Oncologic Disorders Flashcards

(172 cards)

1
Q

Define Cancer.

A

Disease process that begins when a cell is transformed by genetic mutation of cellular DNA. Cancer can involve any organ system.
(takes over cells and mutate)

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2
Q

What are benigns cells?

A

Not cancerous; may grow but unable to spread beyond their area. Won’t enter blood stream etc.

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3
Q

What is malignant cancer?

A

Cells or processes that are characteristic of cancer

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4
Q

Explain Metastasis.

A

Abnormal cells invade surrounding tissue and gain access to lymph and blood vessels carrying them to other areas of the body.

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5
Q

Precision medicine is now being developed, what makes this possible?

A
  • Recent development of biologic database
  • Technologic advances that identify unique
    characteristics of individual persons.
  • Computer driven systems that can mine and analyze
    datasets.
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6
Q

Cancer mostly occur in __________ ___________ .

A

Older adults

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7
Q

What cancers are men most at risk for?

A

Lung, prostate, colorectal

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8
Q

What cancers are women most at risk for?

A

Lung, breast, colorectal

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9
Q

Explain cell proliferation.

A
  • Genetically altered cells clone and proliferate abnormally
  • Evade normal intra/extracellular processes such as growth
    regulating and immune system defenses
  • Abnormalities in cell signaling processes lead to cancer development
  • Ultimately metastasis occurs
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10
Q

What are Neoplasms?

A

New cells.

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of benign Neoplasms?

A
  • Grows by expansion, no infiltration of adjacent cells
  • Slow growth
  • No metastasis
  • Localized effects
  • Rare tissue damage
  • Death rare
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12
Q

What are the characteristics of malignant Neoplasms?

A
  • Grows at periphery, invades surrounding tissues
  • Variable growth rate
  • Uses blood and lymph channels to invade other areas
  • Generalized effects
  • Frequent tissue damage
  • Death
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13
Q

What is Carcinogenesis?

A

Malignant transformation.

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14
Q

Explain the process of Carcinogenesis.

A

3-step process.

  • Initiation : Apoptosis - Carcinogens causes mutation in cellular DNA. Normal cell cycle is interrupted.
  • Promotion : Initiated cells are prompted to grow and survive. They develop a tumor suppressor gene - preneoplastic/benign lesions.
  • Progression - Proliferation (multiplying) and differentiation; angiogenesis (development of new blood vessels) .
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15
Q

What are some carcinogenic agents and factors?

A
  • Viruses : HPV, HBV, EBV
  • Bacteria : H Pylori
  • Chemical agents: Tobacco: combustible & smokeless
  • Asbestos
  • Physical agents: Sunlight: cumulative exposure
  • Radiation: x-ray, radon, Chronic irritation
  • Genetic, familial factors
  • Life style factors : Diet - Long-term ingestion of carcinogens or co-carcinogens, Fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meat
  • Obesity
  • Sedentary lifestyles
  • Hormonal agents : Early onset of menses, HRT
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16
Q

Which part of your immune system normally destroy cancer cells?

A

T-cell lymphocytes & B-cell lymphocytes

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17
Q

In what way are some cancer cells able to evade our immune system?

A
  • have altered cell membranes that interfere with these cells
  • release cytokines that inhibit APCs (Antigen presenting cells) and so are not recognized
  • may combine with the antibodies produced by the immune system and hide or disguise themselves from normal immune defense mechanisms.
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18
Q

What is primary prevention of cancer?

A

Reducing the risks
* health promotion and risk reduction strategies
- stop smoking, stay out of the sun, healthy diet.

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19
Q

What is secondary prevention of cancer?

A

Screening and early detection activities
i.e if a family member had cancer, you should get screened.

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20
Q

What is tertiary prevention of cancer?

A
  • monitoring and preventing recurrence of primary
    cancer
  • screen for secondary malignancies in cancer
    survivors
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21
Q

What are some symptoms and warning signs of cancer/clinical manifestations?

A
  • Change in bowel or bladder habits.
  • A sore that does not heal.
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge.
  • Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere.
  • Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing.
  • Obvious change in a wart or mole.
  • Nagging cough or hoarseness.
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22
Q

How do we diagnose cancer?

A
  • Determine presence, extent of tumor
  • Identify possible disease metastasis
  • Evaluate functions of involved and uninvolved body
    systems and organs
  • Obtain tissue and cells for analysis, including
    evaluation of tumor stage and grade
  • Physical examination (self breast, tesitcle exam etc)
  • Imaging studies : CT, MRI, ( w/wo contrast) Nuclear
    Scan, Bone Scan, PET Scan
  • Laboratory tests of blood, urine, and other body fluid :
    BRCA1 and BRCA2 - genetic alteration.
  • Exploratory/diagnostic procedures
  • Pathologic analysis (biopsy)
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23
Q

What are some of the factors that help us in staging the cancer?

A
  • Size of the tumor
  • Existence of local invasion
  • Lymph node involvement
  • Distant metastasis
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24
Q

When we grade cancer, what do we look at?

A

The original tumor and look at how much differentiation from the normal cell is happening.

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25
how do we manage cancer?
* Specific to type, stage, grade of cancer * Cure: complete eradication of malignant disease * Control: prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth * Palliation: relief of symptoms associated with the disease and improvement of quality of life
26
What is the purpose of a diagnostic surgery for cancer?
Obtain tissue sample of tumor or adjacent tissue (lymph node)
27
What is a biopsy?
* Needle: sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible * Excisional: small, easily accessible tumors * Incisional: tumor mass is too large to be removed
28
What is a wide excision surgery?
* Removal of the primary tumor, lymph nodes, adjacent tissues * Frequently results in disfigurement, altered function because we may need to take out part of organs, GI tract etc. * Requires rehabilitation and reconstructive surgery i.e mastectomy.
29
What is prophylactic surgery?
Removal of non-vital tissues or organs that are at increased risk of developing cancer. Some women may remove breast due to having BRCA1 & 2
30
What is palliative surgery?
Relieve symptoms, promote comfort, increase quality of life
31
Explain radiation therapy.
* Used with/without chemotherapy * Localized therapy - not systemic * Damages DNA within the cancer cells - cannot replicate or differentiate anymore. * More effective on tissues that are faster growing : Bone marrow, lymphatic tissue, GI tract, gonads * Less effective on slower growing tissues : Muscle, nervous system, connective tissue
32
What are the different types of radiation therapy treatments ?
Curative - Thyroid, cervical, localized head & neck Control - unable to remove surgically Palliative - symptom relief External radiation Internal radiation. External Beam Radiation Therapy Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy Brachytherapy
33
How does External Beam Radiation Therapy work?
External Radiation Delivers tightly targeted radiation beams directed from different angles and different planes from outside the body into the tissue area. * Involves several daily treatments (fractions) over a few days to a few weeks.
34
How does Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy work?
External Radiation Higher doses of radiation over shorter time.
35
How does Brachytherapy work?
Internal Radiation * Placement of radioactive sources within or immediately next to the cancer site * Intense, highly targeted * Seeds, beads, ribbons placed in body cavities (breasts, testicular etc) , interstitial tissues
36
What are some local side effects of radiation?
Radiation dermatitis, alopecia, xerostomia
37
What are some systemic side effects of radiation?
* Fatigue, malaise, and anorexia * Loss of elasticity in tissue, and changes secondary to a decreased vascular supply * Dysphagia, incontinence, cognitive impairment, and sexual dysfunction
38
What are some nursing assessments that we should be aware of when it comes to patients undergoing radiation therapy?
Manage symptoms to : Promote healing, patient comfort, quality of life. Assessment : * Skin - dermatitis (use mild soap and tepid water, pat skin dry) * Nutritional status : high protein, low fat, small frequent meals. * Well-being : talk about how they're feeling.
39
What are nursing care that we should be performing when it comes to patients undergoing radiation therapy?
Protecting caregivers during brachytherapy * Private room * Appropriate notices, dosimeter badges * Pregnant staff members are not assigned * Restrict visits by children or pregnant women * Limiting visits to 30 minutes/day * Maintain a 6-foot distance
40
What is Chemotherapy?
* Agents used in attempt to destroy cancer cells by interfering with cellular function & replication * Curative, control, or palliative
41
Chemotherapy lowers _______ _________ .
Cell count.
42
How do we determine the dosage for chemotherapy?
Determined by : Body surface area, weight, previous chemotherapy or radiation, function of major organ systems
43
True/False Chemotherapy is always given via IV.
False Can be given orally, rectally & IV.
44
True/False We want to avoid using the peripheral veins of hands and wrists.
True. These veins are too small. Exemption would be as a last resort or very short term.
45
For prolonged chemotherapy we would use :
A central line (PICC)
46
What are Hypersensitivity reactions (HSRs)?
* Unexpected, adverse drug reactions associated with mild or progressively worsening s&s * Repeated exposure increases the likelihood of a reaction
47
What are some ways that we can avoid Hypersensitivity reactions?
* Desensitization procedures may be possible * Premedication
48
Chemotherapy toxicity affects almost all ________ _________.
Body systems.
49
What are the nursing managements associated w/ chemotherapy?
* Assessing fluid, electrolyte status * Assessing cognitive status * Modifying risks for infection, bleeding * Administering chemotherapy * Preventing nausea and vomiting * Managing fatigue * Protecting caregivers : educate on double gloving, flushing toilet twice (48hrs after chemo)
50
What is HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELL TRANSPLANTATION (HSCT) used to treat ?
Malignant myeloma, acute leukemia, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
51
what are the different types of HSCT?
Allogeneic – matched donor - Myeloablative - high dose chemo w/ total body radiation - Nonmyeloablative – less aggressive combination of chemotherapy and/or radiation * Autologous – from patient * Syngeneic – identical twin
52
What is GRAFT-VERSUS-HOST DISEASE (GVHD) ?
* Major cause of morbidity and mortality in the allogeneic transplant population - donated stem cells don't recognize the body that they're in and attack host. * Occurs when the donor lymphocytes initiate an immune response against the recipient's tissues (skin, gastrointestinal tract, liver) during the beginning of engraftment
53
How do we prevent GVHD ?
Patients receive immunosuppressant drugs
54
When is GVHD considered acute and when is it considered chronic?
Acute : within first 100 days Chronic : Occuring after 100 days
55
What does the nursing management of HSCT look like?
* Implementing pre-transplantation care * Providing care during treatment * Close monitoring of VS * Providing post-transplantation care - Caring for recipients - Caring for donors * Hyperthermia
56
How do we perform nursing care of patients w/ cancer? (long answer)
Maintaining tissue integrity * Stomatitis * inflammatory process of the mouth * Radiation-associated impairment of skin integrity * radiation dermatitis * Alopecia * Often temporary unless radiation * Malignant skin lesions * foul-smelling lesions Promoting nutrition * Nutritional impairment * Anorexia * Malabsorption * Cancer-related anorexia-cachexia syndrome Relieving pain Decreasing fatigue Improving body self image
57
What do we need to know regarding infection r/t cancer.
* Cancer and associated medications can alter bodies immune response * Usual signs of infection may not be obvious (temperature) * WBC function is often impaired in patients with cancer * Neutropenia – ANC * Septic shock – monitor for early warning signs * Bleeding, hemorrhage * Thrombocytopenia due to suppressed bone marrow * Platelet destruction
58
what type of surgery is being done when lesions that are removed are likely to develop into cancer? A) Diagnostic B) Palliative C) Prophylactic D) Reconstructive
C - goal is to eliminate potential cancerous cells and reduce the likelihood of cancer.
59
What specific agents or factors are associated with the etiology of cancer? A) Dietary & genetic factors B) Hormonal and Chemical agents C) Viruses D) All of the above
D - All of the above
60
True/False Malignant tumors spread by way of blood and lymph channels to other areas of the body.
True
61
The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America? A) Monthly self-breast exams B) Smoking cessation C) Annual colonoscopies D) Monthly testicular exams
B
62
What nursing action best demonstrates primary cancer prevention? A) Encouraging yearly Pap tests B) Teaching testicular self-examination C) Teaching clients to wear sunscreen D) Facilitating screening mammograms.
C Due to its asking about 'PREVENTION'' and not detection. .
63
A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female client for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the client's family and friends? A) Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case there's a negative outcome. B) Make sure she doesn't eat any food in the 24 hrs before the procedure C) Wear a hospital gown when you go into the client's room D) Do not visit if you've had a recent infection.
D
64
The nurse is caring for a client has just been given a 3-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive small-cell lung cancer. The client states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the clients care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might the nurse suggest as an alternative? A) Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital B) Panel the client for a personal care home C) Discuss referral for acute care D) Discuss a referral for hospice care.
D
65
An adult with leukemia will soon begin chemotherapy, what should the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effect of chemo? Administer an: A) Antiemetic B) Antimetabolite C) Tumor antibiotic D) Anticoagulant
A - Due to nausea and vomiting.
66
While a client is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action? A) Stop the infusion drug immediately B) Notify the client's physician C) Continue the infusion but decrease the rate D) Apply a warm compress to the infusion site.
A
67
True/False There is a definitive cure for breast cancer.
False.
68
Increased breast cancer risk is associated w/ __________.
Age
69
Mortality of breast cancer is linked w/ ___________.
Socioeconomic status - Access to healthcare and education.
70
Apart from age, what are some other risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer?
* Obesity, high fat diet, high ETOH * Some evidence of long term smoking prior to 1st pregnancy & night shift work.
71
What are some things that are NO associated w/ increased risk of developing breast cancer.
* Breast implants * Antiperspirants * underwire bra * Abortion * Oral contraceptives
72
What is recommended for individuals w/ a high risk of developing breast cancer in terms of early detection?
MRI & Yearly Mammogram CLinical breast exams x2/yr from 25 y.o for high risk.
73
________ % of breast cancer cases occur sporadically without any family history.
80 %
74
What are the two drugs being used for chemoprevention of breast cancer?
Tamoxifen & Raloxifene.
75
What is prophylactic mastectomy?
A prophylactic mastectomy (also called a preventive mastectomy) is a surgical procedure to remove one or both breasts in order to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer.
76
Why may chose to have a prophylactic mastectomy?
Individuals with a high genetic risk (e.g., carrying BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations) Strong family history of breast cancer History of lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) or atypical hyperplasia Previous cancer in one breast (may choose to remove the other as a preventive measure)
77
What are the clinical manifestations of breast cancer?
* Can occur anywhere in the breast but usually in the upper outer quadrant. * Non-tender lesions, fixed, hard w/ irregular borders
78
What are the advanced signs of breast cancer?
Skin dimpling Nipple retraction (inward) Skin ulceration
79
When is the best time to perform self breast examination?
5-7 days after menses.
80
After the age of 45, how often should you have a mammogram done?
Q1y
81
What are some ways mammograms can be performed?
Digital & 3D Contrast Ultrasound MRI Tissue Analysis - Needle or core biopsy.
82
What are the different ways we can do tissue analysis?
Fine-needle aspiration Core needle biopsy Stereotactic core biopsy Ultrasound guided biopsy MRI core biopsy
83
Explain the procedure of Fine-needle aspiration.
Syringe and suction on palpable nodules.
84
Explain the procedure of Core needle biopsy.
Similar to fine needle but larger gauge needle.
85
Explain the procedure of Stereotactic core biopsy.
Patient prone & computer to locate tumor.
86
Explain the procedure of Ultrasound guided core biopsy.
Used ultrasound to locate tumor
87
Explain the procedure of MRI core biopsy.
Used when the tumor is too small to be felt.
88
What is an excisional biopsy?
Also called Lumpectomy Removal of entire mass plus margin surrounding tissue.
89
What is an incisional biopsy?
Surgical removal of a portion of a mass to confirm diagnosis and determine treatment.
90
What is wire needle localization?
Prior to surgery, a wire is placed under the tumor with the help of radiography. This is to identify the exact location of the mass.
91
What is the acronym used for staging tumors?
TNM T – Tumor: Describes the size and extent of the primary tumor N – Node: Indicates whether the regional lymph nodes are involved M – Metastasis: Refers to whether the cancer has spread to distant site
92
What are the 3 factors that determine a patients prognosis?
Tumor Size If it has spread to lymph nodes Certain genes (ERBB2)
93
What is modified radical mastectomy?
Removal of breast tissue including nipple/areola complex as well as a portion of the axillary lymph node (ALND)
94
What is ALND / Axillary Lymph Node Dissection?
ALND is a surgical procedure in which multiple lymph nodes are removed from the axilla (armpit area) to determine whether breast cancer has spread to the lymphatic system.
95
What is a total masectomy?
REmoval of breast & nipple/areola complex but does not include ALND.
96
What is a breast conservation treatment?
Excise only the tumor on the breast completely & obtain clear margins.
97
Who are the breast conservation treatment contraindicated for?
For patients w/ multiple tumors on more than one quadrant.
98
What is a sentinel node biopsy & axillary lymph node dissection?
Less invasive than ALND. Standard treatment in early stage breast cancer.
99
What is a sentinel node?
The first node in the chain.
100
What are some non-surgical treatments to target breast cancer?
Radiation Chemo Hormonal therapy Targeted Therapy
101
What are some hormonal therapies for breast cancer?
* Estrogen and progesterone receptor assay * Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)— tamoxifen * Aromatase inhibitors
102
What are Estrogen and progesterone receptor assay ?
An estrogen and progesterone receptor assay is a lab test performed on a sample of breast cancer tissue to determine whether the cancer cells have receptors for estrogen and/or progesterone—hormones that can promote the growth of some breast cancers.
103
What is the purpose of Estrogen and progesterone receptor assay ?
To find out if hormones (estrogen or progesterone) are helping the cancer grow.
104
What are Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) ?
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) are a class of drugs that bind to estrogen receptors and act as either estrogen agonists or antagonists, depending on the tissue.
105
What is an example of a Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) ?
tamoxifen
106
What are Aromatase inhibitors?
Aromatase inhibitors are a class of drugs used primarily in the treatment of estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) breast cancer in postmenopausal women. Block the enzyme aromatase, which converts androgens (from the adrenal glands) into estrogen in peripheral tissues. Reduce estrogen levels, thereby slowing or stopping the growth of hormone-dependent breast cancer cells
107
how can we minimize the risk of Hypersensitive reaction r/t chemotherapy?
Premedicate the patient w/ corticosteroids and antihistamines.
108
What are some ways that we can instil infection prevention r/t chemo?
* VS q4 * Monitor temp * Private rooms * Hand hygiene * Stool softeners * Change water daily *Avoid urinary catheters
109
Why would we give stool softeners for infection prevention?
We don't want patients staining and develop microfissures.
110
What might be the only sign of infection in cancer/chemo patients?
Fever
111
With what temperature would we notify the provider?
One-time temperature of 38.3°C (101°F) or Any temperature of ≥38°C (100.4°F) or ≥1 h
112
Explain Hyperthermia treatment for cancer.
Hyperthermia is a type of cancer treatment in which body tissue is exposed to high temperatures (usually 104–113°F or 40–45°C) to damage and kill cancer cells or make them more sensitive to other treatments.
113
What is local hyperthermia treatment?
Targets a small area (e.g., a single tumor). Heat applied externally or internally via probes, microwave, ultrasound, or radiofrequency.
114
What is regional hyperthermia treatment?
Heats larger areas of tissue (e.g., limb, organ, or body cavity). Often used with chemotherapy in limb sarcomas or peritoneal cancers.
115
What is whole body hyperthermia treatment?
Used for metastatic cancer. Patient’s body temperature is elevated using warm blankets or perfusion devices.
116
what is Myelosuppression?
Myelosuppression is a condition in which the bone marrow's ability to produce blood cells is decreased, leading to a reduction in one or more blood cell types, typically WBC neutrophils which helps fight infection.
117
What is the most common cause of Myelosuppression?
Chemotherapy.
118
What type of problem in the mouth is common in chemotherapy patients?
Stomatitis
119
What patient care is important in patients with Stomatitis?
Mouth care - Avoid alcohol containing mouthwash. Use sodium bicarbonate mouth rinse instead.
120
What is a complication of stomatitis?
Lack of fluid and food intake due to pain in the mouth.
121
Which type of therapy makes cancer cells more sensitive to radiation or chemotherapy?
Hyperthermia therapy
122
What is GVHD?
Graft-versus-host disease, where donor cells attack recipient tissues
123
What is a major cause of death in myelosuppressed patients?
Infection
124
What is the function of external beam radiation therapy?
It delivers high-energy radiation beams from outside the body to target tumors
125
Give an example of an aromatase inhibitor.
Letrozole
126
Why is private room recommended for neutropenic patients?
To reduce risk of infection
127
List a common side effect of radiation therapy.
Radiation dermatitis
128
What are SERMs like tamoxifen used for?
Treating and preventing hormone receptor-positive breast cancer
129
What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors in terms of growth?
Benign tumors grow by expansion without infiltrating nearby tissues, while malignant tumors invade surrounding tissues
130
What is cancer cachexia?
A syndrome involving weight loss, muscle wasting, and appetite loss
131
What is the function of tamoxifen?
Blocks estrogen receptors in breast tissue
132
Which nursing action is important in managing fatigue from chemotherapy?
Encourage rest periods and energy conservation
133
What test confirms a breast tumor diagnosis?
Core needle biopsy
134
When should breast self-exams be performed?
5 to 7 days after menses
135
How is chemotherapy dose determined?
Based on body surface area and organ function
136
What does the 'T' in TNM staging stand for?
Tumor size and local invasion
137
What is the primary purpose of a biopsy in cancer diagnosis?
To obtain tissue for histologic analysis and determine tumor type and grade
138
What are two examples of secondary cancer prevention?
* Screening * Early detection activities
139
Which receptor assay helps determine breast cancer treatment?
Estrogen and progesterone receptor assay
140
What is a common site for breast cancer tumors?
Upper outer quadrant of the breast
141
Which cancer warning sign involves the skin?
Obvious change in a wart or mole
142
Which dietary factor increases cancer risk?
Consumption of nitrate-containing foods
143
Which enzyme do aromatase inhibitors block?
Aromatase
144
What kind of cancer is curable with radiation alone?
Thyroid cancer
145
What PPE should nurses use when handling chemotherapy waste?
* Double gloves * Face shield * Protective gown
146
What is the role of T-cell lymphocytes in cancer?
They help recognize and destroy abnormal cancer cells
147
What is extravasation in chemotherapy?
Leakage of chemotherapy drugs from the vein into surrounding tissue, causing damage
148
What hormone therapy is used in postmenopausal breast cancer?
Aromatase inhibitors
149
Name one complication of HSCT.
Graft-versus-host disease
150
What is a contraindication for breast-conserving surgery?
Multiple tumors in more than one quadrant
151
What are the three stages of carcinogenesis?
* Initiation * Promotion * Progression
152
What does SLNB stand for?
Sentinel lymph node biopsy
153
What is allogeneic stem cell transplantation?
Transplantation using stem cells from a matched donor
154
What symptom may be the only sign of infection in a neutropenic patient?
Fever
155
What type of chemotherapy toxicity affects white blood cells?
Hematopoietic toxicity
156
What type of mastectomy involves lymph node dissection?
Modified radical mastectomy
157
What is the ANC threshold for neutropenia?
Less than 1,500 cells/mm³
158
Which surgical biopsy removes the entire mass?
Excisional biopsy
159
What imaging tool is used in stereotactic core biopsy?
Computer-assisted imaging
160
What temperature is used in hyperthermia cancer treatment?
Up to 113°F
161
Which condition results from a low platelet count?
Thrombocytopenia
162
Name two lifestyle-related carcinogenic factors.
* Obesity * Sedentary lifestyle
163
What is the nadir in chemotherapy?
The lowest point of absolute neutrophil count (ANC) after treatment
164
What is the role of the nurse during brachytherapy?
Limit exposure and follow radiation safety protocols
165
What is primary cancer prevention?
Reducing risk through health promotion and risk reduction
166
Which virus is associated with cervical cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
167
Name a diagnostic imaging method used to detect metastasis.
PET scan
168
What is brachytherapy?
Internal radiation therapy that places radioactive sources next to or within the tumor
169
What is a late complication of radiation to the head/neck?
Xerostomia (dry mouth)
170
What are the three goals of cancer care?
* Cure * Control * Palliation
171
Extravasation can happen when we give patients IV Chemo. what is Extravasation, and how do we look out for it?
The leakage of a vesicant medication or solution (one that can cause tissue damage) from a vein into the surrounding tissue during IV infusion It can cause pain, swelling, redness, blistering, and tissue necrosis Immediate action is required to stop the infusion, aspirate the drug if possible, and follow specific antidote protocols.
172