Oncology Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

vincristine, etoposide, oxaliplatin and paclitaxel are all recognised to cause neuropathy, oxaliplatin causes a classic acute sensory neuropathy that is aggravated by cold. It is thought to result from a specific interaction of oxaliplatin with voltage-gated sodium channels.

A
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2
Q

What is the leading cause of death in testicular cancer survivors?

A

Second primary cancers
- atleast 2 x increase risk of developing solid tumours
- persists at least 30yrs post treatment

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3
Q

Idosfamide

A

Synthetic structural isomer of Cyclophosphamide
- used in germ cell testicular cancer and some sarcomas

**Nephrotoxicity due to direct tubular injury **is a prominent complication

Tubular dysfunction:
- glucosuria
- Aminoaciduria
- proteinuria (LMW protein)
- increase in beta2microglobulin excretion
- DI –> polyuria

  • Hypophosphatemia: reduced prox. tubular reabsorption
  • Hypokalaemia due to wasting
  • NAGMA

Can also:
- reduce GFR

Nephrotoxicity due to ifos is due cumulative dose, age <4

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4
Q

Cetuximab

A

EGFR inhibitor
- beneficial with **BRAF/KRAS Wt and LEFT sided disease **

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5
Q

p53 staining in BRCA1 can

A

all or nothing

patchy is uncommon

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6
Q

role of VHL in normal physiology

A

suppression of HIF. HIF normally promotes angiogenesis and cell growth in hypoxic state

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7
Q

Which phase does bleomycin act on

A

G2

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8
Q

BRCA and ovarian ca

A
  • All women diagnosed with non mucinous epithelial ovarian carcinoma before the age of 70 should be tested for BRCA1 and 2
  • BRCA 2 confers a better prognosis with ovarian cancer, BRCA1 also likely does but the evidence is not as strong - this is also reflected in the effectiveness of novel PARP inhibitors.
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9
Q

standard 5-fu treatment is not effective in patients with mismatch repair deficient Colorectal cancers

A

TRUE

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10
Q

MMR colorectal cancer

A

commonly right-sided disease, mucinous Histology,
poor differentiation and lymphocytic infiltration

The majority cause MMR deficiency is due to methylation of that MLH1 gene as opposed to a germline mutations.

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11
Q

BRAF mutation in melanoma

A

more common in younger people with limited sun exposure

80% of patients in BRAF inhibitors for melanoma will develop resistance due to MAPK reactivation. One way to avoid this resistance is to combine BRAF inhibitors with MEK inhibitors.

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12
Q

“metinib”

A

MEK inhibtors

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13
Q

What is the treatment for central and peripheral hiccups in palliative pt

A

Baclofen

Metoclopramide

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14
Q

CTLA-4 inhibitors

A

Gastric toxicity

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15
Q

PD-1 inhibitor

A

endocrine

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16
Q

Gastric cancers, what’s the most commmon type?

A

Adeno

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16
Q

Gastric cancers, what’s the most commmon type?

A

Adeno

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17
Q

Most common location of gastric cancers

A

cardia then antrum

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18
Q

Hiccups are a side effect of which antemetic?

A

Aprepitant

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19
Q

Side effects of bevacizumab?

A

hypertension, proteinuria, arterial thromboembolic events and bleeding

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20
Q

Which agents affect the S-phase

A

MTX, 5FU, Gemcitabine

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21
Q

Majority of BRCA2 breast ca are

A

ER+ve

MRI screening is generally used in patients with prior radiotherapy/treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma as well as those with familial breast cancer syndromes.

Cyclin dependant kinases promote transition from G1 to S phase in cell cycle. CDK4 and 6 inhibitors such as palbociclib are used in the treatment of **hormone receptor positive metastatic breast cancer. **

The majority of breast cancer in males is estrogen receptor and androgen receptor positive.

22
Q

Anti Tr

A

Hodgkin’s disease

23
Q

Anti hu/zic4

24
Which factors worsens prognosis in Stage IV renal cell cancer?
* Karnofsky Performance Status (KPS) <80 * Time from original diagnosis to initiation of targeted therapy <1 year * Hemoglobin less than the lower limit of normal * Serum calcium greater than the upper limit of normal * Neutrophil count greater than the upper limit of normal * Platelet count greater than the upper limit of normal
25
SE of crizotinib?
QT prolongation Neutropenia Visual changes Fluid retention Pulm. toxicity Change in bowel habit hepatotoxicity fatigue
26
Enzalutamide
pure androgen receptor signalling inhibitor which is used and castrate resistant prostate carcinoma SE: HTN Fatigue Seizures SOB Cognitive impairment
27
braf v600e mutation in colorectal cancers suggests
sporadic mutations
28
What's the typical feature of breast cancer mets
Mostly lytic 25% can be mixed
29
how does paroxetine and fluoxetine affect tamoxifen?
They are CYP2D6 inhibitors, thus reduces transformation of tamoxifen to active metabolite endoxifen.
30
Which chemo may cause radiation recall reaction?
Daunorubicin
31
RAdiation induced lung injury
radiation pneumonitis 4-12wks non productive cough, exertinal dypnsoea, low grade fever, chest pain, malaise, weight loss crackles or pleural rub
32
Absolute CI to breast conservation surgery
1. Persistent positive resection margin after reasonable re-excision attempts 2. 2 or more primary tumour in separate breast quadrants 3. Diffuse malignant appearing mammographic microcalcification 4. A history of prior RT to the breast or chest wall 5. Pregnancy, although possible to perform BCT in 3rd trimester, deferring RT until after delivery
33
RF for RCC
- Analgesic nephropathy - Leather tanners - Cadmium - Thorotrast - Acquired cystic disease - VHL - Smoking, HTN, Obesity
34
Sunitinib
1st line for metastatic renal cell cancer - TKI inhibitor that inhibits VEDFR, PDGFR, c-Kit (CD117), FLT-3 - HTN is a good prognosticator for response to sunitinib
35
women have higher risk for developing lung cancer for a given level of exposure to smoke than men true or false
true
36
Lung adenocarcinoma - associated familial mutations
EGFR ALK
37
Smoking increases the risk of mesothelioma True or false
False
38
what does fixed inspiratory wheeze indicate?
bronchial obstruction by tumour
39
which nerve palsy causes hoarseness?
REcurrent laryngeal
40
Which lung cancers are implicated in SVC obstruction
Sq.CC SCLC
41
Paraneoplastic endocrine sx with lung cancer
Sq. CC: PTHrP, insulin like activity SCLC: ADH, ACTH, Carcinoid sx, ELM Anti-hu
42
Location and lung cancers
PEripheral - adeno Central lesion with obstructive pneumonitis: SqCC Mediastinal/Hilar mass: SCLC Alveolar infiltrate: bronchoalveolar Cavitation DOES NOT occur in SCLC
43
What features on CT would suggest benign COIN LESION
Central or lamellar calcifications
44
When are PET scan useful in lung ca
when lesion >1cm
45
FEV1 requirement for pneumonectomy
FEV1 >1.5L DLCO >80% ## Footnote - <80% --> exercise testing --> Peak VO2 <35% --> resection not recommended Peak Vo2 >75 --> pneumonectomy
46
what is the most common symptom of lung ca
persistent cough followed by breathlessness
47
what do you do for immunotoxicity grade 3 that doesn't respond to methylpred?
Infliximab or vedolizumab
48
cisplatin ototoxicity
second most common SE of cisplatin dose dependent high frequency sensorineural hearing loss with tinnitus - target outer hair cells in the organ of Corti and vascularised epithelium in the lateral wall of the cochlea
49
which cancers contribute mostly to bone mets
Lung, breast, prostate Prostate is blastic
50
how does calcitonin help yo improve hypercalcaemia in cancer
shift calcium out of the intravascular space
51
RF associated with TLS
- rapidly dividing cells - bulk of disease is high - good response to tx - pre-exsiting renal impairment or dehydration - High serum LDH - high WCC
52
which chemotherapy agents are associated with hand-foot syndrome?
5FU, docetaxel
53
RF for developing prostate cancers
Age >50-65 Ethnicity: black >white, black: early and aggressive FHx BRCA1/BRCA2: more aggressive form Smoking