> SB/rot head toward
234
location: omohyoid TP
- suprascapular notch | - over rib
235
omohyoid TP --> tx
arm over monitoring hand --> SB/rot head toward --> push hyoid toward
236
DTR: biceps --> what nerve?
C5
237
DTR: brachioradialis --> what nerve?
C6
238
DTR: triceps --> what nerve?
C7
239
DTR: patellar --> what nerve?
L4
240
DTR: achilles --> what nerve?
S1
241
motor test: C5
- elbow flex | - shoulder abduct
242
motor test: C6
wrist extend
243
motor test: C7
elbow extend
244
motor test: C8
finger flex
245
motor test: T1
finger abduct
246
motor test: L2
hip flex
247
motor test: L3
knee extend
248
motor test: L4
ankle dorsiflex
249
motor test: L5
big toe extend
250
motor test: S1
ankle plantarflex
251
sensory test: UE
``` C3: supraclavicular fossa C4: AC jt C5: lat antecubital fossa C6: dorsal thumb C7: dorsal middle finger C8: dorsal little finger T1: med antecubital fossa ```
252
sensory test: LE
``` L2: ant med thigh L3: medial above knee L4: medial malleolus L5: dorsal middle toe S1: lat calcaneus S2: mid popliteal fossa ```
253
Bragard's sign
SLR --> lower leg til no ssx --> dorsiflex foot --> pain recur --> sciatic N irritation NOT sacroiliac, hamstring dysfx
254
sciatic N --> nerve roots?
L4, L5, S1
255
what is a positive Faber's test? indicates?
pain: - ant/lat pelvis --> hip dysfx - post pelvis --> sacroiliac dysfx
256
femoral N roots
L2, L3, L4
257
what are the 3 physiologic (normal) end feels?
- hard - elastic - tissue approximation
258
what are the 2 pathologic (abnormal) end feels?
- guarding (or empty) | - muscle spasm
259
venous sinus drainage --> straight sinus --> finger positions: - pinky - thumb
- pinky: inion | - thumb: bregma
260
cranial: flex/extend - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 2 tranverse - direction: opp - named by: sphenobasilar angle
261
cranial: torsion - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 1 AP - direction: opp - named by: sup greater wing of sphenoid
262
cranial: SB - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 2 vertical - direction: opp - named by: side of convex
263
cranial: rot - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 1 AP - direction: same - named by: side that drop inf
264
cranial: verticle strain - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 2 transverse - direction: same - named by: base of sphenoid inf/sup
265
cranial: lat strain - axis - direction - named by
- axis: 2 vertical - direction: same - named by: base of sphenoid L/R
266
cranial: compression - axis - direction
- axis: 1 AP | - direction: into each other
267
sternoclavicular jt --> MC diagnoses
- restricted abduct | - restricted flex
268
cranial: torsion --> cause
direct blow from above/below
269
cranial: SB/rot --> cause
lat force direct at level of SVS
270
cranial: vertical strain --> cause
traumatic blow --> from above or below --> A/P to plane of SBS
271
cranial: lat strain --> cause
traumatic blow --> side of head --> A/P to SBS
272
cranial: compression --> cause
traumatic blow --> nose, back of head --> in line w SBS --> decrease CRI
273
OA --> main motion
flex/ext
274
AA --> main motion
rot
275
lower cervical --> main motion
SB
276
which vertebrae have bifid spinous process?
C2-6
277
vertebral A --> pass thru which vertebrae? thru what struct of the vertebrae?
C1-6 --> transverse foramina
278
what happens w unilat contract of SCM?
SB toward | rot away
279
what is uncinate process
C3-C7 --> vertebral body --> sup side --> lat projection: - support lat side of cervical discs - protect cervical nerve roots from disc herniation
280
what is uncovertebral jt (of Luschka)
articulation of sup uncinate process w supraadj vertebra
281
what is MC cause of nerve root pressure
degen of jts of Luschka + hypertrophic arthritis of intervertebral (facet) jts
282
CN 7 --> found bw what 2 vertebrae?
bw 6 & 7
283
cervical disc hernia --> MC level? 2nd MC?
C5-6 C6-7
284
zygapophyseal jt --> allows what motion?
coupled rot & SB --> same side
285
Spurling test --> tests for?
cervical nerve root impingement
286
Wallenberg test --> tests for?
vertebral A insuff
287
what is Underburg's test?
variation of Wallenberg test
288
Lhermitte's sign --> tests for?
lesions affecting dorsal column of C-spine or caudal medulla
289
Lhermitte's sign --> what is a positive test?
active neck flex --> electric sensation down spine
290
what tests test for meningeal irritation (2)?
- Brudzinski's | - Kernig's
291
what tests test for meningeal irritation (2)?
- Brudzinski's | - Kernig's
292
which spinal region has least motion?
thoracic
293
post long spinal lig --> prevents too much of what motion?
hyperflex
294
name motions of thoracic spine from greatest to least
rot > BS > flex > ext
295
what non-GI organs are innervated by inf mesenteric ganglion (3)
- bladder - ovary - prostate
296
what is mod scoliosis
cobb angle 20-45
297
what is severe scoliosis
cobb angle >50
298
mod scoliosis --> tx
+ brace w spinal orthotic
299
mild scoliosis --> tx
conservative: - PT - Konstancin exercise - OMT
300
scoliosis --> when is resp fx compromised
thoracic curve >50
301
scoliosis --> when is CV fx compromised
>75
302
what is MCC of anatomic leg length discrepancy
hip replace
303
what is short leg synd
anatomic/fxal leg length discrepancy (LLD) --> result in: - sacral base unlevel - vertebral SB/rot - innominate rot
304
what is functional LLD
1 leg appear shorter than other
305
what is Heilig formula used for
how much heel lift should use for short leg
306
what is most significant thing Heilig formula tells us
longer pt had short leg & compenstation has occured --> slower and less aggressive should return them to neutral
307
what is max heel lift possible
1/2 inch
308
how much heel lift for every degree of sacal base declination
1/8 inch
309
what are true ribs
ribs w direct sternal attachment --> rib 1-7
310
what are false ribs
ribs that connect to sternum thru cartilage or not at all --> rib 8-12
311
what are typical ribs
ribs w 2 facets that articulate w TP & body of vertebra --> rib 3-9
312
which ribs are atypical ribs
rib 1, 2, 11, 12
313
which are pump handle ribs
1-5
314
pump handle ribs --> increase which diameter of thorax
AP diameter
315
bucket hand ribs --> increase which diameter of thorax
transverse diameter
316
calipier ribs --> increase which diameter of thorax
transverse diameter
317
which are bucket handle ribs
6-10
318
which are caliper ribs
11-12
319
rib 10-12 --> exhalation restriction --> trt w ME --> utilize what muscle?
quad lumborum
320
exhalation SD --> rib 1 --> ME --> utilize what muscle?
ant, mid scalene
321
exhalation SD --> rib 2 --> ME --> utilize what muscle?
post scalene
322
exhalation SD --> rib 3-5 --> ME --> utilize what muscle?
pect minor
323
exhalation SD --> rib 6-9 --> ME --> utilize what muscle?
serr ant
324
exhalation SD --> rib 10-12 --> ME --> utilize what muscle?
lat dorsi
325
exhalation SD --> rib 1 --> ME tx position
hand on forehead --> 5-10 deg away
326
exhalation SD --> rib 2 --> ME tx position
hand on forehead --> 20-30 deg away
327
exhalation SD --> rib 3-5 --> ME tx position
hand on neck --> physician hold elbow --> push elbow to opp ASIS
328
exhalation SD --> rib 6-9 --> ME tx position
arm at 90 --> hold elbow --> push arm toward ceiling
329
exhalation SD --> rib 10-12 --> ME tx position
hand on forehead --> hold elbow --> adduct arm