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C2M3 2025 DAY 1 > OPC DAY 1 > Flashcards

OPC DAY 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

If LVO is expected at departure, what do we check?

Landing solution? (preperation stage)

What about OFP?

A

Check departure aerdrome meets requriments for LVO and determine lowest possible take-off minima.

Landing solution within 1 hour must always be determined at flight preperation stage. If deperature aerodrome does not fulfil = select departure alternate.

OFP shall specify take-off alternate if return to departure aerodrome not possible due to weather/downgradation in case of OEI. This TOF alternate shall be located within one hour still air flight time at OEI cruising speed at ISA = for A320/A321 within 250NM.

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2
Q

Selection of take-off alternate? Requiriments 3

A

When weather report/forecast indicates that during a period commencing 1h before and ending 1h after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be at or above applicable minima as follows:

  1. RVR or VIS specified in OMA 8.1.4.11 (approach minima at WIZZ AIR)
  2. Circling approach = ceiling at or above MDH
  3. Any limitation related to OEI operations (loss of CAT 3 DUAL capability etc.)
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3
Q

If LVO is expected at destination?

A

Check aerdrome meets requriments for LVO operations and determine lowest applicable landing minima.

Select destination alternate (at least one of the destination alternates must be used without LVO either CAT A or CAT B airports).

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4
Q

In order to perform CAT II and CAT III approach and auto land, the equipment where needs to be operative?

When is MEL applicable?

A

In AFM.

On ground, before take off.

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5
Q

Before commencing LVO approach we need to check the capability of the aircraft. Where do we check?

A

MEL, STATUS page, eQRH - OPS - required equipment for CAT2 and CAT3, FCOM (abnormal procedures)

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6
Q

CAT II and CAT III approach with antiskid unservicable?

A

Autoland allowed but auto-rollout is not allowed = pilot must disconnect AP at touchdown and perform rollout manually.

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7
Q

Whindshear is?

A

Sudden change in either wind speed or direction or both over a short distance. Occurs horizontally and vertically at all altitudes.

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8
Q

What is microburst?

Impacts the safety because of two reasons:

A

Windshear can occur from microburst. Occurs close to ground and impact the safety of flight for two reasons:

  1. Downburst of a microburst: Strong downdraft up to 40kt
  2. Outburst of a microburst: large horizontal windshear and a wind component shift from headwind to tailwind up to 40kt.
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9
Q

Aircraft approaches microburst will feel?

A

First encounter strong headwind = increase of IAS. Can cause aircraft to fly above intended path. The wind will then become tailwind = IAS and lift will drop and the downburst may be strong and force the aircraft to lose a significant amount of altitude.

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10
Q

How to recognize windshear?
IAS, V/S, PITCH, GS deviation, heading

A

IAS variations of 15kt,
V/S excursions of 500ft/min,
Pitch attitude excursions of 5 degrees,
GS deviation of more than 1 dot,
Heading variations of 10 degrees

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11
Q

When is the PWS active? TOF/LDG

When does PWS operate? 5

A

Takeoff = Up to 100kt and from 50ft up to 1800ft RA.
Descend = 1800ft RA down to 50ft.

  1. Either on system 1 or 2
  2. Aircraft radio height below 1800ft
  3. CAPT and FO display is different from off or CAPT and FO display are off
  4. At least one engine is running
  5. Aircrafts groundspeed is more than 30kt
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12
Q

How much does PWS scan?

A

5NM ahead of the aircraft.

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13
Q

Predicitve windshear alerts during TOF

Inhibited?

A

Up to 100kt, both warnings and cautions are available within a range of 3NM.

From 100kt up to 50ft, alerts are inhibited

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14
Q

What happens with predicitve windshear visual and aural warning alerts during landing?

Below 50ft?

A

Visual and aural warning alerts are downgraded to cautions alerts between 370ft AGL and 50ft AGL, range between 1.5m and 0.5m.

Alerts are inhibited.

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15
Q

Aural alerts of PWS has priority over? 3
Inhibited by? 2

A

TCAS, GPWS and other FWC warnings

Reactive windshear detection and aural messages of stall warnings.

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16
Q

Windshear detection function (reactive windshear) comes from? When does it activate?

When is it active during TOF and LDG?

At least what is selected?

How is it displayed on PFD and aural?

A

Comes from FAC. When aircrafts energy falls below a predetermined threshold. Uses data from different sources to count this energy: ADRIS = V/S, GS etc. FAC express this energy level as AOA and compare it with an AOA threshold.

TOF: Active 3s after TOF up to 1300ft RA
LDG: Active from 1300ft RA down to 50ft RA

  • At least CONF 1 selected.

Visual WINDSHEAR red message displayed on both PFD for a minimum of 15s.
Voice announcing WINDSHEAR three times.

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17
Q

What is hypoxia?

The effects are? 5

Symptoms? 3

A

Lack of oxygen in the body tissues. Can be caused by shortage of oxygen in the air being breathed.

Fatigue, confusion, euphoria, impaired decision making, loss of consciouness etc.

Blueness on the lips and fingertips, over-warm, cold.

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18
Q

Aircraft operating above 10000ft are pressurized to keep?

The air pressure inside the aircraft pressure hull is?

A

Aircraft cabin no higher than 8000ft.

Is never less than the pressure outside it.

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19
Q

Time of useful consciouesness may be short. at 35000ft somemay have?

A

Only 15s of useful consciousness.

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20
Q

The emergency descent should be initiated on?

A

Positive confirmation that cabin altitude and rate of climb are excessive and uncontrollable.

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21
Q

Why must the flight crew rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning even if not confirmed on the CAB PRESS SD page?

A

Because it can be triggered by cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD.

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22
Q

Emegrency descent whar about descent profile? OMB 4.3 enroute performance strategies in cruise

A

You can descend to FL180 and fly 7 minutes. After that you must descend to FL140 and you can fly 30minutes on FL140.

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23
Q

How do you initiate emergency descent?

A
  1. PF announces “EMERGENCY DESCENT”
  2. CREW OXY MASKS = don mask + HEADSET on. Increase speaker volume, establish interphone and check interphone receive is ON. Once interphone is established, put the RAD/INT switch to NEUTRAL unless communicating to avoid breathing interference.
  3. Memory ITEMS. PM should focus on FMA to ensure PF had correctly established the aircraft in descent.
  4. Perform read and do procedure (ECAM or QRH). PF refine the settings. AP and A/THR highly recommended.
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24
Q

Minimum bottle pressure to cover? 3

A

Mask regulator to NORMAL:
1. During emergency descent for all flight crew members and observers for 13min.
2. During cruise at FL100 for two flight crew members = 107 minutes. -
3. Protection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all flight crew members and observers at 15min at 8000ft cabin altitude.

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25
Emergency descent, while in IDLE thrust, high speed and with speed brake extended?
The rate of descent is 7000ft/min. To descend from FL390 to FL100, it takes 4min and 40NM.
26
New procedure. In FCTM If the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT triggers above FL160? Below FL160?
1. Apply EMER DESCENT memory items, and then perform ECAM procedure. 2. Apply ECAM procedure, and initiate normal descent.
27
Emergency descent, on reaching FL100/10000ft configure the aircraft and follow up. What about oxygen mask? 6
1. Remove oxygen masks. 2. Close the oxygen stowage mask compartment. 3. IMPORTANT: PRESS the PRESS TO RESET oxygen control slide, to deactivate the mask microphone, and too cut of the oxygen. (no need to re-stow the oxygen mask). 4. Commander announces "CABIN CREW TO THE FLIGHT DECK". This means all cabin crew can remove their oxygen masks and resume normal procedures. SCC should enter. 5. Make DODAR. 6. NITS.
28
Engine failure at take off, what changed?
1. You do not need to wait until 400ft RA until you say ECAM actions. You can do it when neccesary if safe path it maintained. 2. You don´t say "I have control, I have communcations, confirm failure". Once you say ECAM actions, it means you have both. PM still says ENG 1/2 failure/fire etc. confirmed and then continue with ECAM. 3. "Engine secured is removed". After the engine is secured PM monitor/announce EFP/special EFP until PF says STOP ECAM.
29
In the ground mode relationship between? Automatic pitch trim freezes below?
Relationship between sidestick deflection and elevator deflection is direct with no auto trim. Below 50ft = avoid excessive pitch changes.
30
If acceleration of aircraft has commenced and engine fails after? Aftert the SID turn?
1. Select TOGA and climb to minimum 1500ft AGL and ENGINE SECURED, before clean up. 2. Continue on SID, select TOGA and climb to MSA before level off and clean up.
31
Now when ENGINE SECURED callout is removed, how do PF check it is secured?
PF can and supposed to check before starting level acceleration that all the conditions are fulfilled.
32
When is SPECIAL EFB specified for some airports?
In case of engine failure a straight climb out to the level off altitude does not provide the required abstacle clearence.
33
Minimum level or altitudes of the standard holding patterns shown on LIDO is?
Only valid for all engines operating. By proceeding according to EFP/SPECIAL EFP obstacle clearence is assured.
34
When must the call: MAYDAYx3, WZZ123 engine failure standby be done? When must the call to ATC: WZZ123 mayday, proceeding to X climbing to xxxx ft be done?
Before deviating from the SID. During acceleration and when time permits.
35
PF says continue ECAM when time permits and MCT is set on the thrust levers. What must be considered when reaching STATUS page?
Consider any normal C/L, system reset or additional procedure = check GEAR is up and flaps are retracted.
36
Temparture corrections. Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitunde under? Temperature is higher than ISA? Below?
ISA conditions. Any deviation from ISA will result in erroneous reading on the altimeter. True altitude will be higher than the altimeter. Below ISA = true altitude will be lower than indicated on the altimeter.
37
Temperature corrections, what altitudes/heights should we correct? Non-precision approach? What does the flysmart take into account?
Initial and intermediate segments, DA/MDA, missed approach altitudes, MSA Minimum altitudes after passing the FAF (table). The engine failure accleration altitude. No need to correct.
38
When is altitudes assigned by ATC which are temperature compensated and require no action by pilots?
Flying on vectors, confirmed by ATC, stated in eRM/AIP for respective country
39
RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima, when temperature is within limits (indicated on chart), the flight crew should not make compensation to the altitude at? What is important to not forget?
The FAF. Inform ATC, they need to be informed.
40
The circling area which ensures obstable clearence is based on a maximum speed of?
180kt for category C aircraft. Therefor to maintain F speed during circling procedure ensures the aircraft remains within the safe circling area.
41
Aircraft category is based on? For CAT C? PANS OPS assumes a bank angle of X during circling approach?
Threshold IAS (Vref or 1.3 x stall IAS) 121kt or more but less than 141kt. 20 degrees.
42
Radius of circling area used in PANS OPS is larger than in US TERPS why? = safer
Because the IAS used for TAS calculaton is greater and the assumed bank angle is lower.
43
Circling approach, according to Airbus FCTM what about wind?
No wind correction should be applied during this procedure.
44
Callout OEB applies has been removed. ECAM ACTIONS callout triggers?
That PF has the control and communication. PM should confirm the failure, apply ECAM actions and any OEBs if applies.
45
Rejected TOF, what about informing ATC?
ONLY advice ATC after the aircraft has stopped. Monitoring all actions and deceleration while bringing the aircraft into a complete stop has priority over advising ATC.
46
LAND ASAP AMBER on ECAM means? RED?
Land at a suitable airport = weather permissible and is listed on OMC and has sufficient landing distance available to include standard company margin. We need to land immediatly = any airport where a safe landing can be made.
47
In case of EGPWS warning, which call is removed?
I HAVE CONTROL is removed when correcting the flight path response to an EGPWS caution.
48
Minimum 3 technical questions about: 1. LVO minima and required landing capability. 2. Cabin pressure failure and emergency descent. 3. Aircraft systems (air conditioning/pressurization/ventilation, communication , navigation, APU) 4. Predictive/reactive windshear system 5. Circling approach
49
Manual phase. For CPT, we have circling approach and landing RWY 17R. It means we are going to do the approach from 35L. What is stabilization criteria?
At 1000ft AAL, or at the MDA whichever is higher: Gear down, F3, F speed, V/S not higher than 1000ft/min, spoilers armed. 500ft AAL = within 1 dot low/high on PAPI, landing configuration, IAS = Vapp target -5/+10kt.
50
Which 9 competencies do we have?
SAW, leadership and teamwork, communication, workload management, flight path management (automation and manual), problem solving and decision making, procedures, knowledge
51
Which 3 conditions should be meet if we are going to continue the LVO approach past 1000ft AAL when we had a failure before?
1. Failure management procedures (ECAM/RESETS/C/L) completed. 2. Status of the aircraft = landing capability and management of failure re-assessed and when applicable, corresponding landing minima inserted in MCDU 3. Approach briefing amended taking into account the new situation.
52
For operations conducted with fail-operational flight control systems using a DH, what do we need to see on DH?
At least one center line light and to be maintained.
53
Below 1000ft and above alert height, when should we perform a go-around? 2
Amber caution (single chime) or landing capability degradation. (tex. from CAT3 DUAL to CAT3 SINGLE).
54
On which height is the autoland light armed? Triggered if? 4
200ft RA. BOTH AP´s trip off, excessive beam deviation is sensed, LOC or GS transmitter or receiver fails, RA discrepancy of at least 15ft is sensed.
55
How and when is autoland permitted and what about the definition of decision height? - Cat 3 DUAL - CAT 3 Single - CAT 2
- ALERT height 100ft = Fail operational = Autoland permitted without visual references. - Fail passive = Autoland permitted with visual references prior to landing (DH = 50ft RA). One RWY centerline light to be seen and maintained. Decision height is defined so a take-over and manual go-around or manual landing can be safely performed. - Autoland permitted according to status of systems and auto-rollout according to status of the systems. DH = usually around 100ft, check LIDO. Decision height is defined so a take-over and manual go-around or manual landing can be safely performed.
56
Landing capability downgrade: When landing capability downgrades, what will happen?
Triple click aural warning is activated and FMA shows the new landing capability. Above Alert height, we need to perform go-around, below we can continue to perform the autoland.
57
Autoland has been demonstrated within which conditions? - ILS SLOPE RANGE - Airport elevation - ROLL OUT MODE - AP/APs
With CAT II and CAT III ILS beam, with ILS slope inside range of -2.5 and -3.15 - Airport elevation between -1000 and 6500ft. - ROLL OUT mode has been demonstrated on dry and wet runways. - One AP must at least be engaged in APPR mode and CAT2, CAT3 single or CAT3 DUAL capability must be displayed on FMA.
58
CAT2 - Minimum decision height - RVR - AP - FMA - In case of manual landing
100ft. 300m. At least one AP engaged in APPR mode CAT2 or CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL must be displayed on FMA AP should be disconnected no later than 80ft AGL.
59
CAT3 SINGLE - Minimum decision height - RVR - AP - FMA
50ft 200m At least one AP engaged in APPR mode CAT3 SINGLE/CAT 3 DUAL
60
Which pitch should we keep in case of go-around and why? Both/OEI
- Initially 15 degrees - OEI = 12.5 degrees. This values allow us to get a positive rate of climb then follow SRS flight director pitch orders.
61
For operations conducted with fail-passive flight control systems, a segment of
At least three consecutive lights, which are: * The centre line of the approach lights, or * Touchdown zone lights, or * Runway centre line lights, or * Runway edge lights, or * A combination of these.
62
LAND on FMA comes when? What happens when this comes? FLARE on FMA comes when? ROLLOUT on FMA comes when?
Earliest 400ft, latest 350ft. FCU and FMGC is freezed, only way to come out of it is to apply TOGA Earliest 40ft, latest 30ft When at least one of the gears touches the ground, latest when nose wheel touches down.
63
Air is supplied by the? 3 In an emergency, what does the ram air inlet do? When RAM AIR pushbutton is ON? Temperature regulation is optimized by? Actual temperature is measured by? The temperature selection range is from?
Pneumatic system via two pack flow control valves, two packs, mixing unit which mixes the air that comes from cabin and the packs. Provide ambient air to the mixing unit, example to remove smoke or if both packs fail. The outflow valve opens about 50% provided it is under automatic control and DELTAP is less than 1 PSI. Via the hot air pressure regulating valve, and the trim air valves that add hot air to the air coming from the mixing unit. Sensors. In the cockpit for cockpit zone, in the lavatory extraction and galley ventilation for the cabin. 18C to 30C.
64
Pack operation is controlled by? Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters?
Signals coming from the pack controller. The compressor section of the air-cycle machine and is compressed to a higher pressure and temperature. It is cooled again in the main heat exchanger and enters the turbine section where it expands and in expanding generates power to drive the compressor and cooling fan.
65
Cabin pressurization system has four general functions: In automatic operation, it receives data from?- Cabin pressure controllers CPCs controlls the pressurization, receive data from? 4 What about safety valves? Cabin vertical speed starts to flash when? Cabin altitude starts to flash when? RED? Which four functions do we have of the pressurization?
From the FMGC. ADIRS, FMGC, EIU, LGCIU. We have two which prevents cabin pressure going to high (8.6PSI above ambient) or too low (1PSI below ambient). When VS reaches 1750ft/min and stop flashing when it goes below 1650ft/min. When cabin altitude reaches 8800ft and stop flashing when below 8600ft. RED = cabin altitude above 9550ft. 1. Ground function. Fully opens outflow valve on ground 2. Prepressurization: During takeoff, increases cabin pressure to avoid surge in cabin pressure during rotation. 3. Pressurization in flight: Adjust cabin altitude 4. Depressurization: After touchdown, gradually releases residual cabin overpessure before the ground function fully opens the outflow valve.
66
Ventilation system includes ventilation for? 3 What if we set the BLOWER or EXTRACT pushbutton switch to OVRD?
Avionics, batteries and lavatories and galleys. System is in closed-circuit configuration and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation system.
67
When coming to STATUS page we say STOP ECAM. What should we say next?
Callout: Any QRH checklist?
68
When do we do OEB?
Immediate actions should be applied immediately after pronouncing the title of the failure.
69
What happens when we press the APU FIRE PUSHBUTTON? We discharge the agent after 10s countdown on ECAM, why? How many APU agents do we have?
APU LP valve closes, aural warning stops and APU FIRE pb-switch remains on as long as fire is detected. 10s delay allows the airflow to decrease which increases the effect of the agent. One.
70
What is the difference between CAUTION and MASTER CAUTION?
Caution = requires crew awareness only. Master caution = requires crew action when time permits.
71
Emergency descend, how can we suspect structural damage? What should we do?
In case of loud bang or high cabin vertical speed. Set SPEED/MACH pb to SPEED to prevent increase of IAS or reduce speed. This minimizes the stress on aircraft structure.

C2M3 2025 DAY 1 (4 decks)

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