Online Med Ed Wrongs Flashcards

(108 cards)

1
Q

Barretts esophagus histologically changes from normal tissue of the esophagus to tissue in the duodenum. What tissue will be seen histologically?

A

columnar epithelium

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2
Q

What are the “alarm” sx of GERD?

A

weight loss, emesis, dysphagia

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3
Q

What test do you skip to if the patient presents with alarm sx?

A

EGD

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4
Q

What is the treatment for someone with long time GERD and Barretts that has ANY amount of dysplasia?

A

Endoscopic destruction of the lesion

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5
Q

Which type of antihypertensive drugs can cause hypokalemia?

A

thiazide diuretics (and loop)

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6
Q

What type of anticoagulation do you use to prevent stroke in someone with AFIB?

A

warfarin

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7
Q

What are you wanting to increase in someone with right sided infarct? (II, V, avF)?

A

preload (give IV fluids)

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8
Q

Which drugs cause hypokalemia (and can be useful in patients with hyperkalemia)?

A
  • beta agonists (albuterol)
    • increases K+ uptake by cells
  • Insulin
    • enhances Na/K/ATPase pump with glucose
  • loop diuretics (furosemide)
    • inhibits Na/K/Cl pump in Loop of Henle
  • intestinal cation exchange resins
  • alkalinaizing agents (sodium bicarbonate)
    • increases serum pH causing potassium, shift into cells
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9
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary nephrotic syndrome?

A

DM

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10
Q

What is the most likely complication of nephrotic syndrome?

A

venous thrombosis

(due to hypercoagulable state)

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11
Q

Why do you get edema with nephrotic syndrome?

A

proteins (albumin) are lost in the urine and the oncotic pressure is decreased in the CV system–>edema

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12
Q

How is nephrotic syndrome defined?

A

>3.5 grams collected in a 24 hour urine protein collection

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13
Q

What are 5 complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  1. protein malnutrition
  2. hypovolemia
  3. acute kidney injury
  4. infection
  5. thromboembolism
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14
Q

Unilateral, complete hemi-facial paralysis (including forehead muscles) is due to what?

A

peripheral facial nerve palsy: characterized by dysfunction of the lower motor neuron of CN VII

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15
Q

Unilateral paralysis in the lower face (can still wrinkle forehead) is caused by what?

A

central facial nerve palsy: characterized by dysfunction of the upper motor neuron of CN VII (at a level in the brain above the pons)

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16
Q

What are the signs of peritonsilar abscess?

A

trismus (inability to open mouth), dysphagia, ear pain, fever, red, enlarged, medially displaced tonsil with uvular deviation away from the affected side

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17
Q

What is pemphigoid gestationis?

A

pregnancy-associated auto-immune disease; pruritis with papules and plaques which progress to become vessicles and bullae

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18
Q

What will a biopsy positive for pemphigoid gestationis show?

A

subepidermal bliasteing with eosinophil predominant infiltrate at the dermal-epidermal junction.

Direct immunofluorescence is positive for deposition of C3 and/or IgG along the basement membrane.

“salt split” technique shows deposition along the floor of the lesion

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19
Q

What does a positive “salt split” technique for a bullous pemphigoid show?

A

deposition along the roof of the blister

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20
Q

What is the treatment of corneal abraision in non-contact wearers?

A

polymyxin B/trimethoprim eye drops

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21
Q

What is the treatment of corneal abraision in contact wearers?

A

fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin) or aminoglycosides

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22
Q

What are the screening tests for dysplasia of the hip?

A

Barlow=hip flexed 90 degrees, and b/l hips adducted with posterior pressure directed at the knee

Ortolani=hip flexed at 90 degrees and b/l hips abducted and push forward on the head of the femur to push back into acetabulum

+ test=clunking sensation felt

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23
Q

Next step in a infant with both + Barlow and Ortolani tests?

A

refer to ortho

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24
Q

Next step in infant with - Bartlow and + Ortlani?

A

ortho

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25
Next step in infant with + Bartlow only?
monitor/observe patient and repeat exam at a later date
26
Child with new onset, **conductive hearing loss** with intact TM with invaginaitons, granulation tissue, and small **white mass beyond TM** would indicate what?
cholesteatoma
27
What are the sx of avascular necrosis?
groin pain that is worse with bearing weight
28
What are risk factors for avascular nevrosis?
chronic use of corticosteroids and heavy alcohol use
29
What is senn on imaging in avascular necrosis?
"crescent sign"; a subchondral crescent-shaped radiolucent area representing an area of necrotic bone.
30
Who is at risk for avascular necrosis?
sickle cell, femoral neck fx, SLE, smokers
31
how does an anal fissure present?
sharp tearing pain with bloody bowel movements
32
Pt presents with b/l leg pain, aching, cramping that is worse with exertion and is relieved by rest. Dx?
intermittent claudication (angina of the legs) \*eitiology linked to peripheral artery disease and secondary atherosclerosis
33
what is minimal change disease?
the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children less than 10, gets better with corticosteroids
34
painless , gross/frank hematuria in males 10-20 within days of a viral infection (URI) or pharyngitis and HTN (no edema)?
IgA nephropathy
35
hematuria with RBC casts, edema, and HTN, associated with group A strep or URI **weeks** prior?
post strep/infectious glomerulonephritis
36
unexplained hyperthyroidism?
struma ovarii; look for elevated levothyroxine (T4)
37
Why are people with crohns more likely to get calcium oxalate kidney stones?
decreased intestinal absorption of bile salts and fatty acids
38
Pts with PCOS have increased risk for what type of cancer?
endometrial
39
name important P450 inhibitors:
erythromycin, cimetidine, ketoconazole, itraconozole
40
What additional vaccine are children with sickle cell supposed to get at 2 years old?
23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV-23)
41
neonatal foot deformity: midline deviation of all metatarsal bones
metatarsus adductus
42
neonatal foot deformity: "up and out" appearance of the foot/feet
calcaneovalgus
43
neonatal foot deformity: "rocker bottom feet"
congenital vertical talus; "reversed arch"
44
neonatal foot deformity: "clubfoot" or "down and in" foot/feet
talipes equinovarus
45
first line treatment for insomnia?
CBT
46
what testing should pregnant women recieve at 28 weeks?
gestational diabetes; 1 hr 50 gram glucose tolerance test
47
what testing should pregnant women get at 36 weeks?
group B strep
48
treatment for group b strep in pregnant patients:
normal=penicillin small penicillin allergy(simple rash, no hives)=cefazolin true penicillin allergy=clindamycin last resort=vancomycin
49
who should be treated for group b strep in pregnancy?
* + swab or urine * previous child born with GBS infection * nuknown GBS status at \<37 weeks * at risk for preterm labor
50
how is pneumococcal infection prevented in sickle cells kids up to 5 years old?
vaccine and prophylactic penicillin
51
what is the next step in diagnosing a kid with gross hematuria with clots?
US
52
treatment for febrile seizures?
acetaminophen and reassurance
53
side effect of ethosuximide?
pancytopenia
54
what is the next step in testing someone who has a thyroid nodule, but normal labs (euthyroid)?
FNA
55
How long should pts fast from food before getting lipid panel? Alcohol?
12 hrs, 24 hrs
56
What is positive in UC?
bloody diarrhea, wieght loss, pANCA +, elevated ESR and CRP rectum to colon Increased risk of colon cancer
57
What is the findings in celiac disease?
anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (IgA)
58
Findings in Crohn's disease?
bloody stool, transmural, any part/skip lesions, string sign, +ASCA
59
A patient seems depressed and refuses treatment fotr a normal problem. What is the next step?
psych eval for depression
60
Young pt is diagnosed with HIV. What vaccine do they need?
13 and 23 valent pneumococcal vaccines need to be given in pts iwth HIV
61
medication for ALS?
riluzole; inhibits glutamate release
62
what can bile acid sequestrants be used for besides lipid control?
pruritis due to hyperbilirubinemia in liver failure patients
63
how do you biopsy a hard, thyroid mass?
Reidels thyroiditis; open surgical biopsy
64
H pylori treatment?
* OAC * LAC * BMT (bismuth, metronidazole, tetracycline)
65
how do you prevent G6PD crisis?
avoid dietary precipitants (beans)
66
how often do you do a lipid pannel in someone who last had normal lipids?
5 years
67
Pt presents with a lesion that looks like ring worm, but is absent of hyphae. What is it?
granuloma annulare
68
normocytic, normochromic anemia in a pt with htn and dm?
ckd
69
what is the most significant risk factor for stroke?
HTN
70
what do you do with actinic keratosis?
cryotherapy so it doesnt become squamous cell carcinoma
71
smoking cessation:
first line: nicotine pathc (dont use in people with cardiac problems) also can use buproprion; not in alcoholics or those with liver failure
72
adult polycystic kidney disease is dx by:
renal us; look for a pt with frank blood and kidney disease and aneurysm in family
73
wide fixed split S2 heart sound at left second intercostal space?
atrial septal defect
74
a patient with BP disorder experiences positive psychotic findings/hallucinations between manic and depressive episodes for at least 2 weeks. what is this?
schizoaffective disorder
75
sx of schizophreniza lasting from 1-6 months?
schizophreniform disorder
76
what is schizophrenia?
at least two of the following for more than 6 months (one must be a positive sx): positive: delusions, hallucinations, pressured speech pattern Negative: depression, etc
77
schizotypal personality disorder:
magical thnking, thinking the news and other public messages are directed personally at them; otherwise normal
78
painless hematuria in someone over 40:
bladder cancer: transitional cell carcinoma biggest risk factor=cig smoking
79
child with acute bloody diarrhea. WYD?
bacterial stool culture; DO NOT DO ABX until culture is done because treating e.coli O157:H7 with abx can cause HUS
80
vaccines that should be given to women in each pregnancy:
influenza and TDAP
81
when should fluoride supplementaiton begin in infants?
6 months; 0.6 ppm screen at 4 month visit
82
first line treatment for dysmeorrhea?
NSAIDS, then birth control
83
stepwise testing for mono:
1: heterophile antibodies 2: CBC 3: EBV viral capsid antibody
84
what is the range for dx of prediabetes?
A1C of 5.7%- 6.4% fasting sugars of 100-125
85
chronic worsening pain in between the toes, worse with wearing shoes, better when taking off shoes, a "click" can be heard when palpated
Morton's neuroma
86
bad seide effect that should be monitored with ethosuximide?
pancytopenia
87
what is a still;s murmur?
low pitched, vibratory, systolic ejection murmur heard at the left lower sternal border that gets louder when lying down is innocent; reassure parent
88
a test is 94% **specific** for dm. What does this mean?
94% of people without dm will test negative
89
a test is 94% **sensitive** for dm. What does this mean?
94% of people with dm will test positive
90
painless vaginal bleeding in 3rd trimester?
placenta previa
91
why are NSAIDS contraindicated in pregnancy?
premature closure of patent ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios
92
what med is ok for pain management in pregnancy?
acetaminophen NSAIDS and salicylates are category D; never use them
93
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated and used to asses treatment in what cancers?
colon and some gyn
94
cancer antigen 125 is elevated in what type of cancer?
ovarian
95
cancer antigen 15-3 is used to monitor treatment in what kind of cancer?
breast
96
cancer antigen 19-9 is used to monitor treatment in what kind of cancer?
pancreatic
97
what marker is seen in liver and germ cell tumors?
alpha feto protein
98
developmental milestones at ages 4, 6, 9, 12, and 15 months?
99
what is craniosynostosis?
premature closure of the fontanelles; get x-ray, then CT
100
who should recieve skin cancer screening and counseling?
fair skinned pts 6 months-24 years
101
pt presents with evidence of B12 deficiency and mac rocytic anemia after eating raw fish. Dx?
diphyllobothrium latum
102
why do certain men get testicular torsion?
congenital malformation of the processus vaginalis
103
increased AFP in pregnancy indicates ? decreased?
increased: neural tube defects or multiple gestations decreased: down syndrome
104
first line for osteoporosis treatment and prevention?
bisphosphonates: -dronates monoclonal antibodies: denosumab
105
what do you use for pain relief in someone iwth OA who has CHF?
duloxwtine; a serotonin/norepi reuptake inhibitor
106
elderly woman presents with pain in shoulder and hip joints and has a hx of temporal arteritis. What is the dx?
polymyalgia rheumatica
107
which population can you not use A1C to monitor DM in?
CKD
108
pt with hx of eczema or psoriasis has a thick scaly rash on extensor surfaces
lichen simplex chronicus