Operations And Community Paramedicine Flashcards

(115 cards)

1
Q

What are the 2 types of paramedicine?

A

Traditional scope paramedicine: prehospital acute care by paramedics in an ambulance
Expanded scope paramedicine: any healthcare service that falls outside of the traditional definition of paramedicine (including community paramedics)

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2
Q

What is a community paramedic?

A

A paramedic who has completed a formal and recognized educational program and has demonstrated competence in the provision of health education, clinical assessment and monitoring, point of care diagnostics, and treatment within or beyond the scope of traditional emergency care and transport.

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3
Q

What does Differentiated Practice mean?

A

The use of paramedics in a non-emergency setting or acute non-life threatening situations according to their expertise and qualifications.

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4
Q

According to the Canadian Standards Association (CSA) what are the 3 types of community paramedicine programs?

A

Programs where care is different. (Ex. In home care/ clinics)
Programs where the response is different. (Ex. Case findings/ referrals/ facilitated early discharge)
Programs where coordination of care is the goal. (Ex. Remote monitoring/ health surveillance)

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5
Q

What role does the Saskatoon health bus play in their health care?

A

Paramedics and nurse practitioners staff a bus that travels to the underserved communities to provide essential primary care. Services include, wound care, placement and removal of sutures, birth control, testing for STDs, counselling services for mental health and addiction.

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6
Q

How does community paramedicine operate in Winnipeg?

A

WFPS has paramedics stationed at Main Street Project to help the people in their homeless shelter and detoxification centre. Winnipeg also utilizes the EPIC team to identify unmet needs and arrange for appropriate alternative services resulting in a 42.3% decrease in EMS transports and a 24.7% decrease in 911 calls.

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7
Q

What are the 8 principles of the structure and aims of an effective community paramedicine plan?

A

Patient and family centred
Needs and evidence based practice
Goal directed and outcomes based
Integrated collaborative care
Patient and provider safety
Stakeholder engagement
Governance and policy
Sustainability

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8
Q

What are some of the minimum essential equipment that should be found on all ambulances?

A

Airway and ventilation equipment
Basic wound care supplies
Monitoring devices
Selection of splints
Childbirth supplies
Patient transfer equipment
Medications

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9
Q

What are the 4 things that an ambulance needs to do 100% of the time?

A

Start
Steer
Stop
Stay running

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10
Q

What are the things that the operator should check on the ambulance before you drive?

A

Fuel level
Oil level
Transmission fluid level
Leaks on the ground
Voltage >12 or <15
Brake and backup lights

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11
Q

What are the things that the operator should check on the ambulance while they drive?

A

Belt noise
Brake fade
Brake pull
Drift
Steering pull
Steering play
Wheel bounce
Wheel wobble

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12
Q

What are the key factors that are analyzed in an effective and cost effective ambulance service?

A

Response times: high performance systems use a fraction response time standard
Productivity: defined as how many transports per hour (unit-hour utilization)
Unit costs: determined by the cost to respond as well as the number of hours the unit was operating
Cost for ambulance service: costs for service administered by the municipal and provincial governments

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13
Q

What are the 4 levels of paramedic certification recognized in Canada?

A

EMR Emergency Medical Responder
PCP Primary Care Paramedic
ACP Advanced Care Paramedic
CCP Critical Care Paramedic

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14
Q

What is system status management?

A

System Status Management or SSM attempts to arrange strategic deployment of ambulance resources to minimize response times. Increased demand during certain hours or in certain geographic locations are called peak loads.

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15
Q

Define the paramedic’s responsibility as a professional?

A

The paramedic has a responsibility to to conduct themself as a professional when working on an ambulance, even in times of stress or fatigue you should act as an advocate for your patient and seek to deliver high quality prehospital care regardless of the time of day.

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16
Q

What does Due Regard mean?

A

Due regard means that you use lights and sirens as a means to alert other drivers that you are in an emergency mode, but it does not exempt you from operating your vehicle with due regard for the safety of others.

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17
Q

What must you always wear around roadways?

A

Visible protective clothing

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18
Q

What are the 7 rules of backing up an ambulance?

A

Use a spotter
Talk to your spotter before you but the ambulance in reverse
Keep your spotter in view at all times
Agree on hand signals before moving
Keep your window open
Do a walk around before getting behind the wheel
Use audible warning devices whenever the ambulance is in motion

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19
Q

What are the advantages of using air ambulance?

A

Reduced transport time
Ability to access patients in remote areas
Availability of medical crew with advanced skills and equipment

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20
Q

Disadvantages of using a helicopter?

A

Weather or environmental challenges
Altitude limitations
Ambient noise in flight
Airspeed limitations
Aircraft cabin size limitations
Terrain that poses landing challenges
Cost
Restrictions on the number of passengers

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21
Q

What criteria does a helicopter landing zone have to meet?

A

30mx30m
Firm and level
No loose objects or debris

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22
Q

How do you approach a helicopter?

A

Approach between the 9:00 and 3:00 positions as the pilot faces forward

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23
Q

What is critical infrastructure?

A

Includes:
Electrical power grid
Communication systems
Fuel for vehicles
Water
Sewage removal
Food
Hospitals
Transportation systems

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24
Q

What are the 4 phases of emergency management?

A

Preparedness
Mitigation
Response
Recovery

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25
What is a mass casualty accident MCI?
An event in which the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders
26
Explain the differences between an open incident and a closed incident?
Open incident: has a number of casualties not yet located when you answer the initial call Closed incident: is a contained incident in which patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more patients
27
What is span of control?
Span of control refers to the number of resources for which a supervisor is responsible for, usually expressed as a ratio of supervisors to responders To maintain effective communication and management you should limit the number of subordinates to 3-7, or optimally 5
28
What are the 4 divisions of labour for general staff within the ICS system?
Operations Planning Logistics Finance
29
What are the roles of the Safety Officer, Liaison Officer, and Public Information Officer within the ICS system?
Safety officer: monitors the scene for conditions and operations that may present a hazard to responders or patients Liaison officer: relays information and concerns among command, the general staff, and other agencies Public information officer: provides the public and media with clear and understandable information as well as keeping the media safe from the incident
30
How does unified command differ from single command?
A single command system has one person in charge and is generally used with small incidents that involve only one agency or jurisdiction. A unified command system plans are drawn up by cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making and cooperation in multiagency or multijurisdictional response.
31
How should a transfer of command take place?
IC may turn over command to someone with more experience in a critical area. This change or transfer of command must take place in an orderly manor and if possible face to face.
32
What are the 3 questions used to assess an MCI?
What do I have? What do I need to do? What resources do I need?
33
What are the roles of the ICS system specific to medical incident command?
Triage officer: ensure every patient gets initial assessment of their condition Treatment officer: set up a treatment area, ensure adequate care is given, and move patients to the transportation area Transportation officer: coordinates the transportation and distribution of of patients to appropriate receiving hospitals
34
What information should be communicated after the primary triage?
Total number of patients Number of patients in each of the categories Recommendations for extrication and movement of patients Resources needed to complete triage and begin moving patients
35
What are the 4 common triage categories?
Red or Immediate (first priority) Yellow or delayed (second priority) Green or minimal (third priority) Black or expectant (likely to die, fourth priority)
36
what is START Triage and what are it’s 4 steps?
START triage uses a limited assessment of the patients ability to walk, respiratory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status. Step 1: call out “if you can hear my voice and are able to walk go to…” (minimal/green patients) Step 2: open the airway of non-ambulatory patients, if the patient breathes more than 30 breaths/min they are red/immediate if breathing does not begin after repositioning triage as expectant/black Step 3: check for radial pulse, an absent radial pulse needs immediate/red treatment, if a radial pulse is found continue assessment Step 4: assess the patient’s ability to follow simple commands, unable to follow commands is an immediate/red patient, a patient that can follow commands is delayed/yellow
37
What makes the SALT triage system unique in comparison to START triage?
SALT or Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, Treatment and transport triage system differs from START triage by having 5 patient categories. Black tags are assigned to patients that are dead and should not be moved Grey tags are assigned to patients who are not expected to survive given available resources
38
In which fields are Canada a world leader in?
Aerospace Biotechnology Chemicals Communications Information technology Mining Metallurgy Nuclear energy Oil Natural gas
39
What does CBRNE mean?
The abbreviation CBRNE refers to Chemical, Biological, Radioactive, Nuclear, and Explosive events or agents.
40
What are the categories of terrorist groups?
Violent religious groups/ doomsday cults Extremist political groups Technology terrorists Single issue groups
41
What are the primary types of biological agents that may be weaponized in a biological event?
Viruses Bacteria Neurotoxins
42
What are the categories of chemical agents?
Vesicants or blister agents Pulmonary or choking agents Nerve agents Metabolic or blood agents Irritating agents
43
What is a covert terror attack?
That means that the public safety community generally has no prior knowledge of the time, location, or nature of the attack.
44
What should the paramedic observe on every call to determine potential for a terror attack?
Pre-incident indicators Type of location Type of call Number of patients Victims statement
45
What is a secondary device?
Terrorists have been known to plant additional explosives that are set to explode after the initial bomb. This type of secondary device is intended to injure responders and and to secure media coverage.
46
What do the terms persistency and volatility mean?
Persistency and volatility describe how long an agent will stay on the surface before it evaporates
47
What does route of exposure mean?
Describes how the agent most effectively enters the body Examples include contact hazard that enters through the skin or vapour hazard that enters through the respiratory tract.
48
What are the 4 levels of hazmat protective clothing?
A- highest protecting including SCBA and a fully encapsulating suit (designed for the hot zone) B- second highest protection including a liquid splash suit and SCBA C- provides liquid splash protection and allows for respiratory protection other than SCBA D- Coveralls, a tyvek suit, or bunker gear only
49
What are the signs of vesicant exposure?
Skin irritation, burning, redness Immediate and intense skin pain Formation of large blisters Grey discolouration of the skin Swollen and closed or irritated eyes Permanent eye injury
50
What are the signs of pulmonary agent exposure?
Shortness of breath Burning or tightness in the chest Hoarseness or stridor Gasping and coughing Watery eyes or drooling
51
What are the 3 G nerve agents?
Sarin (GB): highly volatile colourless and odourless liquid that turns into gas within seconds at room temperature. Soman (GD): twice as persistent as Sarin and 5 times more lethal, it has a fruity odour and generally no colour. Tabun (GA): approximately half as lethal as Sarin and 36 times more persistent, also has a fruity smell and under proper conditions will remain for several days
52
What is the most common symptom of nerve agent exposure?
Miosis: bilateral pinpoint pupil constriction as a result of nerve agent exposure
53
What are the symptoms of nerve agent exposure in the SLUDGEM mnemonic?
Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defection Gastrointestinal distress Emesis Miosis
54
What are the symptoms of nerve agent exposure in the DUMBELS mnemonic?
Defecation Urination Miosis Bradycardia/ Bronchoconstriction Emesis Lacrimation Salivation
55
What are the signs of metabolic agent exposure?
Shortness of breath or gasping respirations Tachypnea Flushed skin colour Tachycardia Altered mental status Seizures Coma Apnea Cardiac arrest
56
Define dissemination, disease vector, and communicability?
Dissemination: the means by which a terrorist spreads the agent Disease vector: an animal that spreads the disease to another animal Communicability: how easily the disease spreads from one human to another
57
How does smallpox present?
Early symptoms: temp. 38-40°C and headaches Later symptoms: rash and blisters (lesions are identical in development)
58
How do viral hemorrhagic fevers such as Ebola and yellow fever present?
flu like symptoms leading to internal and external hemorrhage
59
What is Anthrax?
A deadly bacteria that lies dormant in spores. When exposed to optimal temp. and moisture they are released and may enter the body through inhalation, cutaneous, of gastrointestinal routes. Manifests as severe cold, itchy raised bump that may develop a black centre, swollen lymph nodes
60
Explain the difference between the bubonic plague and pneumonic plague?
Bubonic: the plague infects the lymph nodes causing them to swell up to the size of a tennis ball, if left untreated may lead to sepsis or death Pneumonic: the plague infects the lungs with a much higher death rate than bubonic
61
What is important to know about neurotoxins?
They are the deadliest substances known to humans. The most potent neurotoxin is botulinum.
62
What are the signs or neurotoxin exposure such as botulinum or ricin?
Ingestion or inhalation: Fever Chills Nausea Muscle aches Headache Ingestion only: Vomiting Diarrhea Abdominal cramping Dehydration GI bleeding Inhalation only: Eyes, nose, throat irritation Profuse sweating Chest pain Nonproductive cough Dyspnea Pulmonary Edema Cyanosis Convulsions
63
What are the types of radiation?
Alpha: least harmful Beta: slightly more penetrating than alpha Gamma: more penetrating that alpha and beta, requires several cm of lead to stop them Neutron: easily penetrate lead and require several metres of concrete to stop them
64
What are the 3 levels of radiation exposure?
Radioactive exposure: exposure occurred but the body is not necessarily contaminated External contamination: the skin was contaminated but the inside of the body is not necessarily contaminated yet Internal contamination: the inside of the body is contaminated
65
What is a Geiger-Müller probe?
A device that detects alpha, beta, and gamma radiation
66
What are the 3 best ways to protect yourself from radiation?
Time: the less time you are you are exposed, the less the effects will be Distance: radiation is limited in how far is can travel, moving a few feet may take you out of danger Shielding: specific objects can stop the path of radiation, clothing, lead, concrete etc.
67
What is a technical rescue incident?
A complex rescue incident involving vehicle extrication, water rescue, ice rescue, confined space, structural collapse, high angle rescue, or hazardous materials in which specially trained personnel and equipment is needed.
68
What are the 3 levels of training in technical rescue areas?
Awareness Operations Technician
69
What should every rescue team have?
Written standard operation procedures (SOPs) that are familiar to every member of the team
70
What are the guidelines for a paramedic to follow when assisting rescue incidents?
Be safe Follow orders Work as a team Think Follow the golden rule of public service (have a rescuer stay with the patient)
71
What are the reasons for a failed rescue laid out in the FAILURE mnemonic?
Failure to understand the environment or underestimate it Additional medical problems not considered Inadequate rescue skills Lack of teamwork or experience Underestimating the logistics of the incident Rescue vs. Recovery not considered Equipment not mastered
72
What are the 8 steps of a special rescue?
Preparation Response Arrival and assessment Stabilization Access Disentanglement Removal Transport
73
What are the 3 controlled zones of a technical rescue emergency?
Hot zone: the zone immediately surrounding the incident, only rescue teams should be here Warm zone: this is where trained personnel and decontamination teams stage Cold zone: the outer perimeter where vehicles, equipment, and the command post are located. The public and media should be kept clear of the cold zone at all times
74
What information should be collected in the case of a rescue incident?
Location of incident Nature of incident Number of patients trapped or injured Condition and position of patients Condition and position of vehicles Nature and severity of injuries Special hazard information Name of person calling and call back information
75
What should a scene assessment include?
Scope of incident Risk and benefit analysis Number and severity of patients Hazards Access and egress Environmental factors Available and necessary resources Establish a perimeter
76
How far away do you have to stay from electrical hazards?
15 metres
77
What is significant about an ethanol or methanol fire?
They burn bright blue, give off very little smoke, and can be hard to see on a clear day
78
What must be done before approaching a vehicle?
Stabilize the vehicle, most commonly done with cribbing, step blocks, or wedges
79
Which window should you break to access a vehicle?
choose the window farthest from the patient, give a verbal warning by saying “breaking glass”, and break it from the corner
80
What are the most common ways to extricate a patient from a vehicle?
Displace the seat Remove the windshield Displace the dash Displace the roof
81
What is a confined space?
A structure that is not designed for continuous occupancy and that usually has limited openings for entry and exit. Confined spaces present dangers because they may house toxic gases or oxygen deficient atmosphere.
82
What are 6 examples of oxygen deficient or poisonous gases?
Hydrogen sulphide (H2S): colourless, toxic, and flammable gas released as bacteria break down in the absence of oxygen Carbon monoxide (CO): colourless odourless tasteless gas that can result in severe poisoning because it’s affinity for hemoglobin is 200-250x that of oxygen Carbon dioxide (CO2): colourless gas that causes asphyxiation and is the primary waste product of aerobic metabolism Methane (CH4): the primary component of natural gas and will ignite and burn at much lower concentrations that pan will cause asphyxiation Ammonia (NH4): a toxic, corrosive chemical with a pungent odour, lighter than air Nitrogen dioxide (NO2): a red/brown gas that has a characteristic sharp, biting odour and is toxic when inhaled
83
Where do the most trench collapses occur?
In trenches less than 4 m deep and 2 m wide. In a collapse, a person is suddenly covered with heavy soil resulting in asphyxiation.
84
How quickly does water cause heat loss?
Water causes heat loss 25% faster than air. Immersion in 4°C water for 15-20 minutes is likely to be fatal. Humans cannot maintain body heat in water that is less than 32°C
85
What is the HELP position and how does it decrease heat loss?
HELP requires a PFD and consists of drawing the knees close to the chest, pressing the arms close to the side of the body, and keeping the head and neck out of the water. It can decrease heat loss by up to 60% compared to treading water.
86
What is the cold protective response?
When the body is submerged in water colder than 21°C heat is conducted from the body to the water, the resulting in hypothermia can protect vital organs from the lack of oxygen.
87
Where must you wear a PFD in a water rescue?
Anytime you are within 3 metres of the water
88
What is the model most commonly used in water rescues?
Reach: attempt to reach out to the threatened person with anything readily available Throw: if you cannot reach the person throw something like a life preserver or throw bag Row: if you cannot reach the person by throwing something you may be able to row out to the person in a small boat or canoe Go: as a last resort, go into the water to save the person. Only go into the water if you are a capable swimmer trained in water rescue
89
When should you assume that a spinal injury exists from a submersion incident?
The submersion has resulted from a diving mishap or fall The patient is unresponsive with no further information of the incident The patient is responsive but reports weakness, paralysis, or numbness in the arms or legs You suspect the possibility of spinal injury regardless of witness reports
90
What’s the difference between a high angle and low angle rescue?
Low angle rope rescue incidents have a slope of less than 45°, rescuers depend on the ground as their primary support and the rope as a secondary means of support . High angle angle rope rescue incidents have a slope of greater than 45°, rescuers are dependant on a life safety rope and not a fixed support.
91
What is the minimum number of rescuers carrying a rescue basket?
6 rescuers, with an extra 6 ready to be rotated in if the patient needs to be carried a long distance
92
What are Rappelling and Scrambling?
Rappelling is descent technique defined as descending on a fixed rope. Scrambling is a method used to ascend rocky faces and ridges, described as a cross between rock climbing and hill climbing
93
Where might you find placards or labels for hazardous materials?
On buildings or in areas where DG are produced, used, or stored On trucks and railroad cars that transport DG On drums or other storage vessels that contain hazardous material
94
When should you immediately suspect the presence of a hazardous material?
If you approach a scene where more than one person has collapsed, is unconscious, or in respiratory distress
95
What is the rule of thumb?
The standard rule of thumb for hazardous materials incidents says that if the entire incident cannot be covered by your thumb held out at arms length , you are too close.
96
What is a bill of lading or a waybill?
A bill of lading identifies hazards being transported that should be carried by a trucker in the cab A waybill identifies hazards transported by train and is carried by the conductor
97
What is the NFPA 704 classification placard?
The 704 symbol is shaped like a diamond with 4 colours representing a different characteristic of the hazardous material each with hazard level from 0-4. Blue: health Red: flammability Yellow: reactivity White: special information
98
What are the 4 toxicity levels represented on the NFPA 704 symbol?
Level 0: materials that would cause little if any health hazard Level 1: materials that would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury Level 2: materials that could cause temporary damage or lasting injury if not promptly treated Level 3: includes materials that are extremely hazardous to health Level 4: includes materials that are so hazardous that minimal contact would cause death
99
What’s the difference between primary contamination and secondary contamination?
Primary: the direct exposure to a hazardous material Secondary: takes place when a hazardous material is transferred by on other person or object
100
What is the dose effect principle?
The greater the length of time exposed or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect probably will be on the human body.
101
What is important to know about vapour pressure?
If the air temp. becomes hotter the vapour pressure of a hazardous material will increase
102
How does flash point differ from ignition temperature?
Flash point is the lowest temp. that a material can create a spark Ignition temp. is the temp. that the material will sustain burning
103
Define an LEL and UEL
Lower explosive limit: the minimum required concentration of a material in the air to burn or explode. Upper explosive limit: the maximum concentration of a material that allows the presence of oxygen for combustion.
104
Define threshold limit value, threshold limit value short term exposure limit, and threshold limit value ceiling level?
TLV: the maximum concentration of a toxin that a person that someone can be exposed to during a 40 hour work week. TLV-STEL: the concentration of a toxin that a person can be exposed to for a limited number of brief time periods per day (Ex. Four 15 minute exposures) TLV-CL: the concentration of a toxin that a person should never be exposed to
105
What are the 4 decontamination methods?
Dilution: copious amounts of water to wash off the substance, may be assisted with soap or brushes Absorption: large pads or towels are used to soak up the liquid and remove it from the patient Neutralization: involves the use of a chemical to change the material into a less hazardous substance Disposal: remove the patient’s clothing
106
What is an asphyxiant agent?
Any gas that displaces oxygen from the atmosphere
107
What is tunnel vision?
Becoming so completely involved with patient care that you fail to see the possibility of physical harm to the patient or other care providers.
108
What should you do before leaving your vehicle?
Record the license plate number of the patient’s vehicle
109
How should you position your vehicle behind a patient’s vehicle?
A minimum of 6 metres behind at a 10° angle to the drivers side
110
What does the term fatal funnel refer to?
A doorway where one can be easily seen but is difficult to move out of
111
What are the reasons that youth may join gangs?
Identity Respect Recognition Love Belonging Money Fear
112
What are the 3 R’s that gang members may operate on?
Reputation Respect Retaliation
113
What is the difference between cover and concealment?
Cover objects such as trees, utility poles, mail boxes, dumpsters, and vehicles are difficult for bullets to penetrate. Tall grass, shrubs, or dark shadows are areas that offer concealment where you may not be seen but you are not protected.
114
What are the 6 stages of a hostage situation?
Surveillance Capture Transport Holding Move Resolution
115
What should you document specific to crime scenes?
What did you see? What did you hear? What was done with evidence taken from the victim?