Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oncology > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Define

Carcinoma

A

Cancer that starts in skin or in the tissues that line or cover internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define

Multiple Myeloma

A

A type of bone marrow cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define

Sarcoma

A

Cancer in connective tissues including:

  • fat
  • muscle
  • blood vessels
  • bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the worst

A

Melanoma

Other types of skin cancer: Basal Cell and Squamous Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define

Adjuvant

A

Treatment given AFTER the primary therapy or CONCURRENT with other therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define

Neoadjuvant

A

Treatment given BEFORE the primary therapy to shrink the size of the tumor and make surgery more effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Bleomycin lifetime Max dose?

Why?

A

400 units

Pulmonary toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Doxorubicin lifetime Max dose?

Why?

A

450-550 mg/m^2

Cardiotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Cisplatin max dose/cycle?

Why?

A

100 mg/m^2

Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Vincristine single dose cap?

Why?

A

2 mg

Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drug prevents cardiac damage while taking Doxorubicin

aka: Adjunctive treatment

A

Dexrazoxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which chemo agents do NOT cause Myelosuppression (decrease in bone marrow activity = fewer RBC, WBC, and platelets)

A
  • Asparaginase
  • Bleomycin
  • Vincristine
  • MABs (Monocolonal Antibodies)
  • TKIs (Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 common chemo agents that cause N/V

A
  • Cisplatin
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Ifosfamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 common chemo agents that cause Mucositis

A
  • MTX

- Fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 common chemo agents that cause Diarrhea

A
  • Irinotecan
  • Capecitabine
  • Fluorouracil
  • MTX
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for Irinotecan early onset diarreha

A

Atropine

for Irinotecan only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Common chemo agent that causes Constipation

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 common chemo agents that cause QT prolongation

A
  • Arsenic trioxide

- TKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 common chemo agents that cause pulmonary fibrosis

A
  • Bleomycin
  • Busulfan
  • Carmustine
  • Iomustine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common chemo agent class that causes hepatoxicity

A

antiandrogens:

  • Bicalutmaide
  • Flutamide
  • Nilutamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

2 common chemo agents that cause nephrotoxicity

A
  • Cisplatin

- HD-MTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug is given with Cisplatin to prevent nephrotixicity?

A

Amifostine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 common chemo agents that cause hemorrhagic cystitis

A
  • Ifosfamide

- Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drug is given with Ifosfamide and Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?

aka: Adjunctive treatment

A

Mesna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 chemo classes that cause neuropathy

A

Vinca Alkaloids

  • Vincristine
  • Vinblasstine
  • Vinorelbine

Platinums

  • Cisplatin
  • Oxaliplatin

Taxanes

  • Paclitaxel
  • Docetaxel
  • Cabazitaxel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Major ADE of Oxaliplatin

A

Causes cold-mediated sensory neuropathy

So…. pt. should avoid cold temperatures and cold beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fluorouracil common adjuvant

A

Leucovorin to increase efficacy as a cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fluorouracil or Capecitabine antidote

aka: Adjunctive treatment

A

Uridine Triacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define Nadir

A

The lowest point that WBCs and platelets reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does nadir occur

A

7-14 days after chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When will WBC and platelets return to normal after chemo?

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define neutropenia

A

ANC < 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define Severe Neutropenia

A

ANC < 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define profund neutropenia

A

ANC < 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Colony Stimulating Factors (GSF)

MOA and Agents

A

MOA: stimulate the production of WBCs in the bone marrow

Agents:
- Filgrastim (G-CSF)

  • Pegflgrastim (pegylated G-CSF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to dx Febrile Neutropenia

A

Fever > 101

ANC < 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which bacteria have the highest risk for causing sepsis in Febrile Neutropenia

A

**Gram Negative

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Treatment for febrile neutropenia if patient is low-risk

A

Anti-pseudomonal:

  • Cipro + Augmentin
  • Cipro ± Clindamycin
  • Levofloxacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment for Febrile Neutropenia if patient is High-risk

A

IV anti-pseudomonal beta-lactams:

  • Cefepime
  • Ceftazidime
  • Meropenem
  • Imipenem-cilastin
  • Zosyn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Normal Hgb level

A

12-16 females

13.5-18 men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When are Platelet transfusions recommended in cause of Thrombocytopenia?

A

When the count falls below 10,000

42
Q

Patient factors which increase N/V

A
  • Female
  • < 50
  • Dehydration
  • History of motion sickness
  • History of N/V
43
Q

Treatment for Delayed N/V

aka. N/V > 24 hours after chemotherapy

A

Netupitant + Palonosetron (Akynzeo)

44
Q

Is Cisplatin a high or low emetic risk drug

A

High

45
Q

List 5-HT3-RA anti-emetic drugs

A
  • Ondansetron
  • Granisetron
  • Dolasetron
  • Palonosetron
46
Q

List NK1-RA anti-emetic drugs

A

Ends in -pitant

  • Fosaprepitant
  • Aprepitant
  • Rolapitant
47
Q

Treatment for high-emetic risk regimens

A
  • NK1-RA + 5HT-3-RA + dexamethasone
  • NK1-RA + 5HT-3-RA + Olanzapine + dexamethasone
  • Olanzapine + Palonosetron + dexamethasone
48
Q

Treatment for moderate-emetic risk regimens

A

NK1-RA + 5HT-3-RA + Dexamethasone
5HT3-RA + Dexamehtasone
Netupitant/palonosetrn(Akynzeo) + Dexamethasone
Olanzapine + palonosetron + Dexamethasone

49
Q

Treatment for low-emetic risk regimens

A

no NK1-RA

5HT3-RA
Dexamethasone
Prochlorperazine
Metoclopramide

50
Q

MOA of NK1-RA anti-emetics

A

Inhibit the substance P/neurokinin 1 receptor, therefore augmenting the antiemetic activity of 5HT3 receptor antagonists and corticosteroids to inhibit acute and delayed phases of CINV

51
Q

List dopamine receptor antagonists anti-emetic drugs

A

Prochlorperazine
Promethazine
Metoclopramide
Olanzapine

52
Q

Which 2 chemo drugs cause Hand-foot syndrome aka palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia (PPE)

A
  • Capecitabine

- Fluorouracil

53
Q

Treatment for tumor lysis syndrome

A
  • Allopurinol

- Rasburicase

54
Q

Antidote for:

  • Vinca Alkaloid
  • Etoposide Extravasation
A

Hyaluronidase

55
Q

ABCDE of skin cancer

A 
Asymmetry
Border; edges irregular
Color; not same consistency
Diameter; > 6 mm
Evolving
56
Q

What is the function of the BRCA1 and BRC2 genes

A

Normally suppress tumor growth

57
Q

Define Klinefelter syndrome

A

A syndrome where men have one Y chromosome and 2 or more X chromosomes leading to:

  • increased estrogen
  • increased risk for breast cancer
58
Q

Breast cancer treatment for hormone sensitive (ER+) in premenopausal women

A

Tamoxifen

59
Q

Tamoxifen MOA

A

Binds to estrogen receptors on tumors, preventing estrogen from binding to the receptors “SERM”

60
Q

Estrogen source in PREmenopausal and POSTmenopausal women

A

PRE: estrogen from produced estrodiol

POST: conversion of androgen to estrogen via aromatase enzymes

61
Q

Aromatase inhibitor MOA

A

Block the aromatase enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the peripheral tissue in order to get estradiol

(which is what happens in postmenopausal women because they can no longer make their own estrogen)

62
Q

Breast cancer treatment for hormone sensitive (ER+) in postmenopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitors

63
Q

Raloxifen Class and Indication

A

SERM
Used for Breast cancer prophylaxis NOT for treatment

Note: It increases bone density and indicated for osteoporosis

64
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist MOA

A

Decreases LH and FSH which suppresses ovarian estradiol production thus putting a premenopausal women into menopause

and now an Aromatase Inhibitor can be used at this time as well

65
Q

Define oncogene

Example of an oncogene

A

A protein that can turn a normal cell into a cancer cell

HER2 gen: An oncogene that promotes breast tumor growth

66
Q

List SERMs used in breast cancer

A
  • Tamoxifen
  • Fulvestrant
  • Raloxifene
67
Q

ADE of a SERM

A

Hot flashes

Night sweats

68
Q

What treatment to use for hot flashes if someone has breast cancer

A

Normally estrogen, but this can’t be used in breast cancer

Instead use Venlafaxine

69
Q

Boxed warning for SERMs

A

Increased risk of uterine/endometrial cancer

Increased risk of thromboembolic events

70
Q

List Aromatase Inhibitors

A
  • Anastrozole
  • Letrozole
  • Exemestane
71
Q

2 major risks of using aromatase inhibitors

ADE

A

Osteoporosis
CVD

Hot flashes
Night sweats
Arthralgia/Myalgia (joint and muscle aches)

72
Q

Primary treatment mechanism of Prostate cancer

A

Block testosterone via:

Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) aka chemical castration

Gondadotropin releasing hormone agonist (GnRH)

  • Leuprolide
  • Gosrelin
73
Q

MOA of Alkylating

A

Cross-linking DNA strands and inhibiting protein synthesis and DNA synthesis

74
Q

List Alkylating agents

A
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Ifosfamide
  • Carmustine
  • Busulfan
75
Q

ADE of Busulfan

A

Pulmonary toxicity

76
Q

Platinum-based compounds MOA

A

Cross-link DNA and interfere with DNA synthesis and cell replication

77
Q

Platinum-based compounds agents

A
  • Cisplatin
  • Carboplatin
  • Oxaliplatin
78
Q

Antracyclines MOA

A

Incalation into DNA
Inhibiting topoisomerase 2
Creating oxygen free radicals that damage cells

79
Q

List Antracyclines

A
  • Doxorubicin

- Mitoxantrone

80
Q

Unique concern for Mitoxantrone

A

Blue urine discoloration

81
Q

Vinca Alkaloids MOA

A

Inhibit function of microtubules during M phase

82
Q

Major ADE of vinca alkaloids

A

Peripheral sensory and autonomic neuropathies b/c microtubules play an important role in transport in neurons

83
Q

List Vinca alkaloids

A
  • Vincristine

- Vinblastine

84
Q

Vincristine vs. Vinblastine major toxicities

A
  • vinCristine: CNS toxicity

- vinBlastine: Bone marrow suppression

85
Q

What happens if you give vinca alkaloids intrathecally

A

Paralysis and Death

86
Q

MOA of Taxanes

A

Inhibit the function of microtubules during the M phase

87
Q

List taxanes

A
  • Paclitaxel

- Docetaxel

88
Q

Major boxed warning for Taxanes

A

Severe hypersensitivity reactions due to the solvent (Cremophor EL)

89
Q

MOA of Topoisomerase 1 inhibitors

A

Block the coiling and uncoiling of the double stranded DNA helix during S phase; causes single and double strand breaks in DNA and prevents religation (sealing the DNA strands back together)

90
Q

List topoisomerase 1 inhibitors

A
  • Irinotecan

- Topotecan

91
Q

Topoisomerase 2 inhibitors MOA

A

Block the coiling and uncoiling of double-stranded DNA during the G2 phase; this causes single and double strand breaks in the DNA and prevents religation

92
Q

Topoisomerase 2 inhibitors agents

A
  • Etoposide

- Bleomycin

93
Q

Pyrimidine analog antimetabolites MOA

A

Inhibit pyrimidine synthesis during S phase; an active metabolite (F-UMP) is incorporated into RNA to replace uracil and inhibits cell growth, while another active metabolite (5-dUMP) inhibits thymidylate synthetase

94
Q

Pyrimidine analog antimetabolites agents

A
  • Fluorouracil
  • Capecitabine
  • Cytarabine
  • Gemcitabine
95
Q

Folate antimetabolites MOA

A

Interfere with the enzymes involved in the folic acid cycle, blocking purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis during S phase

96
Q

Major ADE of folate antimetabolites

A

Nephrotoxicty

97
Q

List folate antimetabolites

A
  • MTX

- Pemetrexed

98
Q

Bevacizumab MOA

A

VEGF inhibitor

99
Q

Trastuzumab MOA

A

HER2 inhibitor

100
Q

In the treatment of Anemia in cancer patients, can ESA be used? Why or Why not?

A

Rarely used because it can decrease survival and increase tumor progression.

It is only used in patient’s with non curative intent

Oncology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions