Oncology Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

What are the most common cancers to cause SVCO?

A

75% - Lung (most commonly non-small cell, also SCLC)
15% - Lymphoma (most commonly Hodgkin’s)
10% - Secondary LNs

Other causes:
aortic aneurysm
mediastinal fibrosis
goitre
SVC thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical features of SVCO?

A
• Dyspnoea, cough, chest pain at rest
• Swelling + redness – neck, face, arm
• Dizziness
• Headache
• Disturbed vision
• Nausea
• Syncope
Worsened by posture (leaning forward) or lifting arms above head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Investigations for SVCO?

A
  • CXR – widening mediastinum/mass on R
  • CT/Doppler/MRI
  • Bronchoscopy/mediastinoscopy – useful in demonstrating primary cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of SVCO?

A

Acute Mx
• Positional changes, oxygen
• Corticosteroids (dexamethasone) and diuretics – attempt to reduce CO and oedema

  • Radiotherapy – often a primary diagnosis is sought beforehand
  • Chemotherapy

Surgical – benign cause
• Stenting +/- angioplasty
• Surgical bypass of obstruction – occasionally indicated

Surgical – malignant cause
• Stenting
• Reconstructive surgery
• If reconstruction not possible, insertion of prosthesis may be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which cancers is EBV associated with?

A

Hodgkin’s and Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which cancers are associated with HTLV-1?

A

Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cancers are associated with HIV-1?

A

High-grade B-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cancers are associated with malaria?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which gene is responsible for Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two different forms of Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

1) Endemic (African) form – typically involves maxilla/mandible
2) Sporadic form – abdominal tumours most common, more common in HIV pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would you see on LN biopsy in Burkitt’s?

A

‘starry sky’ appearance

macrophages within B cells look white and star-like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How to manage Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Chemotherapy – watch out for tumour lysis syndrome (give rasburicase before chemo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What triggers tumour lysis syndrome?

A

usually triggered by the introduction of chemotherapy to pts with leukaemias/lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What occurs in tumour lysis syndrome?

A

The breakdown of tumour cells and the subsequent release of cell chemicals (uric acid, K+, PO4)
This may lead to uric acid and calcium phosphate crystals deposits in the renal tubules -> may cause AKI
(also have hypocalcaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How would you manage patients at high risk of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

give IV allopurinol/rasburicase immediately prior to/during the first days of chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

IV fluids

Rasburicase

17
Q

What is Adult T-cell leukaemia?

A

Rare Ca (30 people Dx in UK/yr)
Type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Affects people who have the HTLV-1 virus

18
Q

Top 5 most common cancers?

A
  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Colorectal
  4. Prostate
  5. Bladder
19
Q

Top 5 most common deaths from cancers?

A
  1. Lung
  2. Colorectal
  3. Breast
  4. Prostate
  5. Pancreas
20
Q

What is S-100 a tumour marker for?

A

Melanoma, schwannomas

21
Q

What is Bombesin a tumour marker for?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma

22
Q

What is the MOA of rasburicase?

A

converts uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water-soluble than uric acid and is, therefore, more easily excreted by the kidneys.

23
Q

When does tumour lysis syndrome usually occur?

A

Usually occurs within 3/7 before or 7/7 after chemo

24
Q

Which viruses (3)/bacteria (1)/protozoa (1) predispose to which cancers?

A

Viruses
EBV: Hodgkin’s and Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma
HTLV-1: Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
HIV-1: High-grade B-cell lymphoma

Bacteria
Helicobacter pylori: gastric lymphoma (MALT)

Protozoa
malaria: Burkitt’s lymphoma

25
Infection with which virus is implicated in the pathogenesis of Burkitt's lymphoma?
EBV infection
26
Exposure to which toxin increases your risk of HCC?
Aflatoxin
27
Exposure to which toxin increases your risk of gastric/oesophageal Ca?
Nitrosamine
28
Exposure to which toxin increases your risk of TCC?
Aniline dye
29
Exposure to which toxin increases your risk of lung Ca/liver angiosarcoma?
Arsenic
30
Exposure to which toxin increases your risk of leukaemia?
Benzene
31
Most common symptoms of SVCO?
Dyspnoea
32
Antiemetics in chemo use?
Low-risk: metoclopramide | High-risk: 5HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone
33
What does a PET scan demonstrate?
Glucose uptake
34
What can be used to treat NEUTROPAENIA in patients undergoing chemo?
Filgrastim - granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)