OPNAV 6110.1J Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Operating guide: 3 sections?

A

Physical Readiness “How To” Guide

FEP Guide

Nutrition Resource Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Minimum standards shall be met for what purpose?

A

Continued Naval service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is responsible for a year round physical readiness program?

A

CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Purpose of program is to maintain health and….

A

Decrease chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minimum participation requirements for physical activity?

A

2hr & 30min (150 min) per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Strength training for all major muscle groups should be performed how frequently?

A

At least twice per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PFA includes?

A
Medical screen
BCA
PRT
PHA
PARFQ NAVPERS 6110/3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When are members with a medical waiver referred to an MTF for a medical evaluation board (MEB)?

A

2 consecutive or 3 in a four year period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MEB findings are forwarded where for disposition?

A

NAVPERSCOM, Career Progression Department (PERS-8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who develops physical readiness policy, manages PRIMS, provides train-the-trainer, ADSEP?

A

(N1) Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education (DCNO (MPTE))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who provides fitness training at each installation (MWR) and schedule and execute CFL certification courses based on regional requirements?

A

CNIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who establishes guidelines for waiver recommendation process and oversight for ShipShape Weight Management Program?

A

BUMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Develops CFL NKO course, helps develop CFL course curriculum, conducts PFA for schools >10 weeks, PRIMS for recruits, ensure compliance with nutrition programs, established fitness programs at all schools?

A

Commander, Naval Education and Training Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Analyze data on PR program injuries and deaths?

A

Commander, Naval Safety Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ensures PFA results are incorporated into promotion/advancement/reenlist

PFA incorporated in detailing decisions

manage ADSEP processing for 3 or more PFA failures

Evaluate PFA MEB findings for diisposition

A

COMNAVPERSCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Echelon 3 commanders shall:

A

Evaluate command requests for waivers with ECM (BUPERS-31/32)

Appoint PRCO (physical readiness control officer) to liaison with OPNAV (N135F)

Ensure PFA compliance from PRCO at least semi-annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ensures command compliance with PRP policies

Evaluate and fwd waiver recommendations

A

ISICs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1 ACFL per ____ command members

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ensures management of effective FEP

PFA entered within 30 days

Waiver entered within 14 days of PFA cycle

ADSEP process within 14 days (unless waived by echelon 3 commander)

A

CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CFL certification course should be completed within how many months?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CFL advises COC how often

A

at least quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Official PFA clearance waiver?

A

NAVMED 6110/4 (SF 600s not authorized)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

YES PARFQ maintained for

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PRIMS

A

Physical Readiness Information System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Medical waivers are valid for how long?
One PFA cycle only
26
T/F Non-Navy Military facility may recommend PFA medical waiver
T
27
LIMDU code
ACC 105
28
Civilian provider waivers must be ______ by MTF prior to being routed to CO
Endorsed
29
BCA waivers (NAVMED 6110/4) require how many signatures?
2
30
PFA cycles end on what dates?
30 JUN | 31 DEC
31
Fit for duty is ability to perform job NOT
physical fitness
32
If member does not complete the run due to injury/illness, what time will be entered in PRIMS?
59:59
33
LD chits max time? May have additional chits up to how long?
30 days 90 days if expected to resolve prior to next PFA cycle (exceed that must follow LIMDU process)
34
Pregnancy instruction
OPNAVINST 6000.1
35
NAVMED P-117 mandates enrollment into the LIMDU system (105 code) following how many LLDS?
3 consecutive 90 day periods
36
Must LIMDU member participate in BCA?
Yes
37
Pregnant service women must provide proof of pregnancy to CFL on what slip?
DD 689, Individual Sick Slip
38
"Pregnant" status in PRIMS until...
6 months following convalescent leave
39
Are pregnant service women required to participate in command PT/FEP?
NO
40
What can the CO request after after completion of the convalescent period and "pregnancy status" removed?
Clearance from HCP to enroll in FEP
41
How much conleave is granted after miscarriage or abortion?
Determined by HCP
42
LONs for the 2nd and 3rd PFA failures shall be forwarded to?
NAVPERSCOM, (PERS-313) Records Management/Policy Branch
43
Letters of correction for PRIMS should be submitted within what time frame?
1yr of error
44
Members review PRIMS data within how many days?
60
45
Do not allow tobacco use ___ minutes before and _____ minutes after PT
30 | 15
46
Waiving 2 or more cycles requires concurrence from who?
Echelon 3 commander via ISIC
47
Unauthorized non-participation shall be designated how in PRIMS?
"UA"
48
10 week notification is not intended as?
"preparation window"
49
Feet per mile
7920
50
Treadmill time should be recorded how?
Stopwatch
51
Instruction?
OPNAV 6110.1J
52
Enter ____ into PRIMS when acclimatization extends into the PFA cycle?
Excused
53
What circumstances preventing participation in the PRT require justification?
``` DEP/OP Excused (acclimatization) Isolated duty IA TAD Leave (con/emergency) ```
54
When can courtesy BCAs be used as official?
When member checks onboard after command PFA cycle and no record exists
55
kcal per gram
Carb 4 Pro 4 Fat 9 Alcohol 7
56
If BCA alteration is detected, the member will be directed to return in what time frame?
72hrs
57
Alternate cardio events are not an ____
entitlement
58
When BCA is passed and PRT is waived, how is it documented in PRIMS
"BCA pass"
59
Lean meat
Round or loin
60
When must waivers be entered in PRIMS?
30 days of cycle completion
61
CFLs have up to ___ days from test date to edit existing PFA records
60
62
Requests to correct PRIMS data must be submitted to OPNAV N135F within what time frame?
1yr
63
When are members referred to medical?
1st time failure or new failure in a 4-year period
64
CO may authorize how many retests for PRT portion?
1
65
"Bad day" requests must be made within how many hours of completing the PRT?
24 hrs
66
"Bad day" retest must be conducted within what time frame?
7 days
67
If a member misses approved "bad day" retest and PCSs or becomes medically waived, what gets entered in PRIMS?
initial test score
68
COs provide enlisted personnel written notification of PFA failure within ____ days following cycle?
30
69
FEP personnel must score ___ or better in all PRT components to come off program.
good
70
How can members regain frocking eligibility?
Participate in FEP (must be within standards by promotion cycle limiting date)
71
PRIMS
Physical readiness information management system
72
Do not finish bike how scored in PRIMS?
10
73
2nd PFA failure, military bearing on eval graded how?
No greater than 1.0
74
NAVADMIN 238/11
Minimalist Footwear
75
Max time BCA to PRT
45 days (min time 24hrs)
76
BCA MALE?
26%
77
BCA Female
36%
78
Recent Navadmin
178/15