OMM level 2 Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

viscerosomatics for respiratory system

A

T2-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

VS for lower GI

A

T10-T11: small intestine up to proximal 2/3 transverse colon

T12-L2: distal 1/3 transverse colon to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chapman’s point for pancreas

A

between ribs 7-8 on RIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VS to head/neck

A

T1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

anterior chapman for GERD (esophagus)

A

2nd intercostal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GB ant chapman

A

6th IC space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

posterior chapman points for kidney

A

between spinous and transverse processes of T12-L1

adrenals is T11-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a lateral strain pattern happen when occiput and sphenoid have when they rotate in same or different direction around what axis?

A

same direction around 2 vertical axes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VS kidney/upper ureter (kidney stone)

A

T10-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

posterior chapman appendix

A

right of the transverse process of T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VS for ED

A

T11-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in reciprocal inhibition muscle energy treatment, the patient applies force in what direction of the barrier?

A

in the direction of the barrier

OPPOSITE normal muscle energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

innominate rotation occurs about what axis

A

inferior transverse

superior: respiratory, craniosacral
middle: postural motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FPR

A

indirect (goes to position of ease) and passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

measuring leg length

A

ASIS to medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

radial head subluxation

A

hyperpronation or supination with flexion

if ME dr. will supinate and pt will pronate against force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what motions occur along a transverse axis? in what plane?

A

flexion and extension

sagittal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rotation is along a ? axis and ? plane

A

vertical, tranverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sidebending is along a ? axis in a ? plane

A

A-P axis in a coronal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

anterior/middle scalenes vs posterior scalene rib actions

A
ant/mid elevate rib 1
posterior elevates rib 2
pec minor for 3-5
serratus anterior: 6-10
lats for 9-10
quad lumb 12th rib
21
Q

rib movements

A

1-5: pump handle
6-10: bucket
11, 12: caliper

22
Q

SB and rotation at the OA

A

OPPOSITE directions

23
Q

lung disorders

24
Q

scoliosis

A
cobb angle greater than 10 (mild)
home exercises and OMT
bracing if 20-40 (mod: 25-30)
surgery if greater than 50 and experiencing resp
CV compromise (greater than 75 for CV)
25
actions of the psoas
hip flexor, external rotator
26
counterstrain should be placed in what position?
of ease (indirect technique)
27
ober's test
tight in tensor fascia lata or IT band
28
thomas test
psoas dysfunction
29
spurlings
extend and SB neck to side being tested and apply compression tests for cervical radiculopathy
30
AA dysfunction and treatment
just rotational HVLA would be simple rotary thrust through the barrier SB/rotate opposite sides
31
how to indirectly treat anterior tender points
flexion, SB and rotation AWAY from tender point (counterintuitive for counterstrain) same for posterior tender points except extend instead of flex
32
Scheuermann disease
thoracic kyphosis, verterbral wedging, degenerative pates brace BEFORE skeletal maturity: 13-15 (F), 15-17 (M) if older: OMT and PT
33
a R on R sacral torsion occurs during what phase of walking
stance phase on right leg
34
counterstrain for anterior rib tender points
"wrap" around the tender point | flex cervicals, SB and rotate to side of tender point
35
rule of 3s
``` T1-3: SP are at level of TP T4-6: SP 1/2 segment below TP T7-9: SP at level of TP below T10: same as T7-9 T11: T4-6 T12: T1-3 (SPs get more horizontal as you go down after T10) ```
36
treat group curves by placing pt on what side?
on the side SB to and have them push legs up to straighten curve i.e. if SB left have them on left sides
37
treatment for innominate outflare
stand on same side, push hip medially (adduct) and pull PSIS laterally (causes hip to "inflare")
38
bone restrictions in flattened arch
cuboid: restriction in external rotation (supination) cuneiforms: restriction in superior glide
39
counterstrain for anterior TPs T1-6
patient in flexion with arms internally rotated
40
counterstrain for ant TPS T7-9
flexion, SB toward, rotate away
41
counterstrain for post TPs T1-9
extension, SB, rotate away
42
counterstrain for post TPs T10-12
extension and rotate towards
43
counterstrain for ant TPs T10-12
flexion, SB, minimal rotation towards TP
44
counterstrain for anterior vs posterior TP
anterior: flexion SARA posterior: extension SARA some exceptions! AC1, AC7, AC8, PC1, PC3
45
OA
SB and rotate opposite | but main motion is flexion/extension
46
C spine SB rotation
SAME side
47
cervical movement
C2-4: rotational C5-7: SB All: SB/R SAME SIDE
48
thoracic movement
upper/middle: rotation | lower: flex/extension
49
lumbar spine movement
flex/extension